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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden breathlessness and pain on the left side of her chest for the past 24 hours. She is generally healthy and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill.
What is the highest scoring factor in the Wells' scoring system for suspected pulmonary embolism (PE)?Your Answer: Heart rate >100 beats/min
Correct Answer: Clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT)
Explanation:Understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score: Clinical Signs and Symptoms of DVT
The Two-Level PE Wells Score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE). One of the key factors in this score is the presence of clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), which includes leg swelling and pain on palpation of the deep veins. This carries three points in the score, and is a crucial factor in determining the likelihood of a PE.
Other factors in the score include an alternative diagnosis being less likely than a PE, heart rate over 100 beats/min, immobilization or recent surgery, previous DVT/PE, haemoptysis, and malignancy. Each of these factors carries a certain number of points, and a score of over 4 points indicates a high likelihood of a PE, while a score of 4 points or less indicates a lower likelihood.
Overall, understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score and the clinical signs and symptoms of DVT is important in accurately assessing the likelihood of a patient having a PE and determining the appropriate course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman with a history of high cholesterol, atrial fibrillation, and a current smoking habit of 10 cigarettes per day is looking for guidance on managing her recent diagnosis of vascular dementia. What is the recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Smoking cessation
Explanation:NICE recommends focusing on tight control of vascular risk factors instead of using antidementia medication for the treatment of vascular dementia. Therefore, it would be most beneficial for the patient to stop smoking, and starting a statin may also be helpful due to their history of high cholesterol. However, there is no evidence supporting the effectiveness of aspirin in treating vascular dementia.
Understanding Vascular Dementia: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Vascular dementia is a type of cognitive impairment that is caused by different mechanisms resulting from cerebrovascular disease. It is the second most common form of dementia after Alzheimer’s disease. Vascular dementia is often recognized as the most severe form of the spectrum of deficits encompassed by the term vascular cognitive impairment. Early detection and an accurate diagnosis are crucial in preventing vascular dementia.
The prevalence of vascular dementia is estimated to be around 17% of dementia cases in the UK. The incidence of vascular dementia increases with age and is often associated with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack, atrial fibrillation, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, smoking, obesity, coronary heart disease, and a family history of stroke or cardiovascular disease. Rarely, vascular dementia can be inherited as in the case of cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy.
Patients with vascular dementia typically present with a sudden or stepwise deterioration of cognitive function, focal neurological abnormalities, difficulty with attention and concentration, seizures, memory disturbance, gait disturbance, speech disturbance, and emotional disturbance. Diagnosis is made based on a comprehensive history and physical examination, formal screening for cognitive impairment, medical review to exclude medication cause of cognitive decline, and MRI scan.
Treatment for vascular dementia is mainly symptomatic with the aim to address individual problems and provide support to the patient and carers. It is important to detect and address cardiovascular risk factors to slow down the progression of the disease. Non-pharmacological management is tailored to the individual and may include cognitive stimulation programs, multisensory stimulation, music and art therapy, and animal-assisted therapy. Pharmacological management is limited, and there is no specific pharmacological treatment approved for cognitive symptoms. Only consider AChE inhibitors or memantine for people with vascular dementia if they have suspected comorbid Alzheimer’s disease, Parkinson’s disease dementia, or dementia with Lewy bodies. There is no evidence that aspirin is effective in treating patients with a diagnosis of vascular dementia, and no randomized trials have evaluated statins for vascular dementia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 49-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of dizziness and shortness of breath on exertion for the past 3 days. He reports experiencing palpitations during this time but denies any chest pain or cough. The patient has a history of hypertension and angina, for which he takes amlodipine and GTN spray, respectively. Upon examination, he appears alert and oriented, but his vital signs reveal a heart rate of 170 BPM, respiratory rate of 25 breaths/min, and blood pressure of 72/50 mmHg. An ECG shows a narrow complex irregular tachycardia without P waves. What is the most crucial next step in management?
Your Answer: Electrical cardioversion
Explanation:In the case of an acute presentation of atrial fibrillation with signs of haemodynamic instability such as hypotension or heart failure, the correct treatment is electrical cardioversion. This is because the patient is at risk of going into cardiac arrest and needs to be returned to normal sinus rhythm immediately to prevent end organ damage. Giving a bolus of IV saline is not recommended as it will not push more blood into the ventricles and could even be harmful. Starting high dose aspirin or bisoprolol is not appropriate in this situation. Digoxin is only considered as a second line treatment for stable patients, so pharmacologic therapies are not considered until after cardioversion has been attempted and blood pressure returns to normal.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.
The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 4
Correct
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A three-year-old child with uncontrolled asthma visits the GP clinic with his mother as his asthma exacerbations are becoming more frequent. The child is currently using a salbutamol inhaler as needed and a beclometasone inhaler 200mcg/day with a spacer, and his inhaler technique is good. What is the most appropriate course of action for his management?
Your Answer: Add in a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:If a child under the age of 5 has asthma that is not being controlled by a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) and a low dose of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS), then a leukotriene receptor antagonist should be added to their asthma management plan.
Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 57-year-old man with a history of bipolar disorder, which is well controlled with lithium, presents with a 2-day history of confusion, diarrhoea and tremors. He takes regular analgesia for chronic back pain and has been feeling unwell recently.
A blood test shows:
Value Reference
Lithium (serum) 4.2 mmol/L (0.6 - 1)
What is the probable reason for his symptoms?Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:NSAIDs can cause lithium toxicity by reducing renal excretion of lithium and increasing plasma levels. Therefore, routine monitoring of serum lithium levels is necessary, especially after initiation and dose changes. ACE-I and diuretics should not be used with lithium due to the risk of renal dysfunction. Abruptly stopping lithium does not cause toxicity, but reducing caffeine intake can lead to toxicity by reducing lithium clearance. Cranberry juice does not interact with lithium, but it increases the risk of rhabdomyolysis when taken with statins. Dehydration, not excessive water intake, increases the risk of lithium toxicity by reducing lithium excretion.
Understanding Lithium Toxicity
Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.
Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.
In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 6
Correct
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What is a factor that leads to cyanotic congenital heart disease?
Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries
Explanation:Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 67-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) complaining of a headache and painless loss of vision in her left eye lasting for 5 minutes. Two days later, she developed sudden-onset, right-sided weakness affecting both upper and lower limbs and lasting for 30 minutes. Her past medical history includes mild hyperlipidemia. She is a non-smoker. There are no neurological abnormalities. Her blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg and heart rate 80 bpm. There are no audible carotid bruits.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) secondary to carotid artery disease
Explanation:Understanding Transient Ischaemic Attack (TIA) and its Possible Causes
Transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a medical condition that occurs when blood flow to the brain is temporarily disrupted, leading to neurological symptoms that usually last for less than an hour. One of the most common causes of TIA is carotid artery disease, which accounts for up to 90% of cases. Symptoms of TIA due to carotid artery disease include contralateral motor and sensory disturbance, ipsilateral visual disturbance, and amaurosis fugax (monocular blindness). A carotid artery bruit in the neck may also be present.
Migraine equivalents are another possible cause of TIA, but they are characterized by absent headache and slow spread of symptoms from one body part to the next. Unlike migraines, TIA episodes are sudden-onset and resolved within an hour.
TIA can also be caused by cardioembolism, which accounts for 5-10% of cases. However, this is unlikely in the absence of atrial fibrillation or significant cardiac disease.
Small-vessel disease is another possible cause of TIA, but it is unlikely to account for both hemiparesis and visual loss. Giant cell arteritis (GCA) can also be associated with transient visual loss, but hemiparesis is not a feature. Prodromal symptoms such as malaise, weight loss, and characteristic temporal headache are commonly present in GCA.
In summary, TIA is a serious medical condition that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Understanding the possible causes of TIA can help healthcare providers make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 56-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department. His wife reports that he has been experiencing worsening confusion for approximately one week. Upon examination, there are evident indications of chronic liver disease, along with nystagmus and cerebellar ataxia. The patient appears highly confused. His liver function tests (LFTs) are normal except for elevated gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), a full blood count reveals macrocytosis, and blood glucose levels are normal. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Wernicke encephalopathy (WE)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Confusion in a Patient with Alcohol Misuse
Wernicke Encephalopathy (WE), caused by thiamine deficiency and commonly associated with chronic alcoholism, is a serious neurological disorder that presents with a classic triad of ocular findings, cerebellar dysfunction, and confusion. Rapid correction of brain thiamine deficiency is crucial, and treatment is initially administered parenterally. Neurological dysfunction, especially memory and learning impairment, can persist even after treatment, leading to Korsakoff syndrome.
Subdural hematoma, more common in individuals who misuse alcohol, is an important differential diagnosis in cases of acute confusion. However, a history of head injury, even minor, and a headache with or without vomiting are typically present. Acute hematomas present soon after the injury, while chronic hematomas may not present until 2-3 weeks after the trauma.
Acute alcohol poisoning is unlikely in a patient with worsening confusion over the past week. Sudden onset of confusion following an alcohol binge that improves with abstinence is expected.
Hepatic encephalopathy, a spectrum that develops in patients with advanced liver disease, may present with a change in personality, short-term memory loss, or reduced level of consciousness. However, cerebellar signs such as nystagmus and ataxia are not associated with this condition.
Delirium tremens, a rapid onset of confusion as a result of alcohol withdrawal, typically appears three days after abstinence from alcohol and may include visual hallucinations, acute confusion, and tremor. If untreated, seizures may occur. However, the presence of nystagmus and ataxia in this case makes WE the more likely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 9
Correct
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An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.
Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.
Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.
Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 10-year-old child with a history of infective diarrhoea presents with fever, hypertension, haematuria and bloody stools two weeks later. What could be a potential diagnosis?
Your Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that causes progressive kidney failure and is associated with microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. There are two main types of HUS, one of which is associated with Shiga-like toxin (Stx) and is commonly seen in children who have had diarrhoea. The classic form of Stx-HUS is often caused by E. coli O157:H7 and is characterized by a history of gastroenteritis, fever, bloody diarrhoea, oedema, and hypertension. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an acute disorder that affects small blood vessels in various parts of the body, including the skin, gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, and joints. It is characterized by a rash with bullae and ulcers, which typically appears in crops. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis is a condition that occurs after a streptococcal infection and is characterized by haematuria, proteinuria, red blood cell casts in the urine, oedema, and hypertension. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is a rare cause of chronic nephritis that occurs primarily in children and young adults and may be idiopathic or secondary in aetiology. Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that causes sudden kidney dysfunction, fever, and occasionally a rash, and is often associated with drug use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 50-year-old man describes intermittent unilateral pain above and behind his left eye, which has woken him from sleep every night for the previous 7 days. The pain is described as severe and stabbing, lasting about 30 minutes and making him restless and agitated. It is associated with tearing from his left eye and nasal stuffiness. When he looked in the mirror during attacks, he had noted his left eyelid drooping. He remembers he had experienced similar symptoms for about a month last year, but that they had resolved spontaneously and he had not sought medical attention. Physical examination is normal. He is a lifelong smoker.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cluster headache
Explanation:Differentiating Headache Disorders: Cluster Headache, Trigeminal Neuralgia, Migraine, Temporal Arteritis, and Paroxysmal Hemicrania
Headache disorders can be challenging to diagnose due to overlapping symptoms. However, understanding the distinct characteristics of each disorder can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
Cluster Headache: This disorder is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, lasting from a few minutes up to 3 hours. It may be accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion and has a circadian pattern of occurring every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period.
Trigeminal Neuralgia: This disorder is characterized by recurrent unilateral brief electric shock-like pains, limited to the distribution of one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. Pain is triggered by innocuous stimuli such as hair brushing and lasts from a fraction of a second to 2 minutes.
Migraine: This disorder typically lasts 4-72 hours and is associated with unilateral headache, nausea, vomiting, or photophobia/phonophobia. It may be preceded by an aura.
Temporal Arteritis: This disorder occurs in patients over 50 years old and presents with abrupt-onset headache, scalp pain/tenderness, jaw claudication, visual disturbances, and constitutional symptoms.
Paroxysmal Hemicrania: This disorder is related to cluster headache and presents with severe unilateral orbital pain, lacrimation, and nasal congestion. Episodes last only a few minutes and occur multiple times per day.
It is important to note that each disorder has specific diagnostic criteria, and a thorough evaluation by a healthcare professional is necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman with sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology unit after experiencing increasing fatigue and general malaise for the past week following a recent febrile illness. Upon examination, she appears pale and has multiple petechiae and bruises over her trunk and upper and lower limbs. Blood tests reveal a Hb of 82 g/L (135-180), platelets of 29 * 109/L (150 - 400), and WBC of 1.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0). What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer: Parvovirus B19 infection
Explanation:Pancytopenia may occur in patients with underlying haematological conditions who are infected with Parvovirus B19, which can also cause fever and rash.
Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations
Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.
Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.
It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 13
Correct
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For a young adult who experiences occasional mild bronchoconstriction symptoms without any identified trigger or night-time symptoms and is not currently taking any medication, which drug therapy combination is appropriate? Please choose ONE option from the list provided.
Your Answer: Salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler
Explanation:Understanding Asthma Treatment: BTS/SIGN Guidelines
Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that affects millions of people worldwide. The British Thoracic Society/Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network (BTS/SIGN) has developed a stepwise approach to managing asthma symptoms. The goal is to achieve complete control of symptoms while minimizing side effects from medication.
Step 1 involves using a short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA) on an as-needed basis and a low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) regularly. If symptoms persist, step 2 involves adding a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA) to the ICS. Step 3 involves increasing the ICS dose or adding a leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) if the LABA is ineffective. Step 4 involves increasing the ICS dose or adding a fourth medication, such as a slow-release theophylline or a long-acting muscarinic receptor antagonist (LAMA). Step 5 involves using a daily steroid tablet in the lowest effective dose while maintaining high-dose ICS and considering other treatments to minimize the use of steroid tablets.
It is important to note that the management of asthma in children under 5 years of age is different. Patients at step 4 or 5 should be referred for specialist care. Complete control of asthma symptoms is defined as no daytime or nighttime symptoms, no need for rescue medication, no asthma attacks, no limitations on activity, and normal lung function with minimal side effects from medication.
In summary, the BTS/SIGN guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing asthma symptoms. By following these guidelines, patients can achieve complete control of their symptoms while minimizing the risk of side effects from medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 14
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of sudden headaches accompanied by sweating and palpitations. During the examination, the patient appears anxious and has a pale complexion. Her blood pressure is measured at 230/190 mmHg, and a 24-hour urine collection shows elevated levels of catecholamines. What is the most probable reason for this woman's hypertension?
Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma
Explanation:Differentiating Adrenal Gland Disorders: Phaeochromocytoma, Conn Syndrome, Cushing Syndrome, PKD, and RAS
Adrenal gland disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. However, understanding the unique features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
Phaeochromocytoma is a tumour of the adrenal gland that causes paroxysmal secretion of catecholamines, resulting in hypertension, headache, sweating, and anxiety. It is associated with the 10% rule, where 10% of cases are extramedullary, malignant, familial, and bilateral.
Conn syndrome, or primary aldosteronism, is characterised by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and metabolic alkalosis. The most common causes are aldosterone-producing adenomas and bilateral adrenal hyperplasia.
Cushing syndrome is caused by prolonged hypercortisolism and presents with centripetal obesity, secondary hypertension, glucose intolerance, proximal myopathy, and hirsutism. Sweating, palpitations, and elevated catecholamines are not typical of hypercortisolism.
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is associated with hypertension due to progressive kidney enlargement. It is a significant independent risk factor for progression to end-stage renal failure, but it does not cause elevated catecholamine levels.
Renal artery stenosis (RAS) is a major cause of renovascular hypertension, but it is not associated with elevated catecholamines or the symptoms described. Patients with RAS may also have a history of atherosclerosis, dyslipidaemia, smoking, and hypertension resistant to multiple antihypertensive medications.
In summary, understanding the unique features of adrenal gland disorders can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has recently returned from a backpacking trip in Southeast Asia. While there, he consumed food from various street vendors. He complained of abdominal discomfort, bloating and loose stools. Analysis of three stool samples showed cysts in two of them. The patient was treated with metronidazole and showed improvement.
What is the probable medical condition in this scenario?Your Answer: Tapeworm infestation
Correct Answer: Giardiasis
Explanation:Giardiasis: A Protozoal Parasite Causing Diarrhoeal Illness
Giardiasis is a diarrhoeal disease caused by the flagellate protozoan Giardia intestinalis (previously known as G. lamblia). It is prevalent in areas with poor sanitation and can cause asymptomatic colonisation or acute or chronic diarrhoeal illness. Travellers to highly endemic areas are at high risk of infection. Ingestion of as few as ten Giardia cysts can cause infection. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom of acute Giardia infection, occurring in 90% of symptomatic subjects. The traditional basis of diagnosis is identification of G. intestinalis trophozoites or cysts in the stool of infected patients via stool ova and parasite examination. Standard treatment consists of antibiotic therapy, and metronidazole is the most commonly prescribed antibiotic for this condition. Giardia infection may occur more commonly in families with X-linked agammaglobulinaemia and in sexually active men who have sex with men (MSM).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Correct
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A 60-year-old man complains of worsening pain and swelling in both knees with stiffness and decreased mobility over the past eight months. He also has painful wrist joints with nodules at the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints which have developed slowly over the past two years.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Osteoarthritis (OA)
Explanation:Differentiating between types of arthritis: A case study
In this case study, a patient presents with bony swelling at the DIP and PIP joints of the hands. It is important to differentiate between various types of arthritis to make an accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
Osteoarthritis (OA) is characterized by loss of articular cartilage and overgrowth of underlying bone, commonly affecting the hips, knees, and small hand joints. Pain and swelling are common presenting features, along with crepitus on examination. Heberden’s and Bouchard’s nodes may also be present.
Osteoporosis, on the other hand, is a condition of reduced bone density and increased fragility, often diagnosed following a low-impact fracture or screening of high-risk patients. Pain and bony swelling are not typical features of osteoporosis.
Psoriatic arthritis is an inflammatory seronegative spondyloarthropathy associated with psoriasis, commonly affecting the hands but not causing the changes described in this case. Dactylitis is a usual examination finding with psoriatic arthritis.
Reactive arthritis is characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following an infection. It typically presents as an acute, asymmetrical lower-limb arthritis, occurring a few days to weeks after the initial infection.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) presents most often in women between the ages of 35 and 55 with symmetrical polyarticular arthritis, most often in the small joints of the hands or feet. Swelling is present at the metacarpophalangeal and PIP joints of the hands, along with other signs such as swan neck and Boutonnière deformities of the fingers, ulnar deviation of fingers, and Z deformity of the thumb.
In conclusion, careful examination and consideration of various types of arthritis are necessary for an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 17
Correct
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A 50-year-old man presents to you with recent blood test results showing a total cholesterol of 6.2 mmol/L. You schedule an appointment to discuss this further and calculate his Qrisk score to be 23%. He has a 20-year history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day and his father died of a heart attack at age 50. He also has a past medical history of asthma. Which medication would you recommend he start taking?
Your Answer: Atorvastatin 20mg
Explanation:To prevent cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to start taking Atorvastatin 20mg, which is a high-intensity statin. Atorvastatin 80 mg is used for secondary prevention. Simvastatin 10mg and 20mg are considered low-intensity statins. It is important to combine statin treatment with lifestyle changes such as increasing physical activity, reducing alcohol consumption, and adopting a heart-healthy diet.
The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the primary mode of operation of simvastatin in elderly patients?
Your Answer: Inhibits lipoprotein lipase
Correct Answer: Decreases intrinsic cholesterol synthesis
Explanation:The rate-limiting enzyme in hepatic cholesterol synthesis, HMG-CoA reductase, is inhibited by statins.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of an enzyme called HMG-CoA reductase, which is responsible for producing cholesterol in the liver. However, they can cause some adverse effects such as myopathy, which includes muscle pain, weakness, and damage, and liver impairment. Myopathy is more common in lipophilic statins than in hydrophilic ones. Statins may also increase the risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients who have had a stroke before. Therefore, they should be avoided in these patients. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy and should be stopped if the patient is taking macrolides.
Statins are recommended for people with established cardiovascular disease, those with a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or more, and patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus who were diagnosed more than 10 years ago, are over 40 years old, or have established nephropathy should also take statins. It is recommended to take statins at night as this is when cholesterol synthesis takes place. Atorvastatin 20mg is recommended for primary prevention, and the dose should be increased if non-HDL has not reduced for 40% or more. Atorvastatin 80 mg is recommended for secondary prevention. The graphic shows the different types of statins available.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with mild learning disability lives with her sister who has recently undergone surgery. Her sister reports that, since her surgery, the woman has stopped attending her weekly art class, has lost weight and has become withdrawn, refusing to engage in conversation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Anxiety
Correct Answer: Depression
Explanation:Differentiating between Mental Health Disorders in Patients with Learning Disabilities
When diagnosing mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities, it can be challenging to differentiate between different conditions. In cases of major depression, patients may present with loss of interests, social withdrawal, and biological symptoms such as loss of appetite and weight. However, individuals with learning disabilities may be less likely to express depressive ideas, making diagnosis more reliant on changes in behavior and physical symptoms. Treatment for depression in patients with learning disabilities is similar to that of the general population, but special care must be taken in selecting antidepressants due to the higher incidence of physical health problems.
In cases of dementia, cognitive decline is typically present, whereas the patient in this scenario is experiencing depression following a traumatic event. Anxiety can also accompany depression, but the presence of biological symptoms and loss of interests suggest major depression. Social withdrawal in this scenario is more likely caused by depression rather than psychosis, and symptoms of mania would be the opposite of those listed. Overall, careful observation and consideration of individual patient history and symptoms are necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment of mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 20
Correct
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What is the most effective antibiotic for treating Chlamydia pneumonia?
Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Antibiotics for Chlamydia Pneumoniae Infections
Chlamydia pneumoniae infections are commonly treated with macrolide antibiotics such as clarithromycin or erythromycin. These antibiotics are effective against atypical pneumonias and should be taken for a long period of time (usually 10-14 days) with strict compliance to avoid suboptimal doses. However, the most common side effects of these antibiotics are nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Clindamycin is not recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. Piperacillin and ampicillin are also not indicated due to in vitro resistance shown by the bacteria. Imipenem is also not recommended for the treatment of Chlamydia pneumoniae infections. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of any infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 21
Correct
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A 79-year-old male patient has a home visit from his general practitioner for follow-up after sustaining fractured neck of femur slipping on ice. He reports to feel well in himself and is progressing with the rehabilitation programme advised to him at discharge and is not reliant on analgesia any longer. He had no previous medical or surgical history prior to the fall. The patient would like some advice regarding preventing future fractures.
Which, of the options below, is appropriate?Your Answer: Prescription of alendronate
Explanation:In patients aged 75 years or older who have experienced a fragility fracture, alendronate should be initiated without delay, even in the absence of a DEXA scan. This patient meets the NICE criteria for bisphosphonate treatment, and while a calcium-rich diet and supplementation may be helpful, they are not sufficient for managing osteoporosis. Zoledronic acid may be considered if the patient cannot tolerate bisphosphonates, but it should not be the first-line treatment.
Managing Osteoporosis in Patients with Fragility Fracture
The management of patients with fragility fractures depends on their age. For patients aged 75 years and above, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, which is an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.
On the other hand, for patients below 75 years old, a DEXA scan should be arranged to determine their ongoing fracture risk. The results of the scan can be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine the appropriate management plan. For instance, if a 79-year-old woman sustains a Colles’ fracture, she is presumed to have osteoporosis and should be started on oral alendronate 70mg once weekly without a DEXA scan.
In summary, managing osteoporosis in patients with fragility fractures requires age consideration and appropriate assessment to determine the best management plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 22
Correct
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What is the most probable adverse effect experienced by patients who are taking gliclazide?
Your Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Weight gain is the most frequent side-effect observed in patients who take sulfonylureas, although they may experience all of the aforementioned side-effects.
Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.
One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old administrative assistant complains of pain on the thumb side of her left wrist, persisting for the past week. She also notices that her left wrist seems more swollen than her right. During the examination, she experiences discomfort over her radial styloid when her thumb is forcefully flexed.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Mallet thumb
Correct Answer: Tenosynovitis
Explanation:The patient is positive for Finkelstein test, indicating De Quervain’s tenosynovitis. This condition causes pain over the radial styloid when the thumb is forcefully abducted or flexed. Unlike De Quervain’s tenosynovitis, rheumatoid arthritis affects both sides of the body. Mallet thumb is an injury that causes the thumb to bend towards the palm. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of the median nerve and results in numbness and tingling in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative condition that primarily affects the elderly due to mechanical wear and tear.
De Quervain’s Tenosynovitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis is a condition that commonly affects women between the ages of 30 and 50. It occurs when the sheath containing the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons becomes inflamed. The condition is characterized by pain on the radial side of the wrist, tenderness over the radial styloid process, and pain when the thumb is abducted against resistance. A positive Finkelstein’s test, in which the thumb is pulled in ulnar deviation and longitudinal traction, can also indicate the presence of tenosynovitis.
Treatment for De Quervain’s tenosynovitis typically involves analgesia, steroid injections, and immobilization with a thumb splint (spica). In some cases, surgical treatment may be necessary. With proper diagnosis and treatment, most patients are able to recover from this condition and resume their normal activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with symptoms of reflux oesophagitis. You decide to initiate treatment with lansoprazole, as she has already made lifestyle modifications but has not experienced complete relief from her reflux symptoms.
What is the mechanism of action of lansoprazole?Your Answer: It inhibits the H+/K+ ATP ‘proton pump’
Explanation:Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are a type of medication that reduces the production of gastric acid by irreversibly blocking the hydrogen/potassium adenosine triphosphatase enzyme system, also known as the gastric proton pump. This is achieved by inhibiting the H+/K+ ATPase proton pump, not the H+/Na+ or H+/Ca2+ ATP proton pumps. PPIs, such as lansoprazole and omeprazole, are more effective than H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine and are commonly used to treat peptic ulcer disease, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), and as part of the triple therapy regimen for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori. Antihistamines, on the other hand, act on histamine receptors such as the H1 and H2 receptors, which are found in smooth muscle, vascular endothelial cells, and the central nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with diagnosed irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is currently taking loperamide, movicol and hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan) for management. However, she is still experiencing bloating and abdominal pain.
What would be the next treatment option from the list below?Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant (eg amitriptyline)
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. It is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Diagnosis is based on the presence of symptoms for at least 6 months, and physical examination and investigations are used to exclude other differential diagnoses.
Management of IBS involves psychological support and dietary measures, such as fibre supplementation, low FODMAP diets, increased water intake, and avoiding trigger foods. Pharmacological treatment is adjunctive and should be directed at symptoms. Antispasmodics, antidiarrhoeals, and antidepressants may have a positive effect on symptoms. However, the choice of medication should be based on the nature and severity of symptoms, with the option of single or combination medication determined by the predominant symptom(s).
It is important to note that certain medications, such as aspirin and NSAIDs, can worsen IBS symptoms, and laxatives like lactulose should be discouraged. Patients should be made aware of these potential risks and advised accordingly. Overall, a multidisciplinary approach involving healthcare professionals and patients is essential for the effective management of IBS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 26
Correct
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A middle-aged business executive presents with a red hot, swollen and very painful right big toe. Joint aspiration reveals no organisms, but there are numerous neutrophils containing long needle-shaped crystals.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Gouty arthritis
Explanation:Gout is a crystal arthropathy caused by hyperuricaemia, most commonly affecting middle-aged men. Diagnosis is confirmed by aspiration and examination of joint fluid. Treatment is with high-dose NSAIDs or coxibs initially, followed by allopurinol in the long term. RA presents as an acute monoarticular arthritis in only 10% of cases, and is more common in women between the ages of 35 and 55. Septic arthritis and gonococcal arthritis are bacterial infections that present with a hot, red, swollen joint and constitutional symptoms. Reactive arthritis is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually presenting as an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 27
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-month history of dull abdominal pain. It is central and occasionally radiates to her back. However, this is not always present and it seems to get worse half an hour after a meal. She denies any vomiting or diarrhoea but confirms that painful episodes are accompanied by nausea.
The patient does not have any past medical history but admits that she has been drinking a glass of wine every night for the past 15 years. An abdominal X-ray is done.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following findings are most likely to be seen on the abdominal X-ray?
Select the SINGLE most likely finding from the list below.
Your Answer: Pancreatic calcifications
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of dull, central abdominal pain that worsens after meals and radiates to the back, along with a history of regular alcohol consumption, suggest a diagnosis of chronic pancreatitis. Imaging studies, such as an abdominal X-ray or CT scan, may reveal pancreatic calcifications, which are a common finding in chronic pancreatitis. If imaging is inconclusive, a faecal elastase test may be used to assess pancreatic exocrine function. The presence of the football sign, air under the diaphragm, dilated loops of small bowel, or the Rigler sign on an abdominal X-ray would suggest other conditions such as gastrointestinal perforation or bowel obstruction, which do not fit the patient’s presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 28
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with lower back pain. He has a medical history of prostate cancer, asthma, diabetes, and hypertension. The pain is radiating down his right leg and he is experiencing reduced power in that leg. Additionally, he has a decreased anal tone. Although the lumbar spine x-ray shows no apparent fracture, what would be the most appropriate next investigation to perform?
Your Answer: MRI lumbosacral spine
Explanation:Lower back pain accompanied by lower limb pain, limb weakness, numbness or tingling, and decreased perianal tone are red flags that suggest spinal cord compression. In this case, the patient has a history of prostate cancer, which further raises suspicion. Urgent MRI is necessary to rule out spinal cord compression, and the results should be discussed with the on-call neurosurgical team. Additional x-rays or ultrasound would not be helpful, as MRI is the preferred diagnostic tool.
Neoplastic Spinal Cord Compression: An Oncological Emergency
Neoplastic spinal cord compression is a medical emergency that affects around 5% of cancer patients. The majority of cases are due to vertebral body metastases, resulting in extradural compression. This condition is more common in patients with lung, breast, and prostate cancer.
The earliest and most common symptom of neoplastic spinal cord compression is back pain, which may worsen when lying down or coughing. Other symptoms include lower limb weakness and sensory changes such as numbness and sensory loss. The neurological signs depend on the level of the lesion, with lesions above L1 resulting in upper motor neuron signs in the legs and a sensory level. Lesions below L1 usually cause lower motor neuron signs in the legs and perianal numbness. Tendon reflexes tend to be increased below the level of the lesion and absent at the level of the lesion.
An urgent MRI is recommended within 24 hours of presentation, according to the 2019 NICE guidelines. High-dose oral dexamethasone is used for management, and urgent oncological assessment is necessary for consideration of radiotherapy or surgery.
In summary, neoplastic spinal cord compression is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to prevent further neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman presents with a two day history of increasing dysuria. During examination, inflamed blisters are observed on the outer labia.
What is the most suitable treatment option?Your Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Understanding Genital Herpes and Treatment Options
Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the herpes simplex viruses (HSV-1 or HSV-2). It presents as clusters of papules and vesicles on the outer genitals in both men and women, usually appearing 4-7 days after sexual exposure to HSV for the first time. Unfortunately, there is no cure for genital herpes, but treatment with aciclovir can reduce the duration of symptoms. Other treatment options include antibiotics like azithromycin and clindamycin for bacterial infections, antifungal agents like fluconazole for fungal infections, and metronidazole for anaerobic bacteria and protozoa. It is important to seek medical attention and start treatment as soon as possible to manage symptoms and prevent transmission to others.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Correct
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An 80-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a history of vomiting blood earlier in the day. What is the most significant factor indicating an upper gastrointestinal bleed?
Your Answer: Urea = 15.4 mmol/l on a background of normal renal function
Explanation:A temporary and disproportionate increase in blood urea can be caused by an upper gastrointestinal bleed, which can function as a source of protein.
Acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding is a common and significant medical issue that can be caused by various conditions, with oesophageal varices and peptic ulcer disease being the most common. The clinical features of this condition include haematemesis, melena, and a raised urea level due to the protein meal of the blood. The differential diagnosis for acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding includes oesophageal, gastric, and duodenal causes.
The management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding involves risk assessment using the Glasgow-Blatchford score, which helps clinicians decide whether patients can be managed as outpatients or not. Resuscitation is also necessary, including ABC, wide-bore intravenous access, and platelet transfusion if actively bleeding platelet count is less than 50 x 10*9/litre. Endoscopy should be offered immediately after resuscitation in patients with a severe bleed, and all patients should have endoscopy within 24 hours.
For non-variceal bleeding, proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) should not be given before endoscopy to patients with suspected non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding. However, PPIs should be given to patients with non-variceal upper gastrointestinal bleeding and stigmata of recent haemorrhage shown at endoscopy. If further bleeding occurs, options include repeat endoscopy, interventional radiology, and surgery. For variceal bleeding, terlipressin and prophylactic antibiotics should be given to patients at presentation, and band ligation should be used for oesophageal varices and injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate for patients with gastric varices. Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (TIPS) should be offered if bleeding from varices is not controlled with the above measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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