-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 14 year-old is brought to the ED after being hit on the head with a cricket ball during a match. His teacher describes that he initially collapsed on the ground and complained of a sore head. Two minutes later, he got up and said he felt OK and continued playing. However, 30 minutes later he suddenly collapsed and lost consciousness. What injury is he most likely to have sustained?
Your Answer: Subdural haematoma
Correct Answer: Extradural haematoma
Explanation:A lucid interval, in which the patient portrays a temporary improvement in condition after a traumatic brain injury, is especially indicative of an epidural haematoma.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 15-year-old boy is described as having sparse, long, slightly pigmented, downy pubic hair. What is the present stage of pubic hair development in this boy according to the Tanner system?
Your Answer: Stage 1
Correct Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:Based on the clinical presentation, the pubic hair development is in Tanner stage 2.The Tanner stages for pubic hair are as follows:Stage 1 -pre-adolescentStage 2 -sparse hair that is long, slightly pigmented and downyStage 3 -hair spread over the junction of the pubes, darker and coarserStage 4 -adult-type hair, but the area covered is smaller than it is in an adult.Stage 5 -adult in quantity and type
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Consider the following study:Healthy individuals are assessed according to their current body mass index (BMI). Two years later, their health status is reassessed, and the relationships with their earlier BMI were determined.What is the type of epidemiological study described above?
Your Answer: Cohort
Explanation:The study described in the question is a ‘cohort’ study.Other options:A prospective observational study – When groups are classified according to one or more factors at a given time and followed forward to determine outcomes (usually some health status)- Although there is in one sense a control group (those who do not develop the health problem), this is not generally called a ‘controlled’ trial. – An ecological study would look at outcomes in different groups (countries or regions usually) who follow different practices.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Epidemiology And Statistics
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 6 year old boy has a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis. What ocular manifestation in this boy would indicate that he has inherited the condition?
Your Answer: Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium
Explanation:Congenital hypertrophy of the retinal pigment epithelium is one of FAP’s extra-intestinal manifestations. It appears in early childhood and affects an estimated 90% of those with FAP.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics And Dysmorphology
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is most likely to permanently impair visual development in a 2-year-old child?
Your Answer: Heterochromia
Correct Answer: Congenital ptosis
Explanation:A drooping eyelid is called ptosis or blepharoptosis. In ptosis, the upper eyelid falls to a position that is lower than normal. Severe ptosis may cover part or all of the pupil and interfere with vision, resulting in amblyopia.Visual development in a child can be permanently impaired when there is deprivation of visual stimulation or when the oculomotor function is impaired. Congenital ptosis can represent both these components
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A term baby is admitted to NICU from the postnatal ward following a large green vomit. The baby was born by forceps delivery following non-reassuring CTG trace. There was meconium-stained liquor just before delivery. Respiratory rate is 60/min, heart rate is 180/min and oxygen saturations are 94% in room air. On examination baby appears quiet with mild nasal flaring. There are no other signs of increased work of breathing. Heart sounds are normal with no murmurs. Femoral pulses are palpable bilaterally. CRT is <2 seconds centrally and baby feels warm peripherally. Abdomen is slightly distended and baby desaturates to 80% on abdominal palpation. What is the most important diagnostic test?
Your Answer: Lower GI contrast study
Correct Answer: Upper GI contrast study
Explanation:Bilious (green) gastric aspirate or emesis indicates that the intestines are obstructed below the ampulla of Vater.Gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is actually considered an essential diagnostic and therapeutic technique. Upper GI endoscopy in neonatal age allows for exploration of the oesophagus, stomach and duodenum; instead lower GI endoscopy easily reaches the sigmoid-colon junction.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 7
Incorrect
-
Gertrude is an 18 month old child who is developing normally. Which of the following should she be able to do?
Your Answer: Copy a vertical line
Correct Answer: Follow commands such as 'give me a doll please'
Explanation:At the age of 18 months, Gertrude should be able to follow a one step command. At this age she would also be capable of putting words together in 1 or 2 word phrases, scribbling, throwing a ball, and building a tower of four cubes. At 2 she should be able to feed herself with a spoon or a fork, copy a vertical line, ride a tricycle, kick a ball and balance on one foot. Activities such as jumping will follow later on in her development at 3 years.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Child Development
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 17-year-old boy presents to the clinic complaining of increased weight but low energy. History reveals that he has also experienced low libido and has difficulty maintaining erections. Serum testosterone levels are checked. In the human body, the secretion of testosterone is stimulated by which of the following?
Your Answer: Luteinising Hormone
Explanation:The hypothalamus and pituitary gland control how much testosterone the testes produce and secrete. The hypothalamus sends a signal to the pituitary gland to release gonadotrophic substances (follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone). Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates testosterone production.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A child suffering from a chest infection is prescribed flucloxacillin. A few days later, he develops jaundice, dark urine, and pale stools. What is he suffering from now?
Your Answer: Cholestatic jaundice
Explanation:Due to its cholestatic properties, Flucloxacillin can block bile flow through the liver, leading to the accumulation of bilirubin in the blood, giving rise to jaundice. Dark urine is the result of excessive bilirubin in the blood being filtered by the kidney. As the bile doesn’t move into the small intestine, stools are pale.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 6 year old with a recent history of ear infection, now represents with bilateral, erythematous and bulging tympanic membranes. His parents claim the boy also has hearing difficulty. Otoscopy reveals an effusion on the left side. Doctors suggest to perform Weber and Rinne tests. Which of the following is consistent with a left-sided middle ear effusion?
Your Answer: Weber's localising to left, Rinne negative on left, Rinne positive on right
Explanation:When a child does not hear the sound in the middle during Weber test, it means they either they have a conductive hearing loss on the side they hear the sound, or a sensorineural hearing loss on the opposite side. Rinne’s test helps distinguish between the two. In this particular case, the hearing loss is most probably conductive due to the middle ear effusion. Therefore, Weber’s test should be localised to the left and Rinne’s should be positive on the right.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
Which of the following findings is not commonly associated with Marfan's syndrome?
Your Answer: Pectus excavatum
Correct Answer: Hypoplastic dental enamel
Explanation:Marfan syndrome (MFS) is a spectrum of disorders caused by a heritable genetic defect of connective tissue that has an autosomal dominant mode of transmission. The defect itself has been isolated to the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the connective tissue protein fibrillin. Abnormalities in this protein cause a myriad of distinct clinical problems, of which the musculoskeletal, cardiac, and ocular system problems predominate.The most severe of these clinical problems include aortic root dilatation and dissection, which have historically been the causative factors in early patient demise. Skeletal deformities such as thoracolumbar scoliosis, thoracic lordosis, and pectus excavatum, may lead to pulmonary difficulties that include restrictive airway disease and cor pulmonale if the deformities are progressive and untreated. Finally, blindness may result from unrecognized and untreated glaucoma, retinal detachment, and cataracts.The skeleton of patients with MFS typically displays multiple deformities including arachnodactyly (i.e., abnormally long and thin digits), dolichostenomelia (i.e., long limbs relative to trunk length), pectus deformities (i.e., pectus excavatum and pectus carinatum), and thoracolumbar scoliosis. In the cardiovascular system, aortic dilatation, aortic regurgitation, and aneurysms are the most worrisome clinical findings. Mitral valve prolapse that requires valve replacement can occur as well. Ocular findings include myopia, cataracts, retinal detachment, and superior dislocation of the lens.Other features:General tall staturePectus excavatum or carinatumDisproportionately long, slender armsDisproportionately long digitsArachnodactylyFinger contracturesReduced extension of elbows (< 170 degrees)Protrusio acetabuli (intrapelvic displacement of the acetabulum)Pes planus (flat feet)HypermobilityArthralgiaJoint instabilityScoliosisKyphosisDolichocephalia (elongated face)High arched palateDental crowdingDental malocclusion
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A young girl is brought to the ED by her parents because of increased body temperature, rhinorrhoea and an unusual bark-like cough. The girl is also drooling because of excessive salivation. What would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Intubation under GA
Correct Answer: Corticosteroids
Explanation:The symptoms and signs described are typical for epiglottitis which represents a paediatric emergency and the child should be put immediately on corticosteroids.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
The right testicular vein is the tributary of which of the following structures?
Your Answer: External iliac vein
Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava
Explanation:The right testicular vein is a tributary of the inferior vena cava, while the left testicular vein drains into the left renal vein.Note:The testicular venous drainage begins in the septa and these veins together with those of the tunica vasculosa converge on the posterior border of the testis as the pampiniform plexus. The pampiniform plexus, in turn, drains to the testicular vein.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 10-year-old boy was brought to the clinic by his parents. They are worried because they are unable to see his testes. They state they were present at birth. On examination, both testes are clearly in the groin. On manipulation, they can be brought into the scrotum. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis and most appropriate course of action for this child?
Your Answer: Bilateral Retractile testis, routine bilateral orchidopexy
Correct Answer: Bilateral retractile testis, discharge with reassurance
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient is bilateral retractile testes. This a normal phenomenon in some pre-pubertal boys. Rationale:Testicular descent can continue until about 3-months of age. The pre-pubertal testis is small enough that with activation of the cremasteric reflex, they can enter the inguinal canal. This in itself is a normal finding providing the testis can be brought into the scrotum without tension and does not require surgical correction. With time the testis will lie within the scrotum. Orchidopexy for true undescended testis can be performed from 6-months of age. It is also warranted if the testes remain undescended or intra-abdominally leading to infertility.Other options:- An ascending testis is one, typically, following hernia or orchidopexy surgery that was in the testis but with time is within the inguinal canal and cannot be brought into the scrotum. Orchidopexy is required for this.- No surgery is required as when the testis enlarges with puberty it will remain within the scrotum.- The testes can be brought into the scrotum. Therefore they are not undescended.- The testes are retractile not ascending; ascending testis cannot be brought into the scrotum and would require orchidopexy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephro-urology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
A horse kicks a 14-year-old girl in the abdomen while she was at riding camp. A CT scan demonstrates a grade IV splenic injury. The child has a pulse of 110 bpm and blood pressure of 110/70. What is the best management of this child?
Your Answer: Transfer to theatre for emergency splenectomy
Correct Answer: Admit to the ward for a week of bed-rest
Explanation:The trend in the management of splenic injury continues to favour nonoperative or conservative management. In Paediatrics, Blunt splenic injuries with hemodynamic stability and absence of other internal injuries requiring surgery should undergo an initial attempt of Non-operative Management (NOM) irrespective of injury grade.In hemodynamically stable children with isolated splenic injury, splenectomy should be avoided.NOM is contraindicated in the presence of peritonitis, bowel evisceration, impalement or other indications to laparotomy.The vast majority of paediatric patients do not require angiography/angioembolization (AG/AE) for CT blush or moderate to severe injuries.AG/AE may be considered in patients undergone to NOM, hemodynamically stable with sings of persistent haemorrhage not amenable of NOM, regardless with the presence of CT blush once excluded extra-splenic source of bleeding.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Surgery
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A baby born at 25 weeks gestation around 24 hours ago is reported to be in a critical state. Birth weight is 550g and the baby shows a poor respiratory effort. The membranes ruptured just prior to the delivery with no signs of maternal fever or sepsis. The infant received no antenatal steroids. After delivery, the neonate was subsequently intubated, resuscitated and given a dose of Curo surf. he was extubated onto CPAP within 6 hours. UVC and UAC access was established and benzylpenicillin and gentamicin were administered. Small amounts of maternal breast milk were given for mouthcare. The baby's cardiovascular system was stable and early ABG samples were within acceptable ranges. At 24 hours of age the baby deteriorates with numerous desaturations and bradycardias requiring reintubation. First gas following reintubation shows pH 7.19, CO2 8.6 kPa, BE -10. Oxygen requirement is 60%. FBC is unremarkable. The baby is cool peripherally and central CRT is 3-4 seconds. There is a loud machinery murmur. Abdominal radiograph shows a football sign. What is the most likely cause of the baby's deterioration?
Your Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Correct Answer: Spontaneous intestinal perforation
Explanation:Spontaneous intestinal perforation (SIP) of the new-born, also referred to as isolated perforation or focal intestinal perforation (FIP) of the new-born, is a single intestinal perforation that is typically found at the terminal ileum. SIP occurs primarily in preterm infants with very low birth weight (VLBW, birth weight <1500 g) and extremely low birth weight (ELBW, birth weight <1000 g), umbilical catheter placement, maternal drug use and twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome. SIP is a separate clinical entity from necrotizing enterocolitis, the most severe gastrointestinal complication of preterm infants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A child presents with hypertension. Serum potassium analysis shows hypokalaemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Correct Answer: Liddle syndrome
Explanation:Liddle’s syndrome,  is an autosomal dominant disorder, that is characterized by early, and frequently severe, high blood pressure associated with low plasma renin activity, metabolic alkalosis, low blood potassium, and normal to low levels of aldosterone. Liddle syndrome involves abnormal kidney function, with excess reabsorption of sodium and loss of potassium from the renal tubule. Bartter Syndrome also presents with hypokalaemia, however blood pressure of these patients is usually low or normal.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 6 year old boy is admitted following a motor vehicle collision (MVC). He presents with tachycardia and it is indicated that he might be in shock. Upon immediate management with fluid bolus, his condition becomes improves, only to worsen again after a while, as he becomes more tachycardia and his pulse pressure starts decreasing. Which of the following is the most probably cause of shock?
Your Answer: Distal radius buckle fracture
Correct Answer: Abdominal trauma
Explanation:Internal abdominal bleeding is most probably the cause of the child’s shock, especially unresponsive to fluid boluses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 4-year old boy arrives at the clinic due to sudden onset knee pain that has been occurring over the past 2 days. The pain is associated with mild fever that started on the 2nd day. The patient is able to walk but with a limp. Examination reveals painful and restricted motion of the right knee. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Correct Answer: Septic arthritis
Explanation:Septic (infectious) arthritis is a bacterial infection of the joint space. Contamination occurs either via the bloodstream, iatrogenically, or by local extension (e.g., penetrating trauma). Patients with damaged (e.g., patients with rheumatoid arthritis) or prosthetic joints have an increased risk. Patients usually present with an acutely swollen, painful joint, limited range of motion, and a fever. Suspected infectious arthritis requires prompt arthrocentesis for diagnosis. In addition to the immediate broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy, surgical drainage and debridement may be necessary to prevent cartilage destruction and sepsis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 16-year-old boy is brought to the clinic by his parents, who are concerned that he is shorter than the other boys at school, despite having attained puberty. His father is 1.70 m tall, and his mother is 1.50 m tall. Given his parents height, what is his adult height potential?
Your Answer: 1.53 m
Correct Answer: 1.67 m
Explanation:The adult height potential may be calculated for a male child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then add 7 cm.In the scenario provided: (170 + 150)/2 + 7 = 167 cm = 1.67 m.For a female child by (father’s height in cm + mother’s height in cm) / 2 then minus 7 cm.This can then be plotted on a height centile chart to find the mid-parental centile.Causes of short stature include:- Normal variant (often familial)- Constitutional delay of growth and puberty- Chronic illness, e.g. cystic fibrosis, inflammatory bowel disease- Endocrine: growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, steroid excess syndromes: Turner’s, Down’s, Prader-Willi- Skeletal dysplasias, e.g. achondroplasia
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A neonate was delivered 24 hours ago at the gestational age of 29 weeks. His birth weight was recorded to be 1 kg. Due to his critical state, the baby was intubated and ventilated. Prior to his intubation, the baby was managed with CPAP, but he seemed to get exhausted. He is now on SiMV (spontaneous intermittent mechanical ventilation). The ventilator settings are as follows: targeted tidal volume 9 ml, maximum PIP 30, PEEP 5, rate 40/min, FiO2 0.3. Baby's oxygen saturations are 93%. Blood gas shows pH 7.41, CO2 3.9 kPa, BE -4. Which of the following changes need to be made to the ventilator settings initially?
Your Answer: Increase FiO2
Correct Answer: Decrease targeted tidal volume
Explanation:Synchronized IMV (SIMV) with pressure support, used in the alert infant. SIMV guarantees a minimum minute volume while allowing the patient to trigger spontaneousbreaths at a rate and volume determined by the patient. Extra breaths are boosted with pressure support. Tidal Volume (Vt) is normally approximately 6-10 mL/kg and 4-6 ml/kg in the preterm.Respiratory rate (RR) is usually 30-60 BPM. Tidal volume and respiratory rate are relatedto respiratory minute volume as follows: Vm(mL/min) = Vt x RR .This baby is overventilated with a low CO2. Tidal volumes should generally be targeted at 4-6 ml/kg and this baby is being targeted at 9 ml/kg which exposes the baby to damage to the distal airways from this ventilation which can lead to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which of the following conditions is not associated with an atrial septal defect?
Your Answer: Foetal alcohol syndrome
Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome
Explanation:Atrial septal defects may also occur in association with a variety of other congenital heart defects, or in new-borns that are relatively small or premature. The following conditions are associated with an atrial septal defect:Ebstein’s anomalyFoetal alcohol syndromeHolt-Oram syndromeDown syndromeEllis van Creveld syndromeLutembacher’s syndrome Ostium primum defects occur frequently in individuals with Down syndrome or Ellis van-Creveld syndrome.Holt-Oram syndrome characterized by an autosomal dominant pattern of inheritance and deformities of the upper limbs (most often, absent or hypoplastic radii) has been attributed to a single gene defect in TBX5Fragile X syndrome is characterized by moderate intellectual disability in affected males and mild intellectual disability in affected females. The physical features in affected males are variable and may not be obvious until puberty. These symptoms can include a large head, long face, prominent forehead and chin, protruding ears, loose joints and large testes. Other symptoms can include flat feet, frequent ear infections, low muscle tone, a long narrow face, high arched palate, dental problems, crossed eyes (strabismus) and heart problems including mitral valve prolapse.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
Extracellular body fluid as compared with intracellular body fluid:
Your Answer: Contains more amino acids
Correct Answer: Is relatively rich in glucose
Explanation:The percentages of body water contained in various fluid compartments add up to total body water (TBW). This water makes up a significant fraction of the human body, both by weight and by volume. Ensuring the right amount of body water is part of fluid balance, an aspect of homeostasis. The extracellular fluid (ECF) includes all fluids outside the cells. This fluid can be divided into three fluid departments: interstitial (in the tissue spaces) fluid, blood plasma and lymph, and specialised compartments called transcellular fluid. The extracellular fluid surrounds all the cells in the body and is in equilibrium with the intracellular fluid. So, its composition must remain fairly constant even though substances are passing into and out of the cells. The interstitial fluid, though called a fluid, is in a reality a gel-like composition made up of: water, proteoglycan molecules and collagen. The extracellular fluid constitutes 40% of total body water, with intracellular fluid making up the remaining 60%. It is relatively rich in glucose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Fluid And Electrolytes
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
Which of the following descriptions qualifies as a diagnostic criteria for Neurofibromatosis type 1?
Your Answer: >10 cafe au lait spots which are >5mm in children under age 10, and >15mm in children over 10
Correct Answer: > 6 cafe au lait spots or hyperpigmented macules which are >5mm in children under age 10, and >15mm in children over 10
Explanation:Clinical diagnosis of neurofibromatosis type 1 requires the presence of at least 2 of 7 criteria. Many of these signs do not appear until later childhood or adolescence, and thus confirming the diagnosis often is delayed despite a suspicion of NF1. The 7 clinical criteria used to diagnose NF1 are as follows:- Six or more cafe-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules greater than 5 mm in diameter in prepubertal children and greater than 15 mm in postpubertal- Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2) – Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma- Optic nerve glioma- Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit-lamp examination by an ophthalmologist- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis- A first-degree relative (e.g., mother, father, sister, brother) with NF1
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 23-week-old neonate was delivered in triage following a quick delivery, there was no time for the administration of antenatal steroids. The baby was successfully intubated, and the first dose of surfactant had been given. Despite good chest wall movement and 2 min of chest compressions the heart rate remains very slow. The baby is approximately 18min old when the consultant arrives. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this case?
Your Answer: 0.1 ml/kg 1:1000 adrenaline
Correct Answer: Consider reorientating care
Explanation:The withdrawal and withholding of care has been reported in neonatology for over 30 years. ‘Withdrawal’ of life-saving treatment implies the elective discontinuation of ongoing life-supportive measures. ‘Withholding’ of treatment occurs when interventions necessary for immediate survival, such as surgical intervention or resuscitation (bag and mask/endotracheal ventilation, cardiac massage or adrenaline) are deliberately not administered.Withdrawal of treatment most commonly takes the form of withdrawing of ventilatory support. In the extremely premature neonate who has had poor response to bag and mask ventilation, this may mean stopping ventilation breaths, explaining to the parents the reason for discontinuation and offering comfort care according to the parents’ wishes. Parents should be prepared for the sequelae that may follow withdrawal from mechanical ventilation. The infant may become agitated secondary to hypoxia, display terminal gasping and, depending on the size and gestation of their infant, tachypnoea, intercostal recession or stridor may be evident. Parents may want to be involved in the extubation process. Following ventilator withdrawal, the length of time prior to death cannot be predicted and can be a significant cause of parental anguish if this is not explained. A side room and privacy should be made available for the family. NICE guidance suggests that women ‘should not be encouraged to hold their dead baby if they do not wish to’, although this is very much dependent on individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
The blood supply to which of the following structures is NOT compromised due to an occlusion in the anterior cerebral artery?
Your Answer: Corpus callosum
Correct Answer: Brocas area
Explanation:Broca’s area is usually supplied by branches from the middle cerebral artery and thus will be spared when the anterior cerebral artery is occluded.Note:The two internal carotid arteries and two vertebral arteries form an anastomosis known as the Circle of Willis on the inferior surface of the brain. Each half of the circle is formed by:1. Anterior communicating artery2. Anterior cerebral artery3. Internal carotid artery4. Posterior communicating artery5. Posterior cerebral arteries and the termination of the basilar arteryThe circle and its branches supply the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon and midbrain.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology And Neurodisability
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
An 8-year-old boy who recently migrated from Nigeria was seen in A&E department with a six-week history of progressive swelling of his jaw, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. His mother reported an episode of sore throat in the past which was treated with antibiotics, but he developed a rash subsequently. Other than that, there was no other significant past medical history. On examination, a painless, nontender 4x3cm mass was found that was fixed and hard. The only other examination finding of note was rubbery symmetrical cervical lymphadenopathy.Which of the following translocation would most likely be found on biopsy karyotyping?
Your Answer: t(14;18)
Correct Answer: t(8;14)
Explanation:Burkitt lymphoma is associated with the c-myc gene translocation, usually t(8;14). Burkitt lymphoma is a rare high-grade non-Hodgkin lymphoma endemic to west Africa and the mosquito belt. It has a close association with the contraction of Epstein-Barr virus (EBV). Burkitt lymphoma often presents with symmetrical painless lymphadenopathy, systemic B symptoms (fever, sweats, and weight loss), central nervous system involvement, and bone marrow infiltration. Classically in the textbooks, the patient also develops a large jaw tumour.Other aforementioned options are ruled out because:1. t(9;22)-Chronic myeloid leukaemia2. t(15;17)-Acute promyelocytic leukaemia3. t(14;18)-Follicular Lymphoma4. t(11;14)-Mantle Cell Lymphoma
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is an ECG feature of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer: Low QRS amplitude
Correct Answer: Tall T waves
Explanation:On electrocardiography (ECG), characteristic changes in patients with hypercalcemia include:Tall T wavesReduced QTProlonged and depressed STArrhythmiaOther electrolyte disturbances:Hypokalaemia:Flat T wavesST depressionU waveAtrial and ventricular ectopicsVF and VTHyperkalaemia:Tall T wavesST- changesReduced QT intervalIncreased PR intervalSmaller or absent P wavesWidened QRS, broadening to VFHypocalcaemia:Prolonged QTProlonged STFlat or absent T wavesU waves
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 16 year old boy presented, complaining that an insect had lodged in his left ear. Which of the following can be considered as the most appropriate method to remove the insect?
Your Answer: Use a magnet
Correct Answer: Syringe the ear with warm water
Explanation:Removal of foreign bodies from the ear is indicated whenever a well-visualized foreign body is identified in the external auditory canal. Insects are better extracted with suction than with forceps or hooks. From the given answers, irrigation with warm water is the most suitable answer.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polio (Salk)
Explanation:Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)