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  • Question 1 - A 48-year-old-man presents to his General Practitioner very anxious as he has noticed...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old-man presents to his General Practitioner very anxious as he has noticed blood in his urine that morning. For the past three days, he has been experiencing some lower abdominal discomfort, increased urinary frequency and mild dysuria. He is usually fit and well and doesn't take any regular medications. He is afebrile and normotensive. Urine dipstick is positive for blood, leukocytes and nitrites.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Await the result of urine culture before starting antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Prescribe antibiotics and advise him to return if no improvement in symptoms within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with symptoms of a urinary tract infection (UTI), it is recommended to prescribe antibiotics and advise them to return if their symptoms do not improve within 48 hours. A routine nephrology referral is not necessary in this case, as the patient’s haematuria can be explained by the UTI. However, if a patient has unexplained visible haematuria, urgent urological investigations should be conducted. It is not advisable to book an urgent blood test for prostate-specific antigen until after the UTI has been treated, unless there is a strong suspicion of prostate cancer. According to NICE guidelines, empirical antibiotics should be started immediately for men with typical UTI symptoms, and urine culture should be sent away for analysis. If visible haematuria persists or recurs after successful treatment of the UTI, an urgent suspected cancer referral should be sent. In men over 45 years old, a 2-week-wait referral should be considered in the absence of UTI symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • You are discussing smoking cessation with a patient in their 60s newly diagnosed with COPD.

      You wish to use the 'stages of change' model, which is comprised of:

      A Action
      B Contemplation
      C Maintenance
      D precontemplation
      E Preparation

      Which of the following correctly orders the listed stages in the 'stages of change' model?

      Your Answer: D B E A C

      Correct Answer: A D C B E

      Explanation:

      The Stages of Change Model for Smoking Cessation

      The ‘stages of change’ model is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to categorize a patient’s readiness to act on a new health behavior, such as smoking cessation. The correct order of the model is precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, and maintenance.

      It is important to determine where the patient fits in the model to tailor the approach accordingly. Patients in the earlier stages may benefit from education on the benefits of quitting smoking and increasing their awareness of the positive outcomes. This can help them move towards the later stages of the model.

      Patients in the later stages may require more direct intervention, such as pharmacological management with nicotine replacement or varenicline, and advice on preventing relapse. By utilizing the stages of change model, healthcare professionals can provide personalized care and support for patients seeking to quit smoking.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      149
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of toenail thickening and lifting...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with a 5-month history of toenail thickening and lifting with discoloration on 2 of his 5 toes on his left foot. He is in good health and has no other medical issues. He is eager to receive treatment as it is causing discomfort when he walks.

      Upon examination, you determine that he has an obvious fungal toenail infection on his 2nd and 5th toenails of his left foot and proceed to take some nail clippings.

      After a week, you receive the mycology results which confirm the presence of Trichophyton rubrum.

      What is the most suitable course of treatment?

      Your Answer: Amorolfine 5% nail lacquer

      Correct Answer: Oral terbinafine

      Explanation:

      When it comes to dermatophyte nail infections, the preferred treatment is oral terbinafine, especially when caused by Trichophyton rubrum, which is a common organism responsible for such infections. It is important to note that not treating the infection is not an option, especially when the patient is experiencing symptoms such as pain while walking. Oral itraconazole may be more appropriate for Candida infections or as a second-line treatment for dermatophyte infections. Amorolfine nail lacquer is not recommended according to NICE CKS guidelines if more than two nails are affected.

      Fungal Nail Infections: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Fungal nail infections, also known as onychomycosis, can affect any part of the nail or the entire nail unit. However, toenails are more susceptible to infection than fingernails. The primary cause of fungal nail infections is dermatophytes, with Trichophyton rubrum being the most common. Yeasts, such as Candida, and non-dermatophyte molds can also cause fungal nail infections. Risk factors for developing a fungal nail infection include increasing age, diabetes mellitus, psoriasis, and repeated nail trauma.

      The most common symptom of a fungal nail infection is thickened, rough, and opaque nails. Patients may present with unsightly nails, which can be a source of embarrassment. Differential diagnoses include psoriasis, repeated trauma, lichen planus, and yellow nail syndrome. To confirm a fungal nail infection, nail clippings or scrapings of the affected nail should be examined under a microscope and cultured. However, the false-negative rate for cultures is around 30%, so repeat samples may be necessary if clinical suspicion is high.

      Asymptomatic fungal nail infections do not require treatment unless the patient is bothered by the appearance. Topical treatment with amorolfine 5% nail lacquer is recommended for limited involvement, while oral terbinafine is the first-line treatment for more extensive involvement due to a dermatophyte infection. Fingernail infections require 6 weeks to 3 months of therapy, while toenails should be treated for 3 to 6 months. Oral itraconazole is recommended for more extensive involvement due to a Candida infection, with pulsed weekly therapy being the preferred method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      38.1
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  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm - he cannot...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents with weakness of his right arm - he cannot move the arm at all.

      The weakness came on suddenly. He sees a neurologist but no neurological illness can be found. He is a soldier and has just returned from a tour of duty. He has no history of illness and has not missed a day off work for two years. The weakness has been present for nine days.

      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Todd's paralysis

      Correct Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of a Soldier with Paralysis

      The soldier in this case has a previously good sickness record but is now experiencing muscle paralysis. It is reasonable to assume that he has been exposed to considerable stress in the recent past. After seeing a neurologist, it can be concluded that there is no neurological disease present.

      This situation is indicative of a conversion disorder, which is a psychological condition where physical symptoms cannot be explained by medical examination. Muscle paralysis is a common symptom of this disorder, and the signs do not support the symptoms. In fact, tone may seem to be increased due to simultaneous flexor and extensor contraction.

      Given the soldier’s history and symptoms, it is unlikely that he is malingering. Instead, psychological factors are likely to be important in this case. Overall, the most likely diagnosis for this soldier is a conversion disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy....

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with newly diagnosed prostate cancer is undergoing androgen deprivation therapy. He has no other significant medical history and is not taking any other medications.

      How should his bone density be managed in light of this treatment?

      Your Answer: Formally assess his fracture risk to determine the need for further investigation and treatment for osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Managing Osteoporosis Risk in Men with Prostate Cancer

      Osteoporosis is a potential risk for men undergoing hormonal androgen deprivation therapy for prostate cancer. While bisphosphonates are not routinely recommended, assessing fracture risk can guide the need for investigation and treatment. Bisphosphonates may be offered to men with confirmed osteoporosis, while denosumab can be used if bisphosphonates are not an option. However, a confirmed diagnosis of osteoporosis is necessary before treatment can be prescribed. Lifestyle advice is important, but it is not a substitute for fracture risk assessment and further investigation, such as a DEXA scan, may be necessary. By managing osteoporosis risk, men with prostate cancer can reduce the likelihood of fractures and maintain their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      32.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Which one of the following entries on a birth certificate would never be...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following entries on a birth certificate would never be acceptable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1a: Cardiac arrest. 2: Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Cardiac arrest cannot be listed as the sole cause of death on a death certificate as it is a method of dying and requires further clarification.

      While the use of old age is discouraged, it may be listed on a death certificate for patients over the age of 80 if specific criteria are met (refer to the provided link).

      The only acceptable abbreviations for HIV and AIDS should be used on a death certificate.

      Death Certification in the UK

      There are no legal definitions of death in the UK, but guidelines exist to verify it. According to the current guidance, a doctor or other qualified personnel should verify death, and nurse practitioners may verify but not certify it. After a patient has died, a doctor needs to complete a medical certificate of cause of death (MCCD). However, there is a list of circumstances in which a doctor should notify the Coroner before completing the MCCD.

      When completing the MCCD, it is important to note that old age as 1a is only acceptable if the patient was at least 80 years old. Natural causes is not acceptable, and organ failure can only be used if the disease or condition that led to the organ failure is specified. Abbreviations should be avoided, except for HIV and AIDS.

      Once the MCCD is completed, the family takes it to the local Registrar of Births, Deaths, and Marriages office to register the death. If the Registrar decides that the death doesn’t need reporting to the Coroner, he/she will issue a certificate for Burial or Cremation and a certificate of Registration of Death for Social Security purposes. Copies of the Death Register are also available upon request, which banks and insurance companies expect to see. If the family wants the burial to be outside of England, an Out of England Order is needed from the coroner.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 7 - A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she thinks she...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to see you as she thinks she is experiencing a lot of pain in her mouth. Upon conducting a thorough assessment of the healthy child, you observe a swollen and tender upper gum with no other abnormalities and diagnose her with teething. What would be the most appropriate advice to give in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure and advice simple analgesia and cooling treatments

      Explanation:

      Teething is a natural process where baby teeth emerge through the gums, usually starting around 6 months of age. Symptoms are generally mild and include pain, increased biting, drooling, gum-rubbing/sucking, irritability, wakefulness, and possibly a slight increase in temperature. The recommended initial management is to provide reassurance and advise on self-care measures such as gentle gum rubbing and allowing the child to bite on a clean and cool object. Paracetamol or ibuprofen suspension can be given to infants 3 months or older. It is not recommended to use choline salicylate gels, topical anaesthetics, or complementary therapies like herbal teething powder. A further dental opinion is not necessary as teething is a normal process.

      Teething: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment Options

      Teething is the process of primary tooth eruption in infants, which typically begins around 6 months of age and is usually complete by 30 months of age. It is characterized by a subacute onset of symptoms, including gingival irritation, parent-reported irritability, and excessive drooling. These symptoms occur in approximately 70% of all children and are equally prevalent in boys and girls, although girls tend to develop their teeth sooner than boys.

      During examination, teeth can typically be felt below the surface of the gums prior to breaking through, and gingival erythema will be noted around the site of early tooth eruption. Treatment options include chewable teething rings and simple analgesia with paracetamol or ibuprofen. However, topical analgesics or numbing agents are not recommended, and oral choline salicylate gels should not be prescribed due to the risk of Reye’s syndrome.

      It is important to note that teething doesn’t cause systemic symptoms such as fevers or diarrhea, and these symptoms should be treated as warning signs of other systemic illness. Additionally, teething necklaces made from amber beads on a cord are a common naturopathic treatment for teething symptoms but represent a significant strangulation and choking hazard. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid their use.

      In conclusion, teething is a clinical diagnosis that can be managed with simple interventions. However, it is essential to be aware of potential hazards and to seek medical attention if systemic symptoms are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of left earache, vertigo and loss of taste. There is left-sided weakness of both the upper and the lower facial muscles. Facial sensation is normal. There is a vesicular rash on the eardrum, ear canal, earlobe, tongue and roof of the mouth (palate) on the same side as the weakness of the face.
      Select the single most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome and Other Facial Nerve Conditions

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve. This can lead to ear pain, hearing loss, vertigo, facial nerve paralysis, and even involvement of other cranial nerves. The presence of lymphocytes in the cerebrospinal fluid and vesicles on the skin of the ear canal or pinna may also be observed. However, it is important to note that this condition can also occur without a skin rash.

      Bell’s palsy, on the other hand, is the most common cause of unilateral facial nerve paralysis. It may also present with otalgia and pain behind the ear, but vesiculation is absent. Acute otitis media can also lead to facial paralysis, but this usually responds well to antibiotics and corticosteroids.

      Postherpetic neuralgia is a nerve pain that occurs after the herpes zoster vesicles have crusted over and begun to heal. However, the description provided doesn’t suggest that this stage has been reached. Trigeminal neuralgia, on the other hand, is characterised by recurrent episodes of facial pain following the sensory distribution of the trigeminal nerve, but without facial paralysis or rash.

      It is important to understand the differences between these conditions in order to properly diagnose and treat them. While some may share similar symptoms, the underlying causes and treatments can vary greatly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A mother brings her 3-week-old baby boy into the clinic for evaluation. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-week-old baby boy into the clinic for evaluation. She has observed a well-defined, lobulated, and bright red lesion appearing on his left cheek. The lesion was not present at birth but has now grown to 6 mm in diameter. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the mother that most lesions spontaneously regress

      Explanation:

      If the strawberry naevus on this baby is not causing any mechanical issues or bleeding, treatment is typically unnecessary.

      Strawberry naevi, also known as capillary haemangiomas, are not usually present at birth but can develop quickly within the first month of life. They appear as raised, red, and lobed tumours that commonly occur on the face, scalp, and back. These growths tend to increase in size until around 6-9 months before gradually disappearing over the next few years. However, in rare cases, they can obstruct the airway if they occur in the upper respiratory tract. Capillary haemangiomas are more common in white infants, particularly in females, premature infants, and those whose mothers have undergone chorionic villous sampling.

      Complications of strawberry naevi include obstruction of vision or airway, bleeding, ulceration, and thrombocytopaenia. Treatment may be necessary if there is visual field obstruction, and propranolol is now the preferred choice over systemic steroids. Topical beta-blockers such as timolol may also be used. Cavernous haemangioma is a type of deep capillary haemangioma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old man has rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
    What is the single correct statement about...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man has rheumatoid arthritis (RA).
      What is the single correct statement about his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C-reactive protein (CRP) is typically normal in non-infected patients with active disease

      Explanation:

      There are some inaccuracies in the given explanation about systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Firstly, C-reactive protein (CRP) is not a reliable indicator of disease activity in SLE, but it can help distinguish between a lupus flare and infection. Secondly, neutropenia is less common than lymphopenia in SLE. Thirdly, while SLE can lead to various pulmonary complications, severe pulmonary fibrosis is uncommon. Fourthly, rheumatoid factor can be positive in up to 40% of SLE patients. Lastly, the low-dose combined oral contraceptive pill is not contraindicated in SLE, but caution should be exercised in women with certain antibodies and alternative methods of contraception may be preferred.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 11 - A 59-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing. She follows a...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and difficulty breathing. She follows a lacto-vegetarian diet and takes ramipril and indapamide for high blood pressure. Upon examination, she appears pale and has glossitis, but no neurological symptoms. Her blood test results show a low hemoglobin level, low white blood cell count, low platelet count, high mean corpuscular volume, and the presence of oval macrocytes, hypersegmented neutrophils, and circulating megaloblasts. Her ferritin level is within normal range, but her serum folate and vitamin B12 levels are low. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pernicious anaemia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Vitamin B12 Deficiency and Pernicious Anaemia

      Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to megaloblastic anaemia, with pernicious anaemia being the most common cause due to impaired absorption of the vitamin. Other causes include coeliac disease, pancreatic disease, malabsorption, ileal resection, Crohn’s disease, chronic tropical sprue, HIV, and radiotherapy affecting the ileum. Folate and iron deficiency may also be present. Helicobacter pylori infection, gastrectomy, gastric resection, and atrophic gastritis can also cause B12 deficiency. A vegan diet may result in deficiency, but many vegan foods are now fortified with vitamins, including B12. Drug-induced deficiency can occur with colchicine, metformin, and long-term use of drugs affecting gastric acid production. This patient has no history or symptoms suggestive of these causes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 12 - A 22-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with profound tiredness and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with profound tiredness and a lack of appetite which have been present for about a week. He has just returned from a gap-year trip to Thailand and noticed he was jaundiced just before coming home. He also experienced a fever, but this subsided once his jaundice appeared. He has no sexual history, doesn't abuse intravenous (IV) drugs and did not receive a blood transfusion or get a tattoo or piercing during his trip.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 140 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 9.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 950 IU/l < 40 IU/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 150 IU/l 25–130 IU/l
      Bilirubin 240 µmol/l < 21 µmol/l
      Albumin 40 g/l 38–50 g/l
      Prothrombin time (PT) 12.0 s 12.0–14.8 s
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis A (Hep A)

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms and history, the most likely diagnosis is Hepatitis A. The initial fever, anorexia, and malaise followed by jaundice and elevated liver enzymes are typical of Hep A. A confirmation test for anti-Hep A immunoglobulin M can be done. Hep A is not common in the UK but is more prevalent in areas with poor sanitation, especially among travelers. Cytomegalovirus infection can also cause a mononucleosis-like syndrome with fever, splenomegaly, and mild liver enzyme increases, but rises in ALP and bilirubin are less common. Hep B and C are unlikely as there are no risk factors in the patient’s history. Leptospirosis, which is associated with exposure to rat-infected water and conjunctival suffusion, is less likely than Hep A.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 13 - A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of recurrent hallucinations. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of recurrent hallucinations. He reports seeing faces that are smaller than usual or other objects that are out of proportion. Although he acknowledges that these episodes are not real, they still cause him distress. The patient has a history of macular degeneration and experienced depression 15 years ago after his wife passed away. Upon neurological examination, no abnormalities are found. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Charles-Bonnet syndrome

      Explanation:

      Understanding Charles-Bonnet Syndrome

      Charles-Bonnet syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by complex hallucinations, usually visual or auditory, that occur in clear consciousness. These hallucinations persist or recur and are often experienced against a background of visual impairment, although this is not always the case. People with CBS typically retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances.

      Several factors can increase the risk of developing CBS, including advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. The condition affects both sexes equally and doesn’t appear to have any familial predisposition. Age-related macular degeneration is the most common ophthalmological condition associated with CBS, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Complex visual hallucinations are relatively common in people with severe visual impairment, occurring in 10-30% of cases. The prevalence of CBS in visually impaired individuals is estimated to be between 11 and 15%. Although some people find the hallucinations unpleasant or disturbing, CBS is typically a long-term condition, with 88% of people experiencing it for two years or more. Only 25% of people experience a resolution of their symptoms after nine years.

      In summary, CBS is a condition that can cause complex hallucinations in people with visual impairment. Although the hallucinations can be distressing, most people with CBS retain their insight and do not experience any other significant neuropsychiatric disturbances. The condition is relatively common in visually impaired individuals and tends to be a long-term condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman, who is a mature university student, has difficulty getting off to sleep and feels tired.
      Select from the list the single most useful piece of advice.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Take regular daytime exercise

      Explanation:

      Tips for Better Sleep: Understanding Sleep Hygiene

      Sleep hygiene refers to a set of general guidelines that can help individuals achieve better quality sleep. One of the key recommendations is to avoid daytime naps, as they can disrupt the body’s natural sleep-wake cycle. Establishing a regular morning routine is also important, which involves waking up at the same time every day, even if an alarm clock is needed. To avoid constantly checking the time during periods of wakefulness, it may be helpful to place the clock under the bed.

      Going to bed when feeling sleepy, rather than at a fixed time, is another important aspect of sleep hygiene. It’s also advisable to avoid mentally or physically demanding activities, such as studying, within 90 minutes of bedtime. Engaging in daytime exercise has been shown to improve sleep quality, reduce the time it takes to fall asleep, and increase the amount of time spent asleep.

      Overall, sleep hygiene encompasses various aspects of sleep control, including homeostatic, adaptive, and circadian factors. It also provides guidance on how to avoid sleep deprivation and how to respond to unwanted awakenings during the night. By following these tips, individuals can improve their sleep habits and enjoy better overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old man has been feeling sick for 48 hours with a fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man has been feeling sick for 48 hours with a fever and headache. He is a frequent smoker. He woke up that morning to discover an itchy vesicular rash mostly on his face and trunk.
      What is the most suitable course of action for his management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Chickenpox

      Chickenpox is a common viral illness that can be treated with aciclovir if caught early. Most doctors would prescribe this medication to patients over the age of 12 within the first 24 hours of the rash appearing. Aciclovir can help reduce the severity of the illness, but it is ineffective if started later. The recommended dose is 800 mg taken five times daily for seven days.

      Children usually have milder symptoms and only require symptomatic treatment. However, non-immune pregnant women who come into contact with Chickenpox may be given varicella zoster immunoglobulin to reduce the severity of the illness. If a rash develops after 20 weeks of pregnancy, aciclovir may be given. It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you or someone you know has Chickenpox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old woman presents with painless pitting oedema of the right lower leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman presents with painless pitting oedema of the right lower leg. It has been present for 2 months. She has noticed some abdominal bloating and has lost a little weight. There is no calf tenderness, or erythema. She has well-controlled hypertension and takes amlodipine and bendroflumethiazide.
      Select from the list the single most appropriate action.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic examination

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Causes of Leg Swelling: Importance of History and Examination

      Leg swelling can be caused by a variety of factors, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for effective treatment. Bilateral swelling is often linked to systemic conditions, while unilateral swelling is more commonly due to local causes. In cases of unilateral swelling, a pelvic mass should be considered as a potential cause. While a recent deep vein thrombosis is unlikely in this patient, a careful history and examination, along with appropriate tests, are necessary to determine the underlying cause. Symptomatic treatments should not be used without a definitive diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 17 - A 55-year-old woman is brought to the GP by her worried daughter. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is brought to the GP by her worried daughter. The patient has a history of mental health problems and rarely leaves her house, but is still able to perform daily activities independently.

      The daughter is concerned as her mother has been complaining of increased bone and joint pain, particularly in her spine and legs, along with a general feeling of weakness over the past few months. Upon examination, the patient exhibits tenderness in her long bones, weakness in her proximal muscles, and difficulty walking with a waddling gait.

      What is the most probable diagnosis based on the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of bone pain, tenderness, and proximal myopathy suggest a diagnosis of osteomalacia. This condition is often caused by a lack of sunlight and subsequent vitamin D deficiency, leading to decreased bone mineralization and softening of the bones. Unlike other bone pathologies, osteomalacia can cause joint and bone pain as well as muscle weakness, particularly in the form of proximal myopathy and a waddling gait.

      Osteopenia is characterized by low bone density and typically precedes osteoporosis. While patients with osteopenia are at risk of bone fractures, the condition itself doesn’t usually cause symptoms such as pain or weakness.

      Osteoporosis is a more severe form of reduced bone mass and also increases the risk of bone fractures. However, like osteopenia, it doesn’t typically cause joint pain, weakness, or a waddling gait.

      Paget’s disease is caused by abnormal bone remodeling, resulting in excessive bone breakdown and disorganized new bone formation. While bone pain can occur, most patients are asymptomatic. The most common features of Paget’s disease include skull frontal bossing, headaches, and hearing loss due to narrowing of the auditory foramen. Joint pain, weakness, and a waddling gait are not typically associated with Paget’s disease.

      Understanding Osteomalacia: Causes, Features, Investigation, and Treatment

      Osteomalacia is a condition characterized by the softening of bones due to low levels of vitamin D, which leads to a decrease in bone mineral content. While rickets is the term used for this condition in growing children, osteomalacia is the preferred term for adults. The causes of osteomalacia include vitamin D deficiency, malabsorption, lack of sunlight, diet, chronic kidney disease, drug-induced factors, inherited factors, liver disease, and coeliac disease.

      The features of osteomalacia include bone pain, bone/muscle tenderness, fractures (especially femoral neck), proximal myopathy, and a waddling gait. To investigate this condition, blood tests are conducted to check for low vitamin D levels, low calcium and phosphate levels (in around 30% of patients), and raised alkaline phosphatase (in 95-100% of patients). X-rays may also show translucent bands known as Looser’s zones or pseudofractures.

      The treatment for osteomalacia involves vitamin D supplementation, with a loading dose often needed initially. Calcium supplementation may also be necessary if dietary calcium is inadequate. By understanding the causes, features, investigation, and treatment of osteomalacia, individuals can take steps to prevent and manage this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 18 - In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting...

    Incorrect

    • In a nursing home, an outbreak of diarrhoea and vomiting has occurred, starting with residents and quickly spreading to staff. Which organism is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Norovirus Gastroenteritis: Symptoms, Incubation Period, and Prevention

      Norovirus gastroenteritis, commonly known as winter vomiting disease, is a highly contagious illness that often occurs during the winter season. However, outbreaks can happen anytime and in various settings, including hospitals, nursing homes, schools, military establishments, and cruise ships. The incubation period ranges from 12 to 48 hours, with symptoms such as fever, nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, and abdominal pain. The disease is self-limiting and usually lasts between 12 and 60 hours. While it poses a risk to frail or immunocompromised individuals, strict hygiene measures can prevent the spread of the virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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  • Question 19 - A circumstance in which a subject in a research project alters their behavior...

    Incorrect

    • A circumstance in which a subject in a research project alters their behavior due to the awareness of being monitored is referred to as what?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hawthorne effect

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bias in Clinical Trials

      Bias refers to the systematic favoring of one outcome over another in a clinical trial. There are various types of bias, including selection bias, recall bias, publication bias, work-up bias, expectation bias, Hawthorne effect, late-look bias, procedure bias, and lead-time bias. Selection bias occurs when individuals are assigned to groups in a way that may influence the outcome. Sampling bias, volunteer bias, and non-responder bias are subtypes of selection bias. Recall bias refers to the difference in accuracy of recollections retrieved by study participants, which may be influenced by whether they have a disorder or not. Publication bias occurs when valid studies are not published, often because they showed negative or uninteresting results. Work-up bias is an issue in studies comparing new diagnostic tests with gold standard tests, where clinicians may be reluctant to order the gold standard test unless the new test is positive. Expectation bias occurs when observers subconsciously measure or report data in a way that favors the expected study outcome. The Hawthorne effect describes a group changing its behavior due to the knowledge that it is being studied. Late-look bias occurs when information is gathered at an inappropriate time, and procedure bias occurs when subjects in different groups receive different treatment. Finally, lead-time bias occurs when two tests for a disease are compared, and the new test diagnosis the disease earlier, but there is no effect on the outcome of the disease. Understanding these types of bias is crucial in designing and interpreting clinical trials.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 20 - A 6 week-old infant is presented to your clinic as the mother has...

    Incorrect

    • A 6 week-old infant is presented to your clinic as the mother has observed a white spot in the baby's mouth. Upon examination, a small white papule of around 1 mm size is visible on the lower gum. The baby is being breastfed and feeding without any issues. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Epstein's pearl

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epstein’s Pearl

      Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums. Parents may mistake it for a tooth that is about to erupt. However, there is no need for concern as it tends to resolve on its own within a few weeks. Treatment is not usually required.

      In summary, Epstein’s pearl is a harmless cyst that is commonly found in the mouth of newborns. It is important for parents to be aware of its presence and not mistake it for a dental issue. With time, it will naturally disappear without any intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 21 - A woman is worried about her risk of breast cancer. When should she...

    Incorrect

    • A woman is worried about her risk of breast cancer. When should she be referred to the local breast services?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A woman whose father has been diagnosed with breast cancer aged 56 years

      Explanation:

      Breast Cancer Screening and Familial Risk Factors

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme, with mammograms offered every three years. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually. Women over 70 years may still have mammograms but are encouraged to make their own appointments.

      For those with familial risk factors, NICE guidelines recommend referral to a breast clinic for further assessment. Those with one first-degree or second-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer do not need referral unless certain factors are present in the family history, such as early age of diagnosis, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, or complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age. Women with an increased risk of breast cancer due to family history may be offered screening from a younger age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology And Breast
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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease becomes more breathless...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease becomes more breathless and looks anaemic.
      Test Result Normal Value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 130-170 g/l
      Reticulocyte count 0.85% 0.5%-1.5%
      Mean cell volume (MCV) 120.6 fl 82-102 fl
      Vitamin B12 90.0 ng/l 130-700 ng/l
      Intrinsic factor antibodies Positive
      He is commenced on injections of hydroxocobalamin with blood tests to be repeated in seven days.
      What is the most likely change at 1 week which would suggest that the patient is responding to treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A rise in the reticulocyte count

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Response to Vitamin B12 Treatment in Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition caused by vitamin B12 deficiency, which can lead to a range of symptoms including fatigue, weakness, and neurological problems. Treatment involves intramuscular injections of hydroxocobalamin, with the frequency and duration of treatment depending on the severity of the deficiency.

      To monitor the response to treatment, several indicators can be measured. A rise in the reticulocyte count and haemoglobin level within 7-10 days indicates a positive effect. The mean cell volume (MCV) may initially increase due to the increased reticulocyte count, but should return to normal within 25-78 days. Intrinsic factor antibodies may remain present despite treatment. Measuring cobalamin levels is not always necessary, but can be done 1-2 months after starting treatment if there is no response.

      Overall, monitoring these indicators can help confirm a diagnosis of pernicious anaemia and ensure that treatment is effective in addressing the deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 23 - In the newborn period, what condition necessitates surgical intervention? ...

    Incorrect

    • In the newborn period, what condition necessitates surgical intervention?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hirschsprung's disease

      Explanation:

      Conditions That Necessitate Surgical Intervention

      1. Hirschsprung’s Disease:
        • Description: Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital condition characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in a segment of the colon, leading to bowel obstruction due to a lack of peristalsis in the affected area.
        • Surgical Intervention: Surgery is required to remove the aganglionic segment of the colon. This is typically done through a procedure called a pull-through surgery, where the diseased segment is removed, and the healthy bowel is connected to the anus.

      Conditions That May or May Not Require Surgical Intervention

      1. Tongue Tie (Ankyloglossia):
        • Description: Tongue tie occurs when the lingual frenulum (the band of tissue under the tongue) is too short or tight, restricting tongue movement.
        • Surgical Intervention: A frenotomy or frenuloplasty may be performed if the tongue tie significantly affects breastfeeding, speech, or oral hygiene. However, not all cases require surgery, and some may resolve as the child grows.

      Conditions That Typically Do Not Require Surgical Intervention in Newborns

      1. Umbilical Hernia:
        • Description: An umbilical hernia is a protrusion of the intestine or other tissue through a weakness in the abdominal muscles near the belly button.
        • Management: Most umbilical hernias in newborns close spontaneously by the age of 1-3 years. Surgery is usually only considered if the hernia persists beyond this age or if complications arise (e.g., incarceration or strangulation).
      2. Non-retractile Prepuce (Phimosis):
        • Description: Non-retractile prepuce is common in newborns and infants, where the foreskin cannot be retracted over the glans penis.
        • Management: This is typically physiological and resolves naturally as the child grows. Surgery, such as circumcision, is generally only considered if there are recurrent urinary tract infections or other complications.
      3. Capillary Haemangioma (Infantile Hemangioma):
        • Description: Capillary hemangiomas are benign vascular tumors that appear as red or purple skin lesions in newborns.
        • Management: Most infantile hemangiomas do not require surgical intervention and tend to regress spontaneously over time. Surgery or other treatments may be considered if the hemangioma causes complications, such as obstruction of vision or airway, ulceration, or bleeding.

      Summary

      • Surgical intervention is necessary for Hirschsprung’s disease in the newborn period.
      • Tongue tie may require surgery if it affects feeding or speech, but many cases do not.
      • Umbilical hernia, non-retractile prepuce, and capillary hemangioma generally do not require immediate surgical intervention in newborns unless complications occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 24 - A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old lady presents to your clinic with a complaint of occasional urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She denies any dysuria or haematuria and reports no gastrointestinal symptoms. Upon examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and urinalysis is unremarkable. She reports drinking 7 glasses of water daily and abstaining from caffeinated beverages. Her BMI is 23.5, and she is a non-smoker. You decide to refer her to a physiotherapist for pelvic floor exercises. How long should she continue these exercises before seeing a benefit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 3 months

      Explanation:

      Referral for Pelvic Floor Exercises

      Referral for supervised pelvic floor exercises is recommended for women who experience urinary stress incontinence after making lifestyle changes. This referral can be made to a continence advisor, specialist nurse, or physiotherapist. The program is tailored to the individual’s needs and lasts for at least three months, with the option to continue if benefits are observed. Patients are advised to perform a minimum of eight pelvic floor muscle contractions three times a day.

      It is important to be aware of the evidence-based approach to inform patients of what they may expect in secondary care. For more information on pelvic floor exercises, visit pogp.csp.org.uk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 25 - What are the reasons for performing circumcision in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the reasons for performing circumcision in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phimosis

      Explanation:

      Indications for Paediatric Circumcision

      Paediatric circumcision is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the foreskin covering the head of the penis. While it is not a routine procedure, there are certain indications that may require it.

      The most common indication for paediatric circumcision is pathological phimosis, which is scarring of the foreskin opening that makes it non-retractable. However, this condition is rare before the age of 5 years. It is important to note that a non-retractile prepuce without inflammation is a normal variant in the first few years of life.

      Recurrent episodes of infection beneath the foreskin, known as balanoposthitis, may also be an indication for circumcision. This condition can be troublesome and may require surgical intervention to prevent further complications.

      In rare cases, paediatric circumcisions may be required for other conditions. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine if circumcision is necessary for your child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 26 - You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a...

    Incorrect

    • You see a woman who is 29 weeks pregnant. She presents with a rash that came on about two weeks ago.

      She tells you that it started with some 'itchy red lumps around the belly-button' and has progressed. She has an itchy blistering rash that is most prominent around her umbilicus, but over the last few days has spread to the surrounding trunk, back and proximal limbs.

      You note a few tense, fluid-filled blisters. The rash appears slightly raised and plaque-like. Her head, face, hands and feet are spared; her mouth and mucous membranes are also unaffected. She is systemically well.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions in Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are specific dermatological conditions that should be considered when assessing a skin complaint. However, it is important to note that pregnancy doesn’t exclude the usual causes of rashes, and infectious causes must also be considered as they may pose a risk to the developing fetus.

      One such condition is pemphigoid gestationis (PG), an autoimmune blistering condition that causes fluid-filled blisters on an itchy rash, typically starting around the umbilicus. Topical steroids and oral antihistamines are used for milder cases, while oral steroids may be necessary for more severe disease.

      Cholestasis of pregnancy causes generalised pruritus, particularly affecting the palms and soles, and is typically seen in the latter half of pregnancy. Symptoms resolve after delivery, but recurrence occurs in up to 40% of pregnancies. Abnormal liver function tests are also seen.

      Parvovirus, although uncommon in pregnancy, can cause serious fetal complications, including hydrops, growth retardation, anaemia, and hepatomegaly. It typically causes a slapped cheek rash followed by a lace-pattern rash on the limbs and trunk. Approximately 1 in 10 of those affected in the first half of pregnancy will miscarry, and in the remainder, there is a 1% risk of congenital abnormality.

      Polymorphic eruption of pregnancy, also known as pruritic urticarial papules and plaques of pregnancy (PUPPP), is characterised by an itchy rash of pink papules that occurs in the stretch marks of the abdomen in the third trimester. It clears with delivery and is thought to be related to an allergy to the stretch marks.

      Varicella can cause a vesicular rash, but the description of tense blisters in combination with the rash distribution and other features are typical of PG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 27 - Which of the following is the least probable cause of haemolysis in a...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the least probable cause of haemolysis in a patient with G6PD deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Penicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding G6PD Deficiency

      G6PD deficiency is a common red blood cell enzyme defect that is inherited in an X-linked recessive fashion and is more prevalent in people from the Mediterranean and Africa. The deficiency can be triggered by many drugs, infections, and broad (fava) beans, leading to a crisis. G6PD is the first step in the pentose phosphate pathway, which converts glucose-6-phosphate to 6-phosphogluconolactone and results in the production of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH). NADPH is essential for converting oxidized glutathione back to its reduced form, which protects red blood cells from oxidative damage by oxidants such as superoxide anion (O2-) and hydrogen peroxide. Reduced G6PD activity leads to decreased reduced glutathione and increased red cell susceptibility to oxidative stress, resulting in neonatal jaundice, intravascular hemolysis, gallstones, splenomegaly, and the presence of Heinz bodies on blood films. Diagnosis is made by using a G6PD enzyme assay, and some drugs are known to cause hemolysis, while others are considered safe.

      Compared to hereditary spherocytosis, G6PD deficiency is more common in males of African and Mediterranean descent and is characterized by neonatal jaundice, infection/drug-induced hemolysis, and gallstones. On the other hand, hereditary spherocytosis affects both males and females of Northern European descent and is associated with chronic symptoms, spherocytes on blood films, and the presence of erythrocyte membrane protein band 4.2 (EMA) binding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 28 - When is it suitable to give a pertussis vaccine? ...

    Incorrect

    • When is it suitable to give a pertussis vaccine?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To a child who is HIV positive

      Explanation:

      Reasons to Withhold Vaccination

      Vaccination is an important aspect of healthcare, but there are certain situations where it may be necessary to withhold it. For example, pertussis immunisation should not be given to individuals with a history of prolonged seizures and encephalopathy within seven days of the first vaccine. However, a history of convulsions or a family history of epilepsy doesn’t warrant withholding immunisation. It is important to seek specialist opinion if an individual has an evolving neurological condition or poorly controlled epilepsy.

      In general, any vaccination should be postponed if an individual is suffering from a significant acute illness with fever or systemic upset. However, HIV-infected infants should still receive all appropriate killed vaccines according to the usual schedule. They should also receive polio, measles, mumps, and rubella vaccines, as the risk of these infections outweighs the risks of immunisation. The inactivated polio vaccine may be preferable in this case.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these reasons to withhold vaccination to avoid unnecessary missed opportunities for vaccination and to ensure the safety and effectiveness of immunisation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 29 - A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue after...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with complaints of fatigue after experiencing a bout of gastroenteritis last week. She reports no other symptoms and no longer has diarrhea or vomiting. Upon examination, her blood pressure is normal at 128/72 mmHg and her pulse is 92 beats per minute. The following investigations are conducted:
      Haemoglobin (Hb) - 129 g/l (normal range: 115-155 g/l)
      Sodium (Na+) - 143 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+) - 5.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine (Cr) - 80 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
      Urea - 9.8 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mild dehydration

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Mild Dehydration

      A patient presents with a slightly raised urea level and normal creatinine (Cr) level, along with mild fatigue. The most likely diagnosis is mild dehydration, which could be caused by gastroenteritis. No further treatment may be necessary, but the patient should ensure adequate nutrition and hydration in the next few days/weeks.

      Other possible diagnoses include acute gastrointestinal bleeding, acute kidney injury, chronic kidney disease, and malnutrition due to gastroenteritis. However, the patient’s normal hemoglobin level makes acute GI bleeding unlikely, while the absence of an elevated Cr level rules out acute kidney injury and CKD. Malnutrition is also unlikely given the short duration of gastroenteritis symptoms and lack of other indications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 30 - As per the latest NICE guidelines on depression, which of the following interventions...

    Incorrect

    • As per the latest NICE guidelines on depression, which of the following interventions is not advised for individuals with subthreshold depressive symptoms or mild depression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Behavioural couples therapy

      Explanation:

      NICE’s recommendation for behavioural couples therapy is limited to patients with moderate or severe depression.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Depression

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for managing depression in 2022. The new guidelines classify depression severity as less severe and more severe based on a PHQ-9 score of <16 and ≥16, respectively. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and least resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient's preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), group behavioral activation (BA), individual CBT, individual BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT), selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy (STPP). For more severe depression, a shared decision should be made between the patient and healthcare provider. Treatment options for more severe depression include a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant, individual CBT, individual BA, antidepressant medication (SSRI, SNRI, or another antidepressant if indicated based on previous clinical and treatment history), individual problem-solving, counseling, STPP, IPT, guided self-help, and group exercise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Population Health (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (0/1) 0%
Passmed