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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old patient comes back to the clinic after being on ramipril for 2 weeks for grade 3 hypertension. She reports a persistent cough that is causing sleep disturbance. What is the best course of action for managing this issue?
Your Answer: Stop ramipril and switch to amlodipine
Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and switch to losartan
Explanation:Angiotensin II receptor blockers may be considered for hypertension patients who experience cough as a side effect of ACE inhibitors. This is especially relevant for elderly patients, as ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are the preferred initial treatment options for hypertension.
Angiotensin II receptor blockers are a type of medication that is commonly used when patients cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors due to the development of a cough. Examples of these blockers include candesartan, losartan, and irbesartan. However, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with renovascular disease. Side-effects may include hypotension and hyperkalaemia.
The mechanism of action for angiotensin II receptor blockers is to block the effects of angiotensin II at the AT1 receptor. These blockers have been shown to reduce the progression of renal disease in patients with diabetic nephropathy. Additionally, there is evidence to suggest that losartan can reduce the mortality rates associated with CVA and IHD in hypertensive patients.
Overall, angiotensin II receptor blockers are a viable alternative to ACE inhibitors for patients who cannot tolerate the latter. They have a proven track record of reducing the progression of renal disease and improving mortality rates in hypertensive patients. However, as with any medication, caution should be exercised when using them in patients with certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman receives a Nexplanon implant. What is the duration of its contraceptive effectiveness?
Your Answer: 3 years
Explanation:Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.
There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the medical team with a 4-day history of fever, headache, and dysphasia. He reports feeling generally unwell. On examination, he has a GCS of 14 with no peripheral focal neurology and normal pupillary reactions. Bibasal crepitations and an ejection systolic murmur are heard on auscultation. His abdomen is soft and nontender. A chest radiograph is unremarkable, but a CT brain scan reveals an intracranial abscess. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to aid in further diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer: Electroencephalogram
Correct Answer: Echocardiogram
Explanation:Distant abscesses can be caused by infective embolic plaques in patients with infective endocarditis, including brain abscesses. To aid in the diagnosis of infective endocarditis, an echocardiogram is the most appropriate next investigation for this patient, given their examination findings. While a CT of the chest and abdomen may be necessary if the underlying cause remains unknown, it is less important with a normal chest radiograph and abdominal examination. Bronchoscopy, lower limb imaging, and EEG are not currently necessary.
Understanding Brain Abscesses
Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a considerable mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include dull and persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.
To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered. Additionally, intracranial pressure management with dexamethasone may be necessary.
Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options can help individuals seek medical help early and improve their chances of recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with right-sided facial droop, dysphasia, and right-sided hemianopia. He has a medical history of gout, recurrent UTIs, dementia, and diabetes mellitus. A CT head is unremarkable, and an MRI head reveals a left-sided infarct. Which of the patient's pre-existing conditions elevate his chances of experiencing an ischemic stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:The following factors increase the risk of ischaemic stroke: age, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidaemia, diabetes mellitus, and atrial fibrillation. However, gout, recurrent UTIs, and dementia do not have an impact on stroke risk. Taking aspirin can lower the risk of stroke.
Understanding Stroke: A Basic Overview
Stroke is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality, with over 150,000 cases reported annually in the UK alone. It is the fourth leading cause of death in the country, killing twice as many women as breast cancer each year. However, the prevention and treatment of strokes have undergone significant changes in the past decade. What was once considered an untreatable condition is now viewed as a brain attack that requires emergency assessment to determine if patients can benefit from new treatments such as thrombolysis.
A stroke, also known as a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), occurs when there is a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain. This interruption can lead to irreversible damage as neural tissue is entirely dependent on aerobic metabolism. There are two main types of strokes: ischaemic and haemorrhagic. Ischaemic strokes occur when there is a blockage in the blood vessel that stops blood flow, while haemorrhagic strokes happen when a blood vessel bursts, leading to a reduction in blood flow.
Symptoms of a stroke include motor weakness, speech problems, swallowing difficulties, visual field defects, and balance problems. The Oxford Stroke Classification is a formal system used to classify strokes based on initial symptoms. Patients with suspected stroke require emergency neuroimaging to determine if they are suitable for thrombolytic therapy to treat early ischaemic strokes. If the stroke is haemorrhagic, neurosurgical consultation should be considered for advice on further management.
In conclusion, understanding the basics of stroke is crucial in identifying and managing the condition. Early intervention and treatment can significantly improve outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman develops a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) during the second trimester of pregnancy.
Which of the following treatments is she likely to be managed with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low-molecular-weight heparin (eg. Clexane®)
Explanation:Anticoagulant Therapy for Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy. Any woman with symptoms or signs suggestive of DVT should undergo objective testing and receive treatment with low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) immediately until the diagnosis is excluded. LMWH should be given in doses titrated against the woman’s weight and can be administered once daily or in two divided doses. It does not cross the placenta and has a lower risk of bleeding and heparin-induced osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin (UH). Fondaparinux, argatroban, or r-hirudin may be considered for pregnant women who cannot tolerate heparin.
Aspirin is not recommended for thromboprophylaxis in obstetric patients, except for pregnant women with a known history of antiphospholipid syndrome. Intravenous UH is the preferred initial treatment for massive pulmonary embolism with cardiovascular compromise during pregnancy and the puerperium. Warfarin should not be used for antenatal DVT treatment due to its adverse effects on the fetus. Postnatal therapy can be with LMWH or oral anticoagulants, but regular blood tests are needed to monitor warfarin.
Compression duplex ultrasonography should be performed when there is clinical suspicion of DVT. D-dimer testing should not be used in the investigation of acute DVT in pregnancy. Before anticoagulant therapy is started, blood tests should be taken for a full blood count, coagulation screen, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests. Thrombophilia screening before therapy is not recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.
Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.
Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.
Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which one of the following patients should not be prescribed a statin without any contraindication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 57-year-old man with well controlled diabetes mellitus type 2 with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 8%
Explanation:Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presented with worsening pains in the small joints of both her feet with swelling and redness. She experienced stiffness which was worse in the morning. She was initially started on oral prednisolone with a proton-pump inhibitor whilst awaiting a specialist review from a rheumatologist. After seeing the specialist who performed blood tests and x-rays on her feet she was started on a new medication called hydroxychloroquine.
What serious side effects does the specialist need to counsel the patient on when starting this new medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Retinopathy
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine, a drug used to prevent and treat malaria, is now commonly included in treatment guidelines for conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, SLE, and porphyria cutanea tarda. However, it is important for patients to be aware of the potential severe and permanent retinopathy that can result from chronic use of the drug. The mechanism behind this adverse effect is uncertain, but it can lead to permanent visual loss. To prevent eye toxicity, the daily safe maximum dose of hydroxychloroquine can be estimated based on the patient’s height and weight.
Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects
Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the most prevalent form of multiple sclerosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Relapsing-remitting disease
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Sclerosis
Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the central nervous system, causing demyelination. It is more common in women and typically diagnosed in individuals aged 20-40 years. Interestingly, it is much more prevalent in higher latitudes, with a five-fold increase compared to tropical regions. Genetics play a role in the development of multiple sclerosis, with a 30% concordance rate in monozygotic twins and a 2% concordance rate in dizygotic twins.
There are several subtypes of multiple sclerosis, including relapsing-remitting disease, which is the most common form and accounts for around 85% of patients. This subtype is characterized by acute attacks followed by periods of remission. Secondary progressive disease describes relapsing-remitting patients who have deteriorated and developed neurological signs and symptoms between relapses. Gait and bladder disorders are commonly seen in this subtype, and around 65% of patients with relapsing-remitting disease go on to develop secondary progressive disease within 15 years of diagnosis. Finally, primary progressive disease accounts for 10% of patients and is characterized by progressive deterioration from onset, which is more common in older individuals. Understanding the different subtypes of multiple sclerosis is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to his family doctor after a trip to Southeast Asia. He and his colleagues frequently ate at street food stalls during their trip, often consuming seafood. He complains of feeling unwell, loss of appetite, yellowing of the skin and dark urine. He had a fever initially, but it disappeared once the jaundice appeared. During the examination, he has an enlarged liver and tenderness in the upper right quadrant. His ALT and AST levels are ten times the upper limit of normal, while his bilirubin level is six times the upper limit of normal, but his ALP is only slightly elevated. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis A
Explanation:The patient’s history of foreign travel suggests that the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. This virus is typically contracted through ingestion of contaminated food, particularly undercooked shellfish. While rare, outbreaks of Hepatitis A can occur worldwide, especially in resource-poor regions. Symptoms usually appear 2-6 weeks after exposure and can be more severe in older patients. Liver function tests often show elevated levels of ALT and AST. Diagnosis is confirmed through serologic testing for IgM antibody to HAV. Treatment involves supportive care and management of complications. Salmonella infection, Hepatitis B, gallstones, and pancreatic carcinoma are less likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms and clinical presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy has been under the care of the Paediatrics Team since birth and is attending the Paediatric Clinic for a follow-up appointment. His mother reports that he is struggling at school due to his learning and behavioural difficulties. He has a large jaw, hyper-extensible joints and macroorchidism.
Which of the following is the most likely syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Conditions and Their Phenotypic Features
Fragile X Syndrome, Down Syndrome, Edwards Syndrome, Noonan Syndrome, and Pierre-Robin Syndrome are genetic conditions that have distinct phenotypic features. Fragile X Syndrome is an X-linked form of learning disability and autism that mainly presents after puberty. Down Syndrome is characterized by brachycephaly, prominent epicanthal folds, and small nose and mouth with protruding tongue, among others, and is usually diagnosed at birth. Edwards Syndrome has a life expectancy of days to weeks and is characterized by neonatal hypotonia, apnea, and seizures. Noonan Syndrome is inherited in an autosomal-dominant pattern and is characterized by distinctive facial features, congenital heart defects, and skeletal malformations. Pierre-Robin Syndrome results in facial abnormalities, respiratory and feeding difficulties, and cleft palate. Understanding the phenotypic features of these genetic conditions is crucial for early diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy presents with difficulty in walking and foot drop. There is weakness of dorsiflexion and eversion of the right foot, with a small area of sensory loss over the dorsum of that foot.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve lesion
Explanation:The common peroneal nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve that provides motor and sensory innervation to the lateral and anterior compartments of the leg, as well as the dorsum of the foot. Damage to this nerve, often caused by fibular neck fracture, results in footdrop and sensory loss in the affected areas.
The sciatic nerve, which originates from the lumbosacral plexus, innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh and indirectly innervates the posterior leg/calf muscles and some intrinsic muscles of the feet. It also provides sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg, lateral foot, and sole of the foot. Sciatica, a common condition that causes pain radiating down the leg, is often caused by irritation of the sciatic nerve root.
The posterior tibial nerve, another branch of the sciatic nerve, supplies motor innervation to the posterior compartment of the leg and sensory innervation to the posterolateral leg, lateral foot, and sole of the foot. Damage to this nerve, often caused by compression or trauma, results in ankle and sole of foot paraesthesiae.
The L5 root innervates muscles responsible for ankle and great toe dorsiflexion, hip abduction, and sensory innervation to the buttocks, posterolateral thigh, and lateral calf. L5 radiculopathy, which causes pain radiating from the lower back to the foot, is a common condition associated with damage to this root.
The deep peroneal nerve, a branch of the common peroneal nerve, innervates the muscles responsible for foot dorsiflexion and provides sensory innervation to the area between the first and second toes. Damage to this nerve, often caused by conditions such as LMD or diabetes, results in footdrop with minimal sensory loss and preserved eversion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes in with complaints of nocturia, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. During prostate examination, a moderately enlarged prostate with no irregular features and a well-defined median sulcus is found. Blood tests reveal a PSA level of 1.3 ng/ml.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonist
Explanation:First-line treatment for benign prostatic hyperplasia involves the use of alpha-1 antagonists.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into voiding symptoms (obstructive) and storage symptoms (irritative). Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine tests, U&Es, and PSA tests. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line treatment for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms, while 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may be indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates and a high risk of progression. Combination therapy and antimuscarinic drugs may also be used in certain cases. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may be necessary in severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with severe abdominal pain. He appears to be in distress, shivering and writhing on the trolley. Despite previous investigations for abdominal pain, no cause has been found. The patient insists that he will harm himself unless he is given morphine for the pain. Which of the following best describes this behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Fabricating or inflating symptoms for financial benefit is known as malingering, such as an individual who feigns whiplash following a car accident in order to receive an insurance payout.
This can be challenging as the individual may be experiencing withdrawal symptoms from opioid abuse. Nevertheless, among the given choices, the most suitable term to describe the situation is malingering since the individual is intentionally reporting symptoms to obtain morphine.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old factory worker undergoes a routine hearing assessment as part of his annual work-based medical. He is noted to have a positive Rinne’s test (normal) and Weber’s test localising to the left ear.
What is the most likely defect in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right sensorineural hearing loss
Explanation:For a man with a positive Rinne’s test and sound localization to the left ear on Weber’s testing, the diagnosis is likely to be right-sided sensorineural hearing loss. If the Rinne’s test had been negative, it would have indicated left-sided conductive hearing loss. Similarly, if the sound had been localized to the right ear, it would have suggested left-sided sensorineural hearing loss. In the case of bilateral hearing loss, the Rinne’s test would be negative on both sides, and the Weber test would not localize to either ear. Finally, if the man had right-sided conductive hearing loss, the Rinne’s test would be negative on the right side, and the Weber test would localize to the right side.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant is discovered to have an amniotic fluid volume of 440 ml. What is not included in the list of possible diagnoses?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Explanation:Oligohydramnios is indicated by an amniotic fluid volume of 440ml, while polyhydramnios is associated with tracheo-oesophageal fistula.
Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.
There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man who is generally healthy visits his doctor to discuss planning a second child. His main concern is that his first child has sickle cell anemia. Both he and his partner have had genetic testing and are both carriers of the sickle cell trait.
Which of the following best describes the likelihood of his next child having sickle cell anemia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal-recessive condition that affects many individuals worldwide. To understand the inheritance of CF, it is important to know that a child inherits one copy of the gene from each parent. If both parents are carriers of the faulty gene, there is a 1 in 4 chance of their child being affected by the condition.
If the child inherits one normal and one abnormal gene, they become a carrier of CF. The chance of this happening is 50%. If the child inherits two normal genes, they will not be affected nor be a carrier of CF, and the chance of this happening is 25%. However, if the child inherits two copies of the faulty gene, they will be affected by the condition, and the chance of this happening is also 25%.
It is important to note that the fact that the first child has CF does not affect the risk to subsequent children. The risk remains the same for each child, as each child inherits a copy of the gene from each parent. Understanding the inheritance of CF can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old girl is presented to your GP clinic by her father with a complaint of erythematous sores on her face for the past 2 days. The lesions are limited to her face and have started to weep and progress to honey crusted lesions over the last 24 hours. The child is otherwise healthy. Previously, topical hydrogen peroxide was ineffective for a similar episode. What is the most appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Explanation:If hydrogen peroxide is not appropriate, topical fusidic acid can be used for impetigo.
Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that affects both children and adults. It is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes and can develop anywhere on the body, but lesions tend to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing. The infection can be a primary infection or a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema, scabies, or insect bites. Impetigo is highly contagious and can spread through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person or indirectly through toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment.
The symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. The infection can be managed with limited, localized disease by using hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. However, if the disease is extensive, oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin may be prescribed. It is important to note that MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation.
Children with impetigo should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment. It is also important to practice good hygiene, such as washing hands regularly and avoiding close contact with infected individuals, to prevent the spread of impetigo. By understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of impetigo, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this common bacterial skin infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old Japanese man presents with recurrent oral and genital ulcers, as well as painful nodules on his shin. He has a history of recurrent episodes of red eyes and thrombophlebitis in his legs.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Behçet syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating Behçet Syndrome from Other Rheumatic Diseases
Behçet syndrome is a rare inflammatory disorder that is most commonly seen in Turkey, Iran, and Japan. It is characterized by recurrent oral ulceration and can also involve the eyes, skin, joints, and other organs. Diagnosis is based on international criteria that require oral ulceration plus any two of genital ulcers, defined eye lesions, defined skin lesions, or a positive skin pathergy test. Treatment involves corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and other medications.
It is important to differentiate Behçet syndrome from other rheumatic diseases that can present with similar symptoms. Familial Mediterranean fever is another rare genetic disorder that can cause recurrent fever, arthritis, and serositis, but it typically affects different ethnic groups and has a different pattern of symptoms. Polyarteritis nodosa is a type of vasculitis that can cause systemic inflammation and damage to blood vessels, but it typically presents with different symptoms than Behçet syndrome. Reactive arthritis is a type of arthritis that can occur after a bacterial infection, but it typically involves urethritis and conjunctivitis in addition to joint pain. Palindromic rheumatism is a rare type of arthritis that involves sudden attacks of joint pain, but it typically does not cause lasting joint damage.
By carefully considering the patient’s symptoms and medical history, healthcare providers can make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment for patients with Behçet syndrome and other rheumatic diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman experiences a seizure while in the emergency department. The seizure began suddenly with an abrupt loss of consciousness and an initial period of stiff muscle contraction, followed by intermittent jerky movements. She has a history of epilepsy and takes carbamazepine, but has been noted to have poor adherence in the past. The seizure persists for more than five minutes despite a dose of IV lorazepam. What is the next best pharmacological approach?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous lorazepam
Explanation:Convulsive status epilepticus should be initially managed with IV lorazepam, with a repeat dose given 10 minutes later if the seizure persists or recurs. Buccal midazolam may be used if IV access is not available or if the seizure occurs outside of a hospital setting. It is important to note that a maximum of two doses of IV benzodiazepines should be administered during convulsive status epilepticus. Intravenous carbamazepine is not appropriate for acute seizure management, as it is primarily used for preventing tonic-clonic seizures. Intravenous phenytoin should not be given until two doses of benzodiazepines have been administered, and at this point, critical care and anesthesia should also be involved. Rectal diazepam is typically not used unless there is no IV access or the emergency occurs outside of a hospital setting.
Status epilepticus is a medical emergency that occurs when a person experiences a single seizure lasting more than five minutes or two seizures within a five-minute period without returning to normal between them. It is crucial to terminate seizure activity as soon as possible to prevent irreversible brain damage. The first step in managing status epilepticus is to ensure the patient’s airway is clear and provide oxygen while checking their blood glucose levels. The first-line treatment is IV benzodiazepines, such as diazepam or lorazepam, with PR diazepam or buccal midazolam given in the prehospital setting. In the hospital, IV lorazepam is typically used and may be repeated once after 10-20 minutes. If the status epilepticus persists, a second-line agent such as phenytoin or phenobarbital infusion may be administered. If there is no response within 45 minutes, induction of general anesthesia is the best way to achieve rapid control of seizure activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and occasional breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past year. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no palpable abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics. What is the most appropriate initial investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactin level
Explanation:Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, often caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. Inhibitory effects of raised prolactin may result in low levels of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), but this is not diagnostic. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the preferred imaging technique for investigating the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, rather than a skull computed tomography (CT) or X-ray, which may only show enlarged pituitary fossa with large adenomas. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 22
Incorrect
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You assess a 28-year-old female patient in the ED who has been admitted due to an acute exacerbation of her asthma. What is the most indicative feature of a life-threatening attack in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Peak flow of 30% best or predicted
Explanation:Management of Acute Asthma
Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.
Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of pelvic pain and deep dyspareunia that has been ongoing for four days. During the examination, the GP notes a temperature of 37.9 degrees Celsius, lower abdominal tenderness, and cervical motion tenderness. The GP suspects that the woman may have pelvic inflammatory disease. What criteria should the GP use to determine whether antibiotics should be prescribed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical evidence - history and examination
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, clinicians should diagnose pelvic inflammatory disease based on clinical symptoms and start antibiotic treatment promptly. While investigations such as endocervical and high vaginal swabs for microscopy and culture should be performed, they should not delay treatment. Negative swab results do not exclude the possibility of the disease. Blood cultures are not necessary unless the patient shows signs of systemic illness. Transvaginal ultrasound is not the first choice but may be necessary if an abscess is suspected.
(NICE CKS – Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is scheduled for the removal of three decayed teeth. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and a mechanical aortic valve replacement for aortic stenosis. What prophylaxis should he receive to prevent infective endocarditis before the procedure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No prophylaxis
Explanation:Infective endocarditis is a serious infection of the heart lining and valves. The 2008 guidelines from NICE have changed the list of procedures for which antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended. According to NICE, dental procedures, gastrointestinal, genitourinary, and respiratory tract procedures do not require prophylaxis. However, if a person at risk of infective endocarditis is receiving antimicrobial therapy because they are undergoing a gastrointestinal or genitourinary procedure at a site where there is a suspected infection, they should be given an antibiotic that covers organisms that cause infective endocarditis. It is important to note that these recommendations differ from the American Heart Association/European Society of Cardiology guidelines, which still advocate antibiotic prophylaxis for high-risk patients undergoing dental procedures.
The guidelines suggest that any episodes of infection in people at risk of infective endocarditis should be investigated and treated promptly to reduce the risk of endocarditis developing. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to prevent the development of infective endocarditis, which can lead to severe complications and even death. It is also important to note that these guidelines may change over time as new research and evidence become available. Therefore, healthcare professionals should stay up-to-date with the latest recommendations to provide the best possible care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 4-day history of an increasingly painful and swollen right eye. She complains of blurring of vision and pain, especially with eye movements, which were quite restricted. She has a past medical history of asthma and is allergic penicillin. On examination, the visual acuity is 6/24 in the right, 6/6 in the left. The periorbital area of the right eye is very swollen and erythematous. The eye itself is red and proptosed. The conjunctiva is chemosed. Eye movements in the right eye are quite restricted in all directions. There is relative afferent pupillary defect on the right. Fundoscopy shows a swollen optic disc in the right eye. Computed tomography (CT) scan shows diffuse orbital infiltrate and proptosis. Vital observations are as follows: Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg Heart rate 80 bpm Respiratory rate 20 per minute Oxygen saturation 97% on air Temperature 38.2 °C What is first-line management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV
Explanation:Orbital Cellulitis in Penicillin-Allergic Patients
When treating orbital cellulitis in a patient with a penicillin allergy, it is important to choose the right antibiotics. Cefuroxime IV alone is not enough and should be combined with metronidazole. Co-amoxiclav IV is not appropriate for penicillin-allergic patients. Tazocin® IV should also be avoided. The best option is a combination of clindamycin and ciprofloxacin IV. It is important to note that drainage of the orbit is not necessary unless there are signs of an abscess. By choosing the right treatment, we can effectively manage orbital cellulitis in penicillin-allergic patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of heartburn, nausea and a metallic taste in her mouth. She has a good appetite and has lost 2kg in the last month. She has a past medical history of hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and osteoporosis. She takes amlodipine 5mg OD, risedronate 35 mg OD and lansoprazole 30 mg OD.
On examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender and there are no palpable masses. Her observations are normal.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient from the following options?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
Explanation:An urgent referral is warranted when weight loss is a prominent symptom in dyspepsia.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which skin condition is commonly linked to antiphospholipid syndrome in individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Livedo reticularis
Explanation:Antiphospholipid syndrome is characterized by arterial and venous thrombosis, miscarriage, and the presence of livedo reticularis skin rash. Meanwhile, tuberculosis is commonly associated with the skin condition lupus vulgaris.
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thromboses, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.
Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman underwent bowel resection and 48 hours post-operation, she became breathless, tachycardic, tachypnoeic and complained of pleuritic chest pain.
Which of the following is the most definitive investigation to request?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA)
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Pulmonary Embolism: A Comparison
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. There are several diagnostic tests available for PE, but not all are equally effective. Here, we compare the most commonly used tests and their suitability for diagnosing PE.
CT pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) is the gold standard diagnostic test for PE. It is highly sensitive and specific, making it the most definitive investigation for PE. Patients with a history of recent surgery and subsequent symptoms pointing towards PE should undergo a CTPA.
Electrocardiography (ECG) is not a first-line diagnostic test for PE. Although classic ECG changes may occur in some patients with PE, they are not specific to the condition and may also occur in individuals without PE.
Chest radiograph is less definitive than CTPA for diagnosing PE. While it may show some abnormalities, many chest radiographs are normal in PE. Therefore, it is not a reliable test for diagnosing PE.
Echocardiogram may show right-sided heart dysfunction in very large PEs, but it is not a first-line diagnostic test for PE and is not definitive in the investigation of PE.
Positron emission tomography (PET)/CT of the chest is not recommended for the investigation of PE. It is a radioisotope functional imaging technique used in the imaging of tumours and neuroimaging, but not for diagnosing PE.
In conclusion, CTPA is the most definitive diagnostic test for PE and should be used in patients with a high suspicion of the condition. Other tests may be used in conjunction with CTPA or in specific cases, but they are not as reliable or definitive as CTPA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding croup is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Most commonly caused by parainfluenza viruses
Explanation:The majority of croup cases are caused by parainfluenza virus, and it is recommended to avoid throat examination as it may lead to airway obstruction.
Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers
Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.
The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.
Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.
Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology by her General Practitioner with general ill-health. She has been complaining of general muscle weakness, a feeling of fatigue and a persistent cough. An autoimmune screen reveals high titres of anti-smooth muscle antibodies.
Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this autoantibody profile?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Explanation:Understanding Anti-Smooth Muscle Antibodies and Their Association with Various Conditions
Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA) are often present in autoimmune hepatitis type 1, primary biliary cholangitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and overlap syndromes. In contrast, low titres are seen with Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) infections and hepatitis A. Negative titres for ASMA are expected in healthy individuals.
It is important to note that ASMA are not found in hypothyroidism or fibrosing alveolitis. Additionally, only low titres of ASMA can be seen with hepatitis A and EBV infections.
Overall, the presence of ASMA can indicate the presence of underlying conditions and should be further investigated by a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman visits her GP clinic as her sister was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She is worried about her own risk and is considering genetic testing. However, there is no other history of breast cancer in the family. What specific information should lead to a referral to a breast specialist?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her sister being 38-years-old
Explanation:Familial breast cancer is linked to ovarian cancer, not endometrial cancer.
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.
For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of redness in his left eye for the past week. During the examination, a tender papule is observed at the margin of the lower eyelid on the left side. Additionally, the conjunctiva of the left eye appears red. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warm compress, analgesia and topical antibiotic
Explanation:If there is conjunctivitis present with the stye, topical antibiotics are recommended along with warm compress and pain relief. Cold compress should not be used. Oral antibiotics should only be considered if the infection persists despite topical treatment.
Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues. One such issue is blepharitis, which is inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Another problem is a stye, which is an infection of the glands in the eyelids. Chalazion, also known as Meibomian cyst, is another eyelid problem that can occur. Entropion is when the eyelids turn inward, while ectropion is when they turn outward.
Styes can come in different forms, such as external or internal. An external stye is an infection of the glands that produce sebum or sweat, while an internal stye is an infection of the Meibomian glands. Treatment for styes typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only being recommended if there is also conjunctivitis present. A chalazion, on the other hand, is a painless lump that can form in the eyelid due to a retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. While most cases will resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
Calcium 2.20 mmol/l
Phosphate 0.8 mmol/l
ALP 890 u/L
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paget's disease
Explanation:Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old pregnant woman arrives with preterm labor at 32 weeks gestation. What is the primary intervention to prevent neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer dexamethasone to the mother
Explanation:Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome (NRDS) is a condition that primarily affects premature newborns due to a lack of surfactant. This deficiency causes an increase in alveolar surface tension, leading to reduced compliance and increased breathing effort. The production of surfactant in the fetus is aided by natural maternal glucocorticosteroids, and synthetic steroids are the first-line treatment for preventing NRDS in high-risk pregnancies. Tocolytics, which can delay preterm labor, are not typically used, but may be considered in certain cases to allow time for maternal steroids to take effect. While curosurf, continuous positive airway pressure, and extracorporeal membrane oxygenation can be effective treatments for NRDS, they are not used as preventative measures.
Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants
Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.
The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.
Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a productive cough and fever. He has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus, gout, dyspepsia, and had a renal transplant 3 years ago. His current medications include azathioprine, allopurinol, and omeprazole. He drinks 25 units of alcohol a week and has done so for the past decade.
His vital signs are as follows:
Respiratory rate of 34 /min
Pulse of 123 bpm
Temperature of 39.4ºC
Blood pressure of 84/56 mmHg
Oxygen saturation of 94% on room air
Blood results show:
Hb 90 g/L Male: (135-180)
Platelets 85 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 1.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Neuts 0.7 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)
What drug interaction is likely responsible for this patient's presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Azathioprine and allopurinol use
Explanation:The use of allopurinol in combination with azathioprine can increase the risk of myelosuppression and neutropenic sepsis. This is because azathioprine is metabolized to its active form, 6-mercaptopurine, which is then metabolized by xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, leading to an accumulation of 6-mercaptopurine and an increased risk of myelosuppression. Chronic alcohol use and omeprazole use do not significantly increase the risk of myelosuppression when used with azathioprine or allopurinol.
Allopurinol is a medication used to prevent gout by inhibiting xanthine oxidase. Traditionally, it was believed that urate-lowering therapy (ULT) should not be started until two weeks after an acute attack to avoid further attacks. However, the evidence supporting this is weak, and the British Society of Rheumatology (BSR) now recommends delaying ULT until inflammation has settled to make long-term drug decisions while the patient is not in pain. The initial dose of allopurinol is 100 mg once daily, with the dose titrated every few weeks to aim for a serum uric acid level of less than 300 µmol/l. Colchicine cover should be considered when starting allopurinol, and NSAIDs can be used if colchicine cannot be tolerated. ULT is recommended for patients with two or more attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics, and Lesch-Nyhan syndrome.
The most significant adverse effects of allopurinol are dermatological, and patients should stop taking the medication immediately if they develop a rash. Severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR), drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS), and Stevens-Johnson syndrome are potential risks. Certain ethnic groups, such as the Chinese, Korean, and Thai people, are at an increased risk of these dermatological reactions. Patients at high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for the HLA-B *5801 allele. Allopurinol can interact with other medications, such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, and theophylline. Azathioprine is metabolized to the active compound 6-mercaptopurine, which is oxidized to 6-thiouric acid by xanthine oxidase. Allopurinol can lead to high levels of 6-mercaptopurine, so a much-reduced dose must be used if the combination cannot be avoided. Allopurinol also reduces renal clearance of cyclophosphamide, which may cause marrow toxicity. Additionally, allopurinol causes an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline by inhibiting its breakdown.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 37
Incorrect
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You are conducting the eight-week baby check on a healthy infant who was born at term. As part of health promotion, you are discussing ways to minimize the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) with the mother. She is already aware of the significance of placing the baby on its back while sleeping and does not smoke. What is the most crucial additional risk factor for SIDS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sleeping in the same bed as the baby
Explanation:Studies have indicated that bed sharing is the most prominent risk factor for SIDS, followed by prone sleeping, parental smoking, hyperthermia and head covering, and prematurity.
Understanding Sudden Infant Death Syndrome
Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is the leading cause of death in infants during their first year of life, with the highest incidence occurring at three months of age. There are several major risk factors associated with SIDS, including placing the baby to sleep on their stomach, parental smoking, prematurity, bed sharing, and hyperthermia or head covering. These risk factors are additive, meaning that the more risk factors present, the higher the likelihood of SIDS. Other risk factors include male sex, multiple births, lower social classes, maternal drug use, and an increased incidence during winter.
However, there are also protective factors that can reduce the risk of SIDS. Breastfeeding, room sharing (but not bed sharing), and the use of pacifiers have been shown to be protective. In the event of a SIDS occurrence, it is important to screen siblings for potential sepsis and inborn errors of metabolism.
Overall, understanding the risk factors and protective factors associated with SIDS can help parents and caregivers take steps to reduce the likelihood of this tragic event. By following safe sleep practices and promoting healthy habits, we can work towards reducing the incidence of SIDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman is recuperating from a kidney transplant. Within 24 hours of the surgery, she complains of increased discomfort at the transplant site. Upon examination, she has a fever, tenderness at the transplant site, and has not produced urine since the procedure. Her creatinine levels have significantly increased in the past 24 hours. What is the fundamental mechanism behind her rejection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens
Explanation:Understanding HLA Typing and Graft Failure in Renal Transplants
The human leucocyte antigen (HLA) system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and plays a crucial role in renal transplants. The HLA system includes class 1 antigens (A, B, and C) and class 2 antigens (DP, DQ, and DR), with DR being the most important for HLA matching in renal transplants. Graft survival rates for cadaveric transplants are 90% at 1 year and 60% at 10 years, while living-donor transplants have a 95% survival rate at 1 year and 70% at 10 years.
Post-operative problems may include acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections. Hyperacute rejection, which occurs within minutes to hours, is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in the need for graft removal. Acute graft failure, which occurs within 6 months, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is picked up by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Chronic graft failure, which occurs after 6 months, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms and leads to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, with recurrence of the original renal disease being a common cause.
In summary, understanding the HLA system and its role in renal transplants is crucial for successful outcomes. Monitoring for post-operative problems and early detection of graft failure can help improve long-term survival rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset abdominal pain and vomiting for the past 5 days. She feels nauseated and cannot tolerate any food and only minimal liquid. She denies diarrhoea and has not had a bowel movement for 4 days.
Her past medical history includes chronic lower back pain for which she takes regular co-codamol. The last time she was in hospital was for her cesarean section 10 years ago.
Upon examination, she appears clammy and dehydrated. Her abdomen is distended and tender throughout. Bowel sounds are inaudible.
What is the most probable underlying cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adhesions
Explanation:The most common cause of small bowel obstruction is adhesions. This patient is experiencing symptoms such as abdominal pain, distention, and constipation, which are similar to those of large bowel obstruction. However, the onset of nausea and vomiting is an early sign of small bowel obstruction, indicating a proximal lesion. Adhesions are scar tissue that can form due to inflammation or manipulation of the abdominal contents during surgery, and they are often present in patients who are asymptomatic for years before experiencing symptoms. Given the patient’s history of a previous cesarean section, adhesional small bowel obstruction is a likely diagnosis.
Large bowel obstruction is most commonly caused by colorectal cancer, and symptoms include abdominal pain, distention, and constipation. However, nausea and vomiting are later signs compared to small bowel obstruction.
Gallstone ileus is a rare complication of cholecystitis where a gallstone passes through a fistula between the gallstone and small bowel before becoming impacted, leading to small bowel obstruction.
Inguinal hernias can also cause small bowel obstruction, as they involve a protrusion of abdominal contents through a defect in the abdominal wall. However, the patient’s history of previous abdominal surgery makes adhesions a more likely cause.
While regular opioid use can lead to constipation, it is not a cause of obstruction. In this case, the patient’s bilious vomiting and positive findings of abdominal tenderness and distension suggest intestinal obstruction rather than simple constipation.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman complains of developing urinary incontinence. She reports no urinary urgency or pain, but experiences leakage of urine when she coughs or laughs. What is the best initial approach to manage this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic floor muscle training
Explanation:The initial treatment for urinary incontinence differs depending on the type. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining is the recommended first-line approach. On the other hand, for stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training is the preferred initial treatment.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a three-day history of blurring of vision. He has a past medical history of hypertension, managed with amlodipine, ramipril, and indapamide, and type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes with a reduction in colour vision. There is no relative afferent pupillary defect. On direct fundoscopy, the optic disc's margins are ill-defined and seem to be raised in both eyes. There are also some cotton-wool spots scattered around the retina in both eyes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Explanation:Differentiating Hypertensive Retinopathy from Other Eye Conditions
Hypertensive retinopathy is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if left untreated. A grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy, as classified by the Keith-Wagener-Barker system, is characterized by bilateral optic disc swelling and cotton-wool spots. This condition can cause a reduction in visual acuity and color vision due to optic neuropathy secondary to hypertension.
It is important to differentiate hypertensive retinopathy from other eye conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy, for example, is unlikely if the patient’s type II diabetes is well-controlled. The presence of cotton-wool spots does not indicate diabetic retinopathy.
An intracranial space-occupying lesion is also not indicated in the patient’s history. Optic neuritis, while it can present with loss of optic nerve function, is more likely to present unilaterally and without cotton-wool spots.
Pre-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is also unlikely in this case, as the patient’s diabetes is well-controlled. In diabetic retinopathy, optic discs will not be raised.
In summary, a thorough understanding of the patient’s medical history and symptoms is necessary to accurately diagnose hypertensive retinopathy and differentiate it from other eye conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner with his daughter. She reports that her father’s behavior has changed over the past year. He used to be a very sociable and outgoing man but recently he has become withdrawn and uninterested in his hobbies. He has also become forgetful and has difficulty completing tasks that he used to do easily. The patient tells you that he does not think there is anything wrong with him and he is just getting older.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontotemporal dementia
Explanation:Differentiating Types of Dementia: A Brief Overview
Dementia is a broad term used to describe a decline in cognitive function that interferes with daily activities. However, there are different types of dementia, each with unique characteristics. Here are some key features to help differentiate between frontotemporal dementia, Alzheimer’s disease, Huntington’s disease, normal-pressure hydrocephalus (NPH), and Parkinson’s disease.
Frontotemporal Dementia
This type of dementia is rare and typically affects individuals between the ages of 55 and 65. Early personality and behavior changes are core symptoms, while memory impairment is not typical. Other key features include a gradual progression, decline in social conduct, emotional blunting, and loss of insight.Alzheimer’s Disease
Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia, affecting individuals over the age of 65. Memory loss is a key early symptom, followed by agitation and obsessive behavior later in the disease course.Huntington’s Disease
Huntington’s disease is a neurodegenerative condition that is often inherited. Symptoms include memory impairment, depression, clumsiness, mood swings, and difficulty concentrating. However, this patient’s symptoms are more consistent with early frontotemporal dementia.Normal-Pressure Hydrocephalus (NPH)
NPH is a reversible cause of dementia characterized by gait abnormality, memory impairment, and incontinence. It may be mistaken for Parkinson’s disease, but symptoms will not improve with levodopa.Parkinson’s Disease
While dementia and hallucinations may develop during the course of Parkinson’s disease, it is primarily a movement disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman, with a history of gallstones, arrives at the emergency department complaining of central abdominal pain that radiates to her back. Upon conducting blood tests, you observe the following result:
Amylase 480 U/L (30 - 110). The patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis and inquires about the severity of her condition. What is the primary factor in determining the clinical severity of acute pancreatitis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presence of any systemic or local complications
Explanation:When determining the severity of pancreatitis, the presence of systemic or local complications is the most important factor to consider. Mild acute pancreatitis is characterized by the absence of both organ failure and local complications. Local complications in severe cases may include peripancreatic fluid collections, pancreatic or peripancreatic necrosis, pseudocysts, and walled-off areas of necrosis. The Atlanta classification system categorizes acute pancreatitis as mild, moderate, or severe. Mild cases have no organ failure, local or systemic complications, and typically resolve within a week. Pain level and initial CRP levels are not used to classify severity, but a high white blood cell count may indicate an increased risk of severe pancreatitis. Serum amylase levels and pancreatic calcification on CT scans are also not reliable indicators of severity.
Managing Acute Pancreatitis in a Hospital Setting
Acute pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires management in a hospital setting. The severity of the condition can be stratified based on the presence of organ failure and local complications. Key aspects of care include fluid resuscitation, aggressive early hydration with crystalloids, and adequate pain management with intravenous opioids. Patients should not be made ‘nil-by-mouth’ unless there is a clear reason, and enteral nutrition should be offered within 72 hours of presentation. Antibiotics should not be used prophylactically, but may be indicated in cases of infected pancreatic necrosis. Surgery may be necessary for patients with acute pancreatitis due to gallstones or obstructed biliary systems, and those with infected necrosis may require radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 44
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male presents to the low-risk chest pain clinic with intermittent substernal chest pains. The pain typically comes on with exertion and improves with rest. A trial of GTN has been given by his GP which helps with his pain. He is a known ex-smoker of 35 pack-years. He has no diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and no family history of coronary artery disease.
During examination, his observations are stable. On auscultations of his chest, his first and second heart sounds are audible with no added sounds and his lungs are clear.
What investigation should be prioritized given his risk for coronary artery disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contrast-enhanced coronary CT angiography
Explanation:The preferred initial diagnostic test for individuals with stable chest pain suspected to be caused by coronary artery disease is a CT coronary angiogram with contrast enhancement.
Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain
When it comes to assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain, NICE has updated its guidelines in 2016. For patients presenting with acute chest pain, immediate management of suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is crucial. This includes administering glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg, but not other antiplatelet agents like Clopidogrel outside of the hospital. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely given, but only if sats are less than 94%. Referral depends on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone. Examples of non-invasive functional imaging include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography (MPS with SPECT), stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance (MR) perfusion, or MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.
In summary, assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain requires immediate management for acute chest pain and referral based on timing and ECG results. For stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain and recommends non-invasive functional imaging for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of dysuria and lower abdominal pain for the past three days. She has also noticed an unusual vaginal discharge since yesterday. She has been in a committed relationship for the past year and is sexually active. The urine dipstick is normal and her pregnancy test is negative.
What is the most suitable investigation to be performed next, given the most probable diagnosis?
Choose the SINGLE most appropriate investigation from the options below.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: High vaginal swab for nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT)
Explanation:Investigations for Suspected Sexually Transmitted Infection in Women
When a woman presents with lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and vaginal discharge, it is important to consider the possibility of a sexually transmitted infection (STI), particularly if she is under 25 years old, has had a new sexual partner or multiple partners in the past year, or has a history of STIs. A high vaginal swab for nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) is the investigation of choice in women suspected of having an STI, such as chlamydia or gonorrhoea. If the NAAT is positive for gonorrhoea, swabs are collected for culture to test for antibiotic susceptibility. Blood tests for inflammatory markers may be useful if an acute abdomen is suspected. HIV serology is not the next investigation in this case, but those diagnosed with STIs are offered screening for HIV. An ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis may be done if a complicated pelvic inflammatory disease is suspected, but it is unlikely to be helpful in this case. Urine culture would not be useful in the absence of urinary symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner having been feeling unwell for a few days with a persistent cough.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 120–160 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 18 × 109/l 4.5–11.0 × 109/l
Neutrophils 12 × 109/l 2.0–7.5 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 450 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
A blood film shows atypical lymphocytes.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute bacterial infection
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Abnormal Full Blood Count Results
When a patient presents with abnormal full blood count (FBC) results, it is important to consider a range of potential diagnoses. In this case, the patient has neutrophilia and atypical lymphocytes, indicating an acute bacterial infection. Other potential diagnoses, such as chronic myeloid leukaemia, tuberculosis, cytomegalovirus infection, and pregnancy, can be ruled out based on the absence of key symptoms and blood film findings. Clinical prediction scores can be used to aid in antibiotic stewardship. It is important to consider all potential diagnoses and conduct further testing as needed to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 10-month-old infant with a viral upper respiratory tract infection. Despite being clinically stable, the mother inquires about the child's development towards the end of the consultation. The infant is observed to point and babble 'mama' and 'dada', but has not yet developed any other words. She appears to be timid and cries when being examined. The infant has an early pincer grip and can roll from front to back, but is unable to sit without support. How would you evaluate her developmental progress?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isolated delay in gross motor skills
Explanation:A delay in gross motor skills is likely as most babies are able to sit without support by 7-8 months, but the other developmental features are normal for her age. If the delay persists at 12 months, referral to a paediatrician should be considered.
Gross Motor Developmental Milestones
Gross motor skills refer to the ability to use large muscles in the body for activities such as crawling, walking, running, and jumping. These skills are essential for a child’s physical development and are achieved through a series of developmental milestones.
At 3 months, a baby should have little or no head lag when pulled to sit and should have good head control when lying on their abdomen. By 6 months, they should be able to lift and grasp their feet when lying on their back, pull themselves to a sitting position, and roll from front to back. At 9 months, they should be able to pull themselves to a standing position and crawl. By 12 months, they should be able to cruise and walk with one hand held. At 18 months, they should be able to walk unsupported and squat to pick up a toy. By 2 years, they should be able to run and walk up and down stairs holding onto a rail. At 3 years, they should be able to ride a tricycle using pedals and walk up stairs without holding onto a rail. By 4 years, they should be able to hop on one leg.
It is important to note that while the majority of children crawl on all fours before walking, some children may bottom-shuffle, which is a normal variant that runs in families. These milestones serve as a guide for parents and healthcare professionals to monitor a child’s physical development and identify any potential delays or concerns.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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Neuropathic pain typically does not improve with opioids. Nevertheless, if conventional treatments have been ineffective, which opioid should be considered for initiation in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tramadol
Explanation:Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management
Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.
To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.
Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness and difficulty understanding speech at 9:30 am. It is now 12:15 pm. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and hyperlipidemia, and takes lisinopril, metformin, and atorvastatin.
Initial investigations reveal a capillary blood glucose of 5.2 mmol/L (4.0-6.0 mmol/L) and oxygen saturations of 97%. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate CT head (non-contrast)
Explanation:The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are informed at the 20-week antenatal scan of the presence of echogenic bowel in the male fetus. They had been trying to conceive unsuccessfully for three years until investigations revealed oligospermia and this pregnancy was a result of intrauterine insemination. Both parents are aged 35 years old. The father has had several episodes of upper respiratory tract infections that have required antibiotics and he has been admitted to hospital in the past with acute gastritis. The mother is fit and well without any significant past medical history.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate next investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Testing for the CFTR gene mutation in both parents
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic condition that requires two copies of a faulty CFTR gene, one from each parent. If symptoms are present, it is important to confirm the diagnosis in the father and determine if the mother is a carrier of the faulty gene before pursuing further testing. While a sweat test can diagnose CF in the father, it cannot determine carrier status in the mother. Invasive procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling should only be performed if there is strong suspicion of a chromosomal or genetic abnormality, and less invasive genetic testing of both parents should be considered first. Karyotyping is not a useful diagnostic tool for CF, as it only detects chromosomal abnormalities and not genetic ones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is discharged following an uncomplicated renal transplant for end-stage renal failure from hypertension. She received a kidney with 4 out of 6 mismatched human leukocyte antigen (HLA) and is taking the appropriate medications. Thirty days postoperatively, she developed watery loose stools, followed by a skin rash that is itchy, painful and red. On examination, she has a red-violet rash affecting her hands and feet.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 280 ×109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 15.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 54 IU/l 7–55 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 165 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 62 µmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graft-versus-host disease
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Watery Diarrhea and Rash after Renal Transplantation
Graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) is a potential complication of solid organ transplantation, with a mortality rate of 75%. It typically presents with watery diarrhea, a painful red-violet rash, and raised bilirubin. Diagnosis is obtained through biopsy, and treatment involves immunosuppressants such as tacrolimus and methylprednisolone.
Acute viral hepatitis is another possible cause of diarrhea and jaundice, but the patient’s normal ALT and atypical symptoms make it unlikely. Azathioprine toxicity can cause bone marrow suppression, while Sjögren syndrome causes dry eyes and xerostomia, neither of which fit this patient’s presentation.
Viral gastroenteritis is a consideration, but the presence of a painful/itchy rash and raised bilirubin suggests a need for further investigation. Given the recent renal transplant, a high degree of suspicion for GVHD and other potential complications is warranted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with symptoms of reflux oesophagitis. You decide to initiate treatment with lansoprazole, as she has already made lifestyle modifications but has not experienced complete relief from her reflux symptoms.
What is the mechanism of action of lansoprazole?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It inhibits the H+/K+ ATP ‘proton pump’
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a type of medication that reduces the production of gastric acid by irreversibly blocking the hydrogen/potassium adenosine triphosphatase enzyme system, also known as the gastric proton pump. This is achieved by inhibiting the H+/K+ ATPase proton pump, not the H+/Na+ or H+/Ca2+ ATP proton pumps. PPIs, such as lansoprazole and omeprazole, are more effective than H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine and are commonly used to treat peptic ulcer disease, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), and as part of the triple therapy regimen for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori. Antihistamines, on the other hand, act on histamine receptors such as the H1 and H2 receptors, which are found in smooth muscle, vascular endothelial cells, and the central nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male patient complains of severe pain during defecation for the last two weeks. He has also noticed occasional blood on the toilet paper while wiping. During the examination, a tear is observed on the posterior midline of the anal verge. Which of the following treatment options should not be suggested?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical steroids
Explanation:Studies have demonstrated that topical steroids are not very effective in the treatment of anal fissures.
Understanding Anal Fissures: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Anal fissures are tears in the lining of the distal anal canal that can be either acute or chronic. Acute fissures last for less than six weeks, while chronic fissures persist for more than six weeks. The most common risk factors for anal fissures include constipation, inflammatory bowel disease, and sexually transmitted infections such as HIV, syphilis, and herpes.
Symptoms of anal fissures include painful, bright red rectal bleeding, with around 90% of fissures occurring on the posterior midline. If fissures are found in other locations, underlying causes such as Crohn’s disease should be considered.
Management of acute anal fissures involves softening stool, dietary advice, bulk-forming laxatives, lubricants, topical anaesthetics, and analgesia. For chronic anal fissures, the same techniques should be continued, and topical glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) is the first-line treatment. If GTN is not effective after eight weeks, surgery (sphincterotomy) or botulinum toxin may be considered, and referral to secondary care is recommended.
In summary, anal fissures can be a painful and uncomfortable condition, but with proper management, they can be effectively treated. It is important to identify and address underlying risk factors to prevent the development of chronic fissures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 54
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old man complains of increasing back pain and overall weakness. An X-ray of his back reveals multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Understanding Multiple Myeloma: A Malignant Disease of Plasma Cells
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that commonly affects adults aged over 60 years. It is characterized by the production of paraproteinaemia in the blood, which can affect multiple organs including the blood, bone, kidneys, and immune system. The most common symptoms of multiple myeloma include unexplained bone pain, hypercalcaemia, weight loss, hyperviscosity symptoms, spinal cord compression, and fever.
On the other hand, osteoporosis is a condition characterized by low bone mass and deterioration of the structure of the bone tissue, resulting in bone fragility and susceptibility to fracture. Multiple vertebral collapses and lytic lesions are more sinister in nature and are commonly associated with multiple myeloma.
Osteosarcoma, bone metastases, and chronic myeloblastic leukaemia (CML) are not related to multiple myeloma. Osteosarcoma is characterized by cortical destruction and the presence of a soft-tissue mass, while bone metastases usually lead to destruction of the cortex on plain radiographs. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, night sweats, weight loss, abdominal fullness, and left upper quadrant pain.
In summary, understanding the symptoms and characteristics of multiple myeloma is crucial in diagnosing and treating this malignant disease of plasma cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis that began 45 minutes ago. He has a history of chronic back pain and takes ibuprofen, as well as warfarin for his atrial fibrillation. The medical team initiates resuscitation and places two large-bore cannulas. What is the appropriate management for this patient in an acute setting?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV prothrombin complex concentrate
Explanation:There is insufficient evidence to support the use of PPIs in stopping bleeding, as in most cases, bleeding ceases without their administration. Administering IV proton pump inhibitors and fresh frozen plasma prior to endoscopy is incorrect, as PPIs should not be given and fresh frozen plasma should only be given to patients with specific blood clotting abnormalities.
Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The clinical features of this condition include haematemesis, melena, and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes.
The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation is also necessary, including ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours.
For non-variceal bleeding, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should not be given before endoscopy to patients with suspected non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding. However, PPIs should be given to patients with non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding and stigmata of recent haemorrhage shown at endoscopy. If further bleeding occurs, options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery. For variceal bleeding, terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation, and band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash in both his armpits and the flexor surfaces of his elbows on both sides. He states that this came on gradually and that he has had similar episodes in the past. However, none of them lasted more than one month.
He states that according to his mother, the first episode occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select ONE option onlyYour Answer:
Correct Answer: Atopic eczema
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions: Characteristics and Differential Diagnosis
Atopic Eczema: This condition is characterized by an itchy rash with a predominantly flexural distribution, along with a history of asthma and dry skin. It is episodic in nature and typically starts in childhood. Atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis, but investigations may be helpful to exclude differential diagnoses.
Irritant Eczema: This form of dermatitis is caused by exposure to irritants such as strong acids and alkalis. Symptoms and signs vary and may include stinging, burning, and chapping. Skin changes are usually restricted to the area in contact with the irritant. Avoidance of the causative agent usually leads to the resolution of symptoms within a few days.
Lichen Planus: This skin disorder is of unknown aetiology and mainly involves an itchy, papular rash commonly on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of arms. The rash is often polygonal in shape, with a ‘white lines’ pattern on the surface. Management typically involves topical steroids.
Molluscum Contagiosum: This common skin infection is caused by the M. contagiosum virus and presents with characteristic pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication. Lesions appear in clusters in areas anywhere on the body, except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet.
Psoriasis: This chronic skin disorder typically presents with erythematous plaques covered with a silvery-white scale, occurring typically on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows and knees, as well as on the scalp, trunk, buttocks, and periumbilical area. There usually is a clear delineation between normal and affected skin, and plaques typically range from 1 cm to 10 cm in size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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Primary biliary cholangitis is most commonly associated with middle-aged women and which specific antibodies?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:The M rule for primary biliary cholangitis includes the presence of IgM and anti-Mitochondrial antibodies, specifically the M2 subtype, in middle-aged women.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: A Chronic Liver Disorder
Primary biliary cholangitis, previously known as primary biliary cirrhosis, is a chronic liver disorder that is commonly observed in middle-aged women. The exact cause of this condition is not yet fully understood, but it is believed to be an autoimmune disease. The disease is characterized by the progressive damage of interlobular bile ducts due to chronic inflammation, leading to cholestasis and eventually cirrhosis. The most common symptom of primary biliary cholangitis is itching in middle-aged women.
This condition is often associated with other autoimmune diseases such as Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Early symptoms of primary biliary cholangitis may be asymptomatic or may include fatigue, pruritus, and cholestatic jaundice. Late symptoms may progress to liver failure. Diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis involves immunology tests such as anti-mitochondrial antibodies (AMA) M2 subtype and smooth muscle antibodies, as well as imaging tests to exclude an extrahepatic biliary obstruction.
The first-line treatment for primary biliary cholangitis is ursodeoxycholic acid, which slows down the progression of the disease and improves symptoms. Cholestyramine is used to alleviate pruritus, and fat-soluble vitamin supplementation is recommended. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary, especially if bilirubin levels exceed 100. However, recurrence in the graft can occur, but it is not usually a problem. Complications of primary biliary cholangitis include cirrhosis, portal hypertension, ascites, variceal hemorrhage, osteomalacia, osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to you with complaints of persistent fatigue that has been ongoing for years. She reports that her fatigue has worsened in the past month and has prevented her from going to work. Despite conducting a thorough tiredness screen, all results have come back negative. The patient has been researching online and asks if you think she may have fibromyalgia or chronic fatigue syndrome. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required for a diagnosis of chronic fatigue syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 months
Explanation:Before diagnosing chronic fatigue syndrome, other potential causes of fatigue must be ruled out through a comprehensive tiredness screen. This should include blood tests such as FBC, ESR/CRP, U&E, Cr, and eGFR, LFTs and Ca2+, TFTs, random blood glucose, anti-endomysial antibody test (to exclude coeliac disease), CK, and ferritin.
Understanding Chronic Fatigue Syndrome
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a condition that is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue that affects mental and physical function more than 50% of the time, in the absence of other diseases that may explain the symptoms. It is more common in females, and past psychiatric history has not been shown to be a risk factor. The central feature of chronic fatigue syndrome is fatigue, but other recognized features include sleep problems, muscle and joint pains, headaches, painful lymph nodes without enlargement, sore throat, cognitive dysfunction, physical or mental exertion that makes symptoms worse, general malaise or ‘flu-like’ symptoms, dizziness, nausea, and palpitations.
To diagnose chronic fatigue syndrome, a large number of screening blood tests are carried out to exclude other pathology, such as FBC, U&E, LFT, glucose, TFT, ESR, CRP, calcium, CK, ferritin, coeliac screening, and urinalysis. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Cognitive behavior therapy is very effective, with a number needed to treat of 2. Graded exercise therapy is a formal supervised program, not advice to go to the gym. Pacing involves organizing activities to avoid tiring. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
In summary, chronic fatigue syndrome is a debilitating condition that affects both mental and physical function. It is more common in females and is diagnosed after at least four months of disabling fatigue. The management of chronic fatigue syndrome includes cognitive behavior therapy, graded exercise therapy, pacing, low-dose amitriptyline for poor sleep, and referral to a pain management clinic if pain is a predominant feature. Children and young people have a better prognosis than adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents with fatigue, joint pain, and abnormal liver function tests. After investigation, he is diagnosed with hereditary hemochromatosis. His wife undergoes genetic testing and is found to not carry the disease. What is the likelihood that their child will develop hemochromatosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0%
Explanation:Understanding Haemochromatosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Complications
Haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron absorption and metabolism, leading to the accumulation of iron in the body. It is caused by mutations in the HFE gene on both copies of chromosome 6. This disorder is more common in people of European descent, with a prevalence of 1 in 200.
In the early stages of haemochromatosis, symptoms are often non-specific, such as fatigue and joint pain. As the disease progresses, patients may develop bronze skin pigmentation, diabetes mellitus, liver disease, cardiac failure, hypogonadism, and arthritis.
Treatment for haemochromatosis involves regular phlebotomy to remove excess iron from the body. Reversible complications of haemochromatosis include cardiomyopathy, skin pigmentation, liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism, and arthropathy. However, irreversible complications include cirrhosis, which can lead to liver failure and other serious health problems.
In conclusion, haemochromatosis is a genetic disorder that affects iron metabolism and can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent irreversible damage and improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man with a history of migraine and asthma seeks medical attention for worsening migraine symptoms. He is experiencing one debilitating migraine attack every two weeks, lasting approximately 24 hours, and only partially relieved by zolmitriptan. This has resulted in frequent work absences. His current medication regimen includes zolmitriptan, salbutamol, and Clenil. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for reducing the frequency of his migraine attacks?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topiramate
Explanation:For the prophylaxis of migraines, NICE recommends either topiramate or propranolol. However, propranolol is not suitable for this patient due to his asthma. As for acute treatment, a combination of triptan and NSAID or triptan and paracetamol is recommended.
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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What is the cause of scarlet fever?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group A haemolytic streptococci
Explanation:Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamination occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.
To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a 20-year history of treatment with antipsychotic medications for bipolar disorder complains of the onset of writhing tongue and finger movements.
Which of the following is the most likely cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Understanding Movement Disorders Associated with Anti-Psychotic Medication
Anti-psychotic medication can cause a range of movement disorders, including tardive dyskinesia, akathisia, and Parkinsonism. Tardive dyskinesia is a common side-effect of long-term treatment with anti-psychotics, but can also occur with minimal doses. It is characterized by choreoathetoid movements, often starting in the fingers and tongue and becoming more generalized. Treatment is often unsuccessful, but may involve switching to a different medication or using agents such as tetrabenazine or benzodiazepines. Akathisia is an inner feeling of motor restlessness, with voluntary movements such as pacing or rocking. Parkinsonism is characterized by resting tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia. These movement disorders can be mistaken for other conditions such as Huntington’s or Wilson’s disease, but the association with anti-psychotic medication and the specific symptoms make tardive dyskinesia a more likely option. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients on anti-psychotic medication for these potential side-effects and adjust treatment as necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to your clinic complaining of left nostril blockage and frequent nosebleeds for the past 4 weeks. He has a medical history of well-controlled diabetes and hypertension and has a smoking history of 20 cigarettes per day since he was 18. He used to work in construction. During the examination, you observe a nasal polyp on the left side. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 week-wait referral
Explanation:Unilateral nasal polyps are a cause for concern and should be promptly referred to an ENT specialist as they may indicate nasal cancer. However, they can also be caused by other factors such as nose picking, foreign bodies, misapplication of nasal spray or cystic fibrosis. Treatment with antibiotics, oral steroids, nasal drops or cautery is unlikely to be effective and may delay the diagnosis of a serious condition.
Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.
The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of frequent watery diarrhoea, abdominal pain, flatulence and nausea. Upon stool analysis, an elevated osmotic gap is detected with a pH < 6. The hydrogen breath test is positive.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactose intolerance
Explanation:Based on the patient’s symptoms and test results, it is likely that they have lactose intolerance. This diagnosis is supported by an increase in stool osmolality and a positive hydrogen breath test, which can be confirmed through dietary testing. While bowel malignancy is a possibility, additional symptoms such as rectal bleeding and weight loss would typically be present. Cows’ milk protein allergy is unlikely due to the patient’s age and the positive hydrogen breath test. Inflammatory bowel disease may have similar symptoms, but additional indicators such as weight loss, fever, and anemia would be present. Irritable bowel syndrome is not the most likely diagnosis and should only be considered after other possibilities have been ruled out.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man with a psychiatric history visits his doctor with a complaint of tremors. During the examination, the doctor observes a fine bilateral tremor in his hands that does not improve with intention. The patient's neurological examination is otherwise normal. Which of the medications he takes regularly is the probable cause of this side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium is known to cause tremors, particularly a fine non-distractible rest tremor. This side effect is more common at higher doses and in cases of toxicity, but can still occur at treatment levels. Diazepam, a medication commonly used to manage acute anxiety and tremors, is unlikely to produce any motor effects from typical use. Mirtazapine, an antidepressant, can cause tremors but it is much less common than in other antidepressants. Olanzapine, an antipsychotic medication, can also cause tremors but they are usually coarse and affect the mouth and face. Based on the description of the tremor, it is more likely that lithium is the cause.
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in treatment-resistant depression. It has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and is primarily excreted by the kidneys. The mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed to interfere with inositol triphosphate and cAMP formation. Adverse effects may include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fine tremors, nephrotoxicity, thyroid enlargement, ECG changes, weight gain, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, leucocytosis, hyperparathyroidism, and hypercalcemia.
Monitoring of patients taking lithium is crucial to prevent adverse effects and ensure therapeutic levels. It is recommended to check lithium levels 12 hours after the last dose and weekly after starting or changing the dose until levels are stable. Once established, lithium levels should be checked every three months. Thyroid and renal function should be monitored every six months. Patients should be provided with an information booklet, alert card, and record book to ensure proper management of their medication. Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and guidelines have been issued to address this issue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a history of diabetes complains of left-sided ear pain and discharge. During examination, her temperature is recorded at 37.9ºC and there is red discharge in the ear canal. The tympanic membrane is partially visible and appears normal. Despite visiting the out of hours clinic twice and using different ear drops for two weeks, her symptoms persist. What course of treatment should be recommended?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Referral to secondary care
Explanation:It is probable that the patient is suffering from malignant otitis externa, a condition that affects individuals with weakened immune systems like those with diabetes. This condition is characterized by osteomyelitis of the temporal bone. Despite receiving several rounds of antibiotic drops, the patient’s symptoms have not improved. It is recommended that the patient be referred to an ENT specialist for a CT scan of the temporal bones and treated with an extended course of intravenous antibiotics.
Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management
Otitis externa is a common condition that often prompts patients to seek medical attention. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and is caused by various factors such as infection, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger of otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal appears red, swollen, or eczematous.
The recommended initial management of otitis externa involves the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. In cases where there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, while an ear wick may be inserted if the canal is extensively swollen. Second-line options include oral antibiotics, taking a swab inside the ear canal, and empirical use of an antifungal agent.
It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, referral to an ENT specialist may be necessary. Malignant otitis externa is a more serious condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics.
Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of otitis externa is crucial in providing appropriate care and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to her doctor seeking guidance on pregnancy and the postpartum period. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral medication. She has expressed a desire to breastfeed her baby once it is born.
What recommendations should be given to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should not breastfeed
Explanation:In the UK, it is recommended that all women who are HIV-positive should not breastfeed their babies. This advice remains the same even if the mother’s viral load is undetectable. The decision should not be left to the HIV consultant as the national guidelines are clear on this matter. Although breastfeeding may reduce the risk of transmission if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml, there is still a risk involved. Therefore, the advice remains not to breastfeed. Continuing with antiretroviral therapy is expected regardless of the decision not to breastfeed as it significantly reduces the risk of vertical transmission during pregnancy. Babies born to HIV-positive mothers are given antiretroviral therapy, either zidovudine alone if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml or triple-therapy if it is higher. However, this does not change the advice to avoid breastfeeding.
HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission
With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.
To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.
The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.
Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman complains of unsteadiness when walking. On examination, she has pyramidal weakness of her left lower limb, and reduced pinprick sensation of her right leg and right side of her trunk up to the level of the umbilicus. Joint position sense is impaired at her left great toe but is normal elsewhere. She has a definite left extensor plantar response, and the right plantar response is equivocal.
Which of the following is the most likely site of the lesion?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate site of the lesion from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left mid-thoracic cord
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest Brown-Séquard syndrome, which is caused by a hemisection of the spinal cord. This results in ipsilateral pyramidal weakness and loss of joint position/vibration sense, along with contralateral loss of pain/temperature sensation. The patient’s lesion is located in the left mid-thoracic cord. A lesion in the left lumbosacral plexus would only affect the left lower limb. A cervical cord lesion would affect the upper limbs. A central lesion would produce bilateral symmetrical defects, which is not the case here. A right mid-thoracic cord lesion would produce similar symptoms, but on the right side instead. Other spinal cord syndromes include complete cord transection, anterior cord syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the cord, syringomyelia, and cauda equina syndrome. Each of these has a distinct set of symptoms and affected areas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has been hospitalized with abdominal discomfort. The surgical team intends to conduct a contrast-enhanced CT scan, but they are apprehensive due to his stage 3 chronic kidney disease. Below is his most recent renal function:
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.6 mmol/l
Urea 8.1 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 µmol/l
What is the most crucial measure in decreasing the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride pre- and post-procedure
Explanation:Contrast Media Nephrotoxicity and Prevention
Contrast media nephrotoxicity is a condition where there is a 25% increase in creatinine within three days of intravascular administration of contrast media. This condition usually occurs 2-5 days after administration and is caused by various risk factors such as known renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, and the use of nephrotoxic drugs. Procedures such as CT with contrast and coronary angiography/percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) are examples that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy.
To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours pre- and post-procedure is recommended. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate is also supported by evidence. However, N-acetylcysteine, which was previously given, is now considered ineffective. Patients who are high-risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function has been shown to be normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.
In summary, contrast media nephrotoxicity is a condition that can occur after the administration of contrast media. It is caused by various risk factors and can be prevented by using intravenous sodium chloride or isotonic sodium bicarbonate. N-acetylcysteine is no longer recommended, and patients at high risk should have metformin withheld until their renal function is normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and vomiting while taking morphine sulphate 60mg bd. It has been decided to switch to subcutaneous administration. What is the recommended 24-hour dose of morphine for continuous subcutaneous infusion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 60mg
Explanation:In this scenario, the BNF suggests administering half of the oral dose of morphine when using the parenteral route (subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous). If the patient is no longer able to swallow, a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine is typically given.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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