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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman is referred by her General Practitioner due to irregular and...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred by her General Practitioner due to irregular and unpredictable menstrual cycle and headaches. Magnetic resonance imaging of the brain shows a midline lesion. Further investigations reveal that her prolactin level is 2314 ng/ml (normal range: 2–29 ng/ml). To reduce the prolactin level, which mediator is manipulated for medical treatment?

      Your Answer: Dopamine

      Explanation:

      Targeting Hormones in Prolactinoma Treatment

      Prolactinoma is a pituitary lesion that results in excessive prolactin secretion. To reduce prolactin levels, dopamine agonists like bromocriptine are used to target dopamine receptors in the anterior pituitary. While increased prolactin can indirectly decrease gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) secretion, GnRH receptors are not a therapeutic target in prolactin disorders. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) increases adrenocorticotropic hormone secretion and is not a target in prolactin disorders. Somatostatin decreases thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and growth hormone secretion but does not affect prolactin levels. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) increases prolactin and TSH release, but its use is limited due to side-effects on thyroid regulation and the superiority of dopamine agonists.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 20-year-old runner has approached you for advice after being diagnosed with a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old runner has approached you for advice after being diagnosed with a stress fracture in her left tibia. She is seeking guidance on how to reduce her risk of future stress fractures. What are the risk factors that athletic females are most susceptible to when it comes to developing stress fractures?

      Your Answer: Inadequate calorie intake, menstrual irregularities and increased or new exercise intensity

      Explanation:

      Women with low calorie intake or menstrual irregularities who increase their exercise are at risk of stress fractures due to the female athlete triad, which includes excessive exercise, reduced bone mineral density, and eating disorders or inadequate calorie intake. It is important to discuss eating habits and menstrual cycles when treating women with a history of stress fractures.

      Stress fractures are small hairline fractures that can occur due to repetitive activity and loading of normal bone. Although they can be painful, they are typically not displaced and do not cause surrounding soft tissue injury. In some cases, stress fractures may present late, and callus formation may be visible on radiographs. Treatment for stress fractures may vary depending on the severity of the injury. In cases where the injury is associated with severe pain and presents at an earlier stage, immobilization may be necessary. However, injuries that present later may not require formal immobilization and can be treated with tailored immobilization specific to the site of injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a risk factor for the development of surfactant deficient lung disease...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor for the development of surfactant deficient lung disease in a neonate?

      Your Answer: Maternal asthma

      Correct Answer: Maternal diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      39.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 75-year-old man complains of persistent ringing in his left ear for the...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man complains of persistent ringing in his left ear for the past 4 months. He has also noticed a decline in hearing from his left ear over the past 2 weeks. During the examination, Rinne's test reveals that air conduction is louder than bone conduction in the left ear, and Weber's test shows lateralisation to the right ear. Which of the following conditions is likely to present with unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      The traditional presentation of vestibular schwannoma involves a blend of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing impairment, tinnitus, and a missing corneal reflex.

      An acoustic neuroma is typically linked to one-sided tinnitus and hearing loss.

      Tinnitus and deafness are not commonly associated with multiple sclerosis (MS), which is a condition characterized by demyelination.

      Chronic otitis media is a persistent inflammation of the middle ear and mastoid cavity, which is marked by recurring otorrhoea and conductive hearing loss.

      Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)

      Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.

      Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.

      The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      47.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man visits his GP after being urged by his son. He...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man visits his GP after being urged by his son. He reports experiencing left-sided facial drooping four days ago, which he observed in the mirror. He did not seek medical attention at the time and was relieved to see that it disappeared on its own after approximately 40 minutes. He has not had any additional symptoms since then. Besides an immediate referral to specialist services, what should be done about drug treatment?

      Your Answer: Aspirin 300mg

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected of having a TIA and visits their GP within 7 days, they should receive immediate treatment with 300 mg aspirin and be referred to a specialist for review within 24 hours. NICE guidelines also suggest considering gastric protection with a PPI if necessary.

      A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).

      NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      99.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents with a daytime-average ABPM reading of 162/100 mmHg and a calculated QRISK-3 score of 13.8%. He has no significant past medical history and is of Pakistani background. What initial pharmacological management should be offered, in addition to lifestyle advice?

      Your Answer: An angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor only

      Correct Answer: A statin and a calcium-channel blocker

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      85.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old man presents to you after experiencing his first TIA. He states...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man presents to you after experiencing his first TIA. He states that he is typically in good health and was surprised to learn that he had suffered a 'mini stroke.' He is eager to resume his normal daily routine and is curious about when he can safely operate his vehicle once more.

      What guidance would you offer him?

      Your Answer: Can start driving if symptom free after 1 month - no need to inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      Group 1 drivers do not need to inform the DVLA and can resume driving after being symptom-free for one month following a single TIA.

      The DVLA has guidelines for drivers with neurological disorders. Those with epilepsy/seizures must not drive and must inform the DVLA. The length of time off driving varies depending on the type and frequency of seizures. Those with syncope may need time off driving depending on the cause and number of episodes. Those with other conditions such as stroke, craniotomy, pituitary tumor, narcolepsy/cataplexy, and chronic neurological disorders should inform the DVLA and may need time off driving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 56-year-old man is being seen in the respiratory clinic after being discharged...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man is being seen in the respiratory clinic after being discharged from the hospital two weeks ago following a COPD exacerbation. Despite having optimised medications, he has had three hospitalisations this year and five last year. He does not smoke or drink alcohol. The consultant has reviewed his recent investigations and imaging and is considering recommending additional medication to reduce exacerbations. What medication is most likely to be suggested for this patient?

      Your Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Patients with COPD who have frequent exacerbations with sputum production, prolonged exacerbations with sputum production, or hospitalizations from exacerbations may be recommended prophylaxis with oral azithromycin if they are non-smokers and have optimized therapy. Before starting azithromycin, the patient should undergo CT thorax, ECG, liver function testing, and sputum cultures. Amoxicillin is not recommended for prophylaxis in COPD patients. Although doxycycline is one of the mainstay antibiotics used to treat acute exacerbations of COPD, it is not used in prophylactic management according to NICE guidelines. Ramipril is used in the management of pulmonary hypertension, which can occur secondary to COPD, but it is not indicated for a patient who experiences frequent exacerbations like the one in this vignette.

      NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      131.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You see a 56-year-old man with a 5-year history of back pain following...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 56-year-old man with a 5-year history of back pain following a work-related injury. He has presented to the clinic due to poor control of his pain. He is experiencing shooting pains down his legs with an associated burning sensation.

      Despite intensive physiotherapy, his pain is still poorly controlled and requiring full dose codeine and paracetamol which is failing to control the pain.

      His MRI was normal and he has been discharged by the spinal team due to no operable cause identified for his pain.

      You're asked to review him due to ongoing pain. The nursing team has asked if he can have morphine sulfate prescribed as required to help with this. He was started by his general practitioner 3 months previously on amitriptyline which he hasn't found of any benefit.

      You decide rather than just prescribing morphine that you can try to adjust his chronic pain management as well.

      Which of the following options would be best for the management of his chronic pain?

      Your Answer: Continue amitriptyline and start duloxetine

      Correct Answer: Stop amitriptyline and start duloxetine

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing chronic pain, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used alone. If they are not effective, it is recommended to switch to a different drug rather than adding another one. This question may also bring attention to poorly controlled acute pain, but it is important to note that morphine sulfate is not ideal for chronic pain management due to its potential side effects, dependence, and worsening of chronic pain. Tramadol is a better option for managing breakthrough pain in neuropathic pain patients, but it does not change the overall management of chronic pain. The recommended drugs for neuropathic pain include duloxetine, gabapentinoids, and amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant).

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and dry cough. She denies fever or weight loss and there is no past medical history of note. She reports smoking 5 cigarettes a day for 3 years whilst at college but has since stopped. There are no known allergies.
      On examination, her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute with an oxygen saturation of 94% on air. There are audible crackles at the lung bases with expiratory wheeze.
      She is referred for spirometry testing:
      Forced expiratory volume (FEV1): 60% predicted
      Forced vital capacity (FVC): 80% predicted
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Obstructive Lung Disease: Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes emphysematous changes in the lungs due to the loss of elasticity. This disease presents similarly to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with symptoms such as shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze. However, AAT deficiency typically affects young men between 30-40 years old and is exacerbated by smoking. Spirometry testing reveals an obstructive pattern of disease (FEV1/FVC < 0.7). Other potential diagnoses for obstructive lung disease include hypersensitivity pneumonitis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. However, these are less likely in this patient’s case. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is caused by allergen exposure and presents with acute symptoms such as fever and weight loss. Kartagener’s syndrome is a genetic disease that leads to recurrent respiratory infections and bronchiectasis. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is characterized by progressive fibrosis of the lung parenchyma and typically affects individuals between 50-70 years old. In contrast to AAT deficiency, spirometry testing in fibrotic disease would show a result greater than 0.7 (FEV1/FVC > 0.7).

      In conclusion, AAT deficiency should be considered in the differential diagnosis for a patient presenting with obstructive lung disease, particularly in young men with a smoking history. Spirometry testing can help confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      65.7
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/3) 67%
Cardiovascular (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (1/2) 50%
Passmed