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Question 1
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A 2-year-old toddler is brought into the emergency department as the parents are worried about the child's cough and noisy breathing. You diagnose croup.
What is the probable causative agent?Your Answer: Parainfluenza viruses
Explanation:Bronchiolitis is primarily caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while whooping cough is caused by pertussis.
Further Reading:
Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.
The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.
In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.
Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.
When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 2
Correct
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You are evaluating a 42-year-old woman in the ER after a fall. During the examination, you observe multiple clinical manifestations consistent with Cushing syndrome. What is the most probable underlying cause of Cushing syndrome in this case?
Your Answer: Pituitary adenoma
Explanation:Cushing syndrome is most commonly caused by the use of external glucocorticoids. However, when it comes to endogenous causes, pituitary adenoma, also known as Cushing’s disease, is the leading culprit.
Further Reading:
Cushing’s syndrome is a clinical syndrome caused by prolonged exposure to high levels of glucocorticoids. The severity of symptoms can vary depending on the level of steroid exposure. There are two main classifications of Cushing’s syndrome: ACTH-dependent disease and non-ACTH-dependent disease. ACTH-dependent disease is caused by excessive ACTH production from the pituitary gland or ACTH-secreting tumors, which stimulate excessive cortisol production. Non-ACTH-dependent disease is characterized by excess glucocorticoid production independent of ACTH stimulation.
The most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome is exogenous steroid use. Pituitary adenoma is the second most common cause and the most common endogenous cause. Cushing’s disease refers specifically to Cushing’s syndrome caused by an ACTH-producing pituitary tumor.
Clinical features of Cushing’s syndrome include truncal obesity, supraclavicular fat pads, buffalo hump, weight gain, moon facies, muscle wasting and weakness, diabetes or impaired glucose tolerance, gonadal dysfunction, hypertension, nephrolithiasis, skin changes (such as skin atrophy, striae, easy bruising, hirsutism, acne, and hyperpigmentation in ACTH-dependent causes), depression and emotional lability, osteopenia or osteoporosis, edema, irregular menstrual cycles or amenorrhea, polydipsia and polyuria, poor wound healing, and signs related to the underlying cause, such as headaches and visual problems.
Diagnostic tests for Cushing’s syndrome include 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test, and late-night salivary cortisol. Other investigations aim to assess metabolic disturbances and identify the underlying cause, such as plasma ACTH, full blood count (raised white cell count), electrolytes, and arterial blood gas analysis. Imaging, such as CT or MRI of the abdomen, chest, and/or pituitary, may be required to assess suspected adrenal tumors, ectopic ACTH-secreting tumors, and pituitary tumors. The choice of imaging is guided by the ACTH result, with undetectable ACTH and elevated serum cortisol levels indicating ACTH-independent Cushing’s syndrome and raised ACTH suggesting an ACTH-secreting tumor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital signs reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and has not had an alcoholic beverage since the previous evening.
Which ONE of the following medications, not belonging to the benzodiazepine class, is commonly prescribed in the UK for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are commonly used in the UK to manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been authorized for this purpose. Other benzodiazepines like alprazolam, clobazam, and lorazepam do not currently have authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms in the UK.
Carbamazepine is also used in the UK to manage alcohol-related withdrawal symptoms, but it does not have official authorization for this use.
Clomethiazole, on the other hand, does have UK marketing authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms, but it is only recommended for use in a hospital setting with close supervision. The product information for clomethiazole advises caution when prescribing it to individuals with a history of addiction or outpatient alcoholics. It is also not recommended for patients who continue to drink or abuse alcohol. Combining alcohol with clomethiazole, especially in alcoholics with cirrhosis, can lead to fatal respiratory depression even with short-term use. Therefore, clomethiazole should only be used in a hospital under close supervision or, in rare cases, by specialist units on an outpatient basis with careful monitoring of the daily dosage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68 year old man presents to the emergency department due to increasing confusion and drowsiness over the past few days. The patient's wife tells you the patient has had a cough for the past week and apart from lisinopril takes no other regular medication. On examination you note cool extremities, diffuse non-pitting oedema and reduced tendon reflexes. Observations are shown below:
Blood pressure 100/64 mmHg
Pulse 44 bpm
Respiration rate 10 bpm
Temperature 34.3ºC
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Myxoedema coma
Explanation:Patients who have myxoedema coma usually show symptoms such as lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, worsening mental state, seizures, and/or coma. This patient has hypothyroidism and takes thyroxine regularly, which aligns with the signs and symptoms of myxoedema coma. It is worth noting that infections often act as a trigger, and this patient has developed a cough in the last week.
Further Reading:
The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.
Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.
The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.
Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.
Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 65 year old male is brought to the emergency department following a fall which occurred while the patient was getting out of bed. The patient complains of feeling dizzy as he got out of bed before experiencing tunnel vision and briefly losing consciousness. The patient is certain he only blacked out for a few seconds as the time on the bedside clock had not changed. The patient informs you that he has had several similar episodes over the past few months when getting out of bed, but most of the time he only feels dizzy and doesn't faint. He denies any loss of bladder or bowel control or biting his tongue. An ECG is performed which shows normal sinus rhythm. You note the patient takes the following medication:
Lisinopril 10 mg OD
Fluoxetine 20 mg OD
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Orthostatic hypotension
Explanation:Orthostatic hypotension is a condition where patients feel lightheaded and may experience tunnel vision when they stand up from a lying down position. These symptoms are often worse in the morning. The patient’s history of recurrent episodes after being in a supine position for a long time strongly suggests orthostatic hypotension. There are no signs of epilepsy, such as deja-vu or jambs vu prodrome, tongue biting, loss of bladder or bowel control, or postictal confusion. The normal ECG and consistent timing of symptoms make postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome (PAF) less likely. There are no neurological deficits to suggest a transient ischemic attack (TIA). The prodromal symptoms, such as tunnel vision and lightheadedness, align more with orthostatic hypotension rather than vasovagal syncope, which typically occurs after long periods of standing and is characterized by feeling hot and sweaty. Although carotid sinus syndrome could be considered as a differential diagnosis, as the patient’s head turning on getting out of bed may trigger symptoms, it is not one of the options.
Further Reading:
Blackouts, also known as syncope, are defined as a spontaneous transient loss of consciousness with complete recovery. They are most commonly caused by transient inadequate cerebral blood flow, although epileptic seizures can also result in blackouts. There are several different causes of blackouts, including neurally-mediated reflex syncope (such as vasovagal syncope or fainting), orthostatic hypotension (a drop in blood pressure upon standing), cardiovascular abnormalities, and epilepsy.
When evaluating a patient with blackouts, several key investigations should be performed. These include an electrocardiogram (ECG), heart auscultation, neurological examination, vital signs assessment, lying and standing blood pressure measurements, and blood tests such as a full blood count and glucose level. Additional investigations may be necessary depending on the suspected cause, such as ultrasound or CT scans for aortic dissection or other abdominal and thoracic pathology, chest X-ray for heart failure or pneumothorax, and CT pulmonary angiography for pulmonary embolism.
During the assessment, it is important to screen for red flags and signs of any underlying serious life-threatening condition. Red flags for blackouts include ECG abnormalities, clinical signs of heart failure, a heart murmur, blackouts occurring during exertion, a family history of sudden cardiac death at a young age, an inherited cardiac condition, new or unexplained breathlessness, and blackouts in individuals over the age of 65 without a prodrome. These red flags indicate the need for urgent assessment by an appropriate specialist.
There are several serious conditions that may be suggested by certain features. For example, myocardial infarction or ischemia may be indicated by a history of coronary artery disease, preceding chest pain, and ECG signs such as ST elevation or arrhythmia. Pulmonary embolism may be suggested by dizziness, acute shortness of breath, pleuritic chest pain, and risk factors for venous thromboembolism. Aortic dissection may be indicated by chest and back pain, abnormal ECG findings, and signs of cardiac tamponade include low systolic blood pressure, elevated jugular venous pressure, and muffled heart sounds. Other conditions that may cause blackouts include severe hypoglycemia, Addisonian crisis, and electrolyte abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old accountant presents with a headache. Since she woke up this morning, she describes a right-sided, severe, throbbing headache. She has had similar symptoms previously but feels that this is the worst she has ever had. Her work is very stressful at the moment. She has also vomited this morning. Her husband is with her and is anxious as his mother has recently been diagnosed with a brain tumor. He is really worried that his wife might have the same. On examination, the patient is normotensive with a heart rate of 72 beats per minute, regular. Her cranial nerve examination, including fundoscopy, is normal, as is the examination of her peripheral nervous system. She has no scalp tenderness.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Migraine
Explanation:Migraine without aura typically needs to meet the specific criteria set by the International Headache Society. These criteria include experiencing at least five attacks that meet the requirements outlined in criteria 2-4. The duration of these headache attacks should last between 4 to 72 hours. Additionally, the headache should exhibit at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation or avoidance of routine physical activity. Furthermore, during the headache, individuals should experience at least one of the following symptoms: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. For more detailed information, you can refer to the guidelines provided by The British Association for the Study of Headache.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 45 year old female patient has been brought to the emergency department with multiple injuries following a fall while hiking in the mountains. You observe significant injuries to the face. There is also bruising to the chest wall and a fracture dislocation to the ankle. The patient has undergone rapid sequence induction with Propofol and Suxamethonium. A chest X-ray shows multiple rib fractures but no pneumothorax or visible pulmonary contusion. You notice that the patient's end tidal CO2 has steadily increased since being intubated from 4.5 KPa to 7.4 KPa. You observe esophageal temperature is 39.3ºC. What is the likely cause of these readings?
Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia
Explanation:The earliest and most frequent clinical indication of malignant hyperthermia is typically an increase in end tidal CO2. An unexplained elevation in end tidal CO2 is often the initial and most reliable sign of this condition.
Further Reading:
Malignant hyperthermia is a rare and life-threatening syndrome that can be triggered by certain medications in individuals who are genetically susceptible. The most common triggers are suxamethonium and inhalational anaesthetic agents. The syndrome is caused by the release of stored calcium ions from skeletal muscle cells, leading to uncontrolled muscle contraction and excessive heat production. This results in symptoms such as high fever, sweating, flushed skin, rapid heartbeat, and muscle rigidity. It can also lead to complications such as acute kidney injury, rhabdomyolysis, and metabolic acidosis. Treatment involves discontinuing the trigger medication, administering dantrolene to inhibit calcium release and promote muscle relaxation, and managing any associated complications such as hyperkalemia and acidosis. Referral to a malignant hyperthermia center for further investigation is also recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Anaesthetics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents with worsening abdominal distension and discomfort. During the examination, she exhibits significant dependent edema and an elevated JVP. Cardiac auscultation reveals a pansystolic murmur. The abdomen is distended and tender, with the presence of shifting dullness.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Correct Answer: Tricuspid regurgitation
Explanation:Tricuspid regurgitation is commonly caused by right ventricular dilatation, often as a result of heart failure. Other factors that can contribute to this condition include right ventricular infarction and cor pulmonale. The clinical signs of right-sided heart failure are frequently observed, such as an elevated jugular venous pressure, peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
The murmur associated with tricuspid regurgitation is a pansystolic murmur that is most audible at the tricuspid area during inspiration. A thrill may also be felt at the left sternal edge. Reverse splitting of the second heart sound can occur due to the early closure of the pulmonary valve. Additionally, a third heart sound may be present due to rapid filling of the right ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 14 year old boy is brought into the emergency department after being bitten on the leg while playing in the woods near his neighborhood. The patient claims that the bite was from a snake that he saw quickly disappear into the bushes after biting him. You present the patient with pictures of native snake species in the area, and the patient identifies the common Eastern garter snake as the culprit. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding the treatment of bites from this particular snake species?
Your Answer: A tourniquet should be applied proximally to the affected limb within 30 minutes of the bite if possible.
Correct Answer: The affected limb should immobilised in a sling
Explanation:The key components of first aid for snake bites in the UK involve immobilizing the patient and the affected limb, as well as administering paracetamol for pain relief. When it comes to venomous snake bites, it is important to immobilize the limb using a splint or sling, but not to use a tourniquet or pressure bandage for adder bites. In certain areas, such as NSW, Australia, where venomous snakes can cause rapidly progressing and life-threatening paralysis, pressure bandage immobilization is recommended. However, this is not the case in the UK. Anti-venom is not always necessary for adder bites, and its administration should be based on a thorough assessment of the patient’s condition and the presence of appropriate indications. Paracetamol is the preferred choice for pain relief in UK snake bites, as aspirin and ibuprofen can worsen bleeding tendencies that may result from adder bites. Similarly, heparin should be avoided for the same reason.
Further Reading:
Snake bites in the UK are primarily caused by the adder, which is the only venomous snake species native to the country. While most adder bites result in minor symptoms such as pain, swelling, and inflammation, there have been cases of life-threatening illness and fatalities. Additionally, there are instances where venomous snakes that are kept legally or illegally also cause bites in the UK.
Adder bites typically occur from early spring to late autumn, with the hand being the most common site of the bite. Symptoms can be local or systemic, with local symptoms including sharp pain, tingling or numbness, and swelling that spreads proximally. Systemic symptoms may include spreading pain, tenderness, inflammation, regional lymph node enlargement, and bruising. In severe cases, anaphylaxis can occur, leading to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, and shock.
It is important for clinicians to be aware of the potential complications and complications associated with adder bites. These can include acute renal failure, pulmonary and cerebral edema, acute gastric dilatation, paralytic ileus, acute pancreatitis, and coma and seizures. Anaphylaxis symptoms can appear within minutes or be delayed for hours, and hypotension is a critical sign to monitor.
Initial investigations for adder bites include blood tests, ECG, and vital sign monitoring. Further investigations such as chest X-ray may be necessary based on clinical signs. Blood tests may reveal abnormalities such as leukocytosis, raised hematocrit, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and abnormal clotting profile. ECG changes may include tachyarrhythmias, bradyarrhythmias, atrial fibrillation, and ST segment changes.
First aid measures at the scene include immobilizing the patient and the bitten limb, avoiding aspirin and ibuprofen, and cleaning the wound site in the hospital. Tetanus prophylaxis should be considered. In cases of anaphylaxis, prompt administration of IM adrenaline is necessary. In the hospital, rapid assessment and appropriate resuscitation with intravenous fluids are required.
Antivenom may be indicated in cases of hypotension, systemic envenoming, ECG abnormalities, peripheral neutrophil leucocytosis, elevated serum creatine kinase or metabolic acidosis, and extensive or rapidly spreading local swelling. Zagreb antivenom is commonly used in the UK, with an initial dose of 8 mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 10
Correct
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A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and painful right eye. On examination, you note the presence of conjunctival erythema. There is also mucopurulent discharge and lid crusting evident in the eye. You make a diagnosis of bacterial conjunctivitis.
With reference to the current NICE guidance, which of the following should NOT be included in your management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Topical antibiotics should be prescribed routinely
Explanation:Here is a revised version of the guidance on the management of bacterial conjunctivitis:
– It is important to inform the patient that most cases of bacterial conjunctivitis will resolve on their own within 5-7 days without any treatment.
– However, if the condition is severe or if there is a need for rapid resolution, topical antibiotics may be prescribed. In some cases, a delayed treatment strategy may be appropriate, and the patient should be advised to start using topical antibiotics if their symptoms have not improved within 3 days.
– There are several options for topical antibiotics, including Chloramphenicol 0.5% drops (to be applied every 2 hours for 2 days, then 4 times daily for 5 days) and Chloramphenicol 1% ointment (to be applied four times daily for 2 days, then twice daily for 5 days). Fusidic acid 1% eye drops can also be used as a second-line treatment, to be applied twice daily for 7 days.
– It is important to note that there is no recommended exclusion period from school, nursery, or childminders for isolated cases of bacterial conjunctivitis. However, some institutions may have their own exclusion policies.
– Provide the patient with written information and explain the red flags that indicate the need for an urgent review.
– Arrange a follow-up appointment to confirm the diagnosis and ensure that the symptoms have resolved.
– If the patient returns with ongoing symptoms, it may be necessary to send swabs for viral PCR (to test for adenovirus and Herpes simplex) and bacterial culture. Empirical topical antibiotics may also be prescribed if they have not been previously given.
– Consider referring the patient to ophthalmology if the symptoms persist for more than 7 to 10 days after initiating treatment.For more information, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on Infective Conjunctivitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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