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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old man is receiving chemotherapy for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which of the following chemotherapy regimens would be used in this case?
Your Answer: BEP
Correct Answer: CHOP
Explanation:CHOP is the acronym for a chemotherapy regimen used in the treatment of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, comprising cyclophosphamide, hydroxyrubicin (adriamycin), vincristine and prednisone. This regimen can also be combined with the monoclonal antibody rituximab if the lymphoma is of B cell origin; this combination is called R-CHOP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 2
Correct
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During uterogrowth, the second branchial arch gives rise to which structures?
Your Answer: Stylohyoid muscle
Explanation:The second pharyngeal arch or hyoid arch, is the second of six pharyngeal arches that develops in fetal life during the fourth week of development and assists in forming the side and front of the neck. Derivatives:
Skeletal – From the cartilage of the second arch arises:
Stapes,
Temporal styloid process,
Stylohyoid ligament, and
Lesser cornu of the hyoid bone.
Muscles:
Muscles of face
Occipitofrontalis muscle
Platysma
Stylohyoid muscle
Posterior belly of Digastric
Stapedius muscle
Auricular muscles
Nerve supply: Facial nerve -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following is a true statement regarding secretion of gastric acid?
Your Answer: Acetylcholine increases gastric acid secretion
Explanation:Gastric acid secretion is increased by acetylcholine, histamine and gastrin, with the help of cAMP as a secondary messenger. They increase H+ and Cl- secretion by increasing the number of H+/K+ ATPase molecules and Cl- channels. In contrast, gastric acid secretion is decreased by somatostatin, epidermal growth factor and prostaglandins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 4
Correct
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Following a bee sting, a women develops a 2cm red, raised, swollen lesion at the site of the sting . Which of the following findings is likely to be seen in this lesion?
Your Answer: Vasodilation
Explanation:Inflammation is the immediate response of the body towards infections or irritations. The cardinal signs of inflammation are 1. redness/rubor, 2. tumour/swelling, 3.dolar/pain, 4.calor/heat and organ dysfunction (function laesa). Inflammation has 2 components; vascular and cellular. Blood vessels dilate upstream of the inflamed area leading to the rubor and calor and constrict downstream, increasing pressure and causing fluid to leak out of the capillary, resulting in swelling. The cellular component includes infiltration by neutrophils. Leukocyte arrival and functions include; 1. margination: cells marginated from the centre to the periphery of the vessel, 2. rolling: selectins are upregulated on the vessel walls, 3. adhesion: upregulation of the adhesion molecules ICAM and VCAM on the endothelium interact with integrins on the leukocytes resulting in adhesion, 4. diapedesis and chemotaxis: diapedesis is the transmigration of the leukocyte across the endothelium of the capillary and towards a chemotactic product and 5. phagocytosis: engulfing the offending substance/cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 45-year-old male who has a long term history of alcohol misuse is admitted with a history of an attack of vomiting after an episode of binge drinking. After vomiting, he developed sudden onset left-sided chest pain, which is pleuritic in nature. On examination, he is profoundly septic and drowsy with severe epigastric tenderness and left sided chest pain. What is the most likely cause?
Your Answer: Boerhaaves syndrome
Explanation:Boerhaave’s syndrome is also known as spontaneous oesophageal rupture or effort rupture of the oesophagus. Although vomiting is thought to be the most common cause, other causes include weightlifting, defecation, epileptic seizures, abdominal trauma, compressed air injury, and childbirth, all of which can increase the pressure in the oesophagus and cause a barogenic oesophageal rupture.
It usually follows excessive alcohol intake or overeating, or both, because either of these can induce vomiting.
The rupture is transmural.
A provider should suspect Boerhaave’s syndrome when a patient presents with retrosternal chest pain with or without subcutaneous emphysema when associated with heavy alcohol intake and severe or repeated vomiting. Up to one-third of patients do not present with these symptoms. The actual clinical presentation of Boerhaave syndrome will depend on the level of the perforation, the degree of leakage, and the time since the onset of the injury. Typically, the patient will present with pain at the site of perforation, usually in the neck, chest, epigastric region, or upper abdomen. Cervical perforations can present with neck pain, dysphagia, or dysphonia; intra-thoracic perforations with chest pain; and intra-abdominal perforations with epigastric pain radiating to the shoulder or back. History of increased intra-oesophageal pressure for any reason followed by chest pain should prompt consideration of this condition. Physical exam findings may include abnormal vitals (tachycardia, tachypnoea, fever), decreased breath sounds on the perforated side, mediastinal emphysema, and Hamman’s sign (mediastinal “crackling” accompanying every heartbeat) in left lateral decubitus position. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30 year old waiter is stabbed in the right upper quadrant during a fight at the restaurant and is haemodynamically unstable. He is rushed to the hospital where a laparotomy is performed and the liver has some extensive superficial lacerations and is bleeding profusely. He becomes progressively more haemodynamically unstable. What is the best management option?
Your Answer: Occlude the hepatic inflow with a pringles manoeuvre and suture the defects
Correct Answer: Pack the liver and close the abdomen
Explanation:Perihepatic packing is a surgical procedure used in connection with surgery to the liver. In this procedure the liver is packed to stop non arterial bleeding, most often caused by liver injury.
During this surgery laparotomy pads are placed around the site of the bleeding. The main purpose of hepatic packing is to prevent the person from succumbing to the trauma triad of death. Under- or over-packing of the liver can cause adverse outcomes, and if the bleeding cannot be controlled through this surgical method, the Pringle manoeuvre is an alternate technique that can be utilized.
Rebleeding, constant decline of haemoglobin and increased transfusion requirement, as well as the failure of angioembolization of actively bleeding vessels are a few factors which indicate the need for laparotomy.
The operative approach has also evolved over the last two decades. Direct suture ligation of the parenchymal bleeding vessel, perihepatic packing, repair of venous injury under total vascular isolation and damage control surgery with utilization of preoperative and/or postoperative angioembolization are the preferred methods, compared to anatomical resection of the liver and use of the atriocaval shunt.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 7
Correct
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Which organ is most vulnerable to haemorrhagic shock?
Your Answer: Kidneys
Explanation:At rest, the brain receives 15% cardiac output, muscles 15%, gastrointestinal tract 30% and kidneys receive 20%. However, if normalised by weight, the largest specific blood flow is received by the kidneys at rest (400 ml/min x 100g), making them highly vulnerable in the case of a haemorrhagic shock.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 8
Correct
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Investigations in a 40-year old gentleman with splenomegaly reveal the following: haemoglobin 21.5 g/dl, haematocrit 66%, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 86 fl, mean cell haemoglobin concentration 34 g/dl, mean corpuscular haemoglobin 34.5 pg, platelet count 450 × 109/l, and white blood cell count 12 × 109/l, with 81% polymorphonuclear leukocytes, 4% bands, 3% monocytes, and 7% lymphocytes. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycythaemia vera
Explanation:The markedly increased haematocrit, along with thrombocytosis and the leucocytosis suggest a myeloproliferative disorder.
Polycythaemia vera is the commonest myeloproliferative disorders occurring more often in males (about 1.4 to 1). The mean age at diagnosis is 60 years (range 15–90 years) with 5% of patients below 40 years at onset. It involves increased production of all cell lines, including red blood cells (independent of erythropoietin), white blood cells and platelets. If confined only to red blood cells, it is known as ‘primary erythrocytosis’. There is an increase in blood volume and hyperviscosity occurs, predisposing to thrombosis. Increased bleeding occurs due to abnormal functioning of platelets. Patients become hypermetabolic, and increased cell turnover leads to hyperuricaemia.
Usually asymptomatic, occasionally symptoms include weakness, pruritus, headache, light-headedness, visual disturbances, fatigue and dyspnoea. Face appears red with engorged retinal veins. Lower extremities appear red and painful, along with digital ischaemia (erythromelalgia). Hepatomegaly is common and massive splenomegaly is seen in 75% patients. Thrombosis can lead to stroke, deep venous thrombosis, myocardial infarction, retinal artery or vein occlusion, splenic infarction (often with a friction rub) or Budd–Chiari syndrome. Gastrointestinal bleeding is seen in 10-20% patients. Hypermetabolism can lead to low-grade fevers and weight loss. Late features include complications of hyperuricaemia (e.g. gout, renal calculi). 1.5% to 10% cases transform to acute leukaemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Skin infiltration by neoplastic T lymphocytes is seen in:
Your Answer: Burkitt’s lymphoma
Correct Answer: Mycosis fungoides
Explanation:Mycosis fungoides is a chronic T-cell lymphoma that involves the skin and less commonly, the internal organs such as nodes, liver, spleen and lungs. It is usually diagnosed in patients above 50 years and the average life expectancy is 7-10 years. It is insidious in onset and presents as a chronic, itchy rash, eventually spreading to involve most of the skin. Lesions are commonly plaque-like, but can be nodular or ulcerated. Symptoms include fever, night sweats and weight loss. Skin biopsy is diagnostic. However, early cases may pose a challenge due to fewer lymphoma cells. The malignant cells are mature T cells (T4+, T11+, T12+). The epidermis shows presence of characteristic Pautrier’s micro abscesses are present in the epidermis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman has chronic low serum calcium levels. Which of the following conditions may be responsible for the hypocalcaemia in this patient?
Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Chronic hypocalcaemia is mostly seen in patients with hypoparathyroidism as a result of accidental removal or damage to parathyroid glands during thyroidectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year old gentleman was recently diagnosed with hypertension, with no other abnormality on physical examination. Further investigations revealed the following : Na+ 144 mmol/l, K+ 3.0 mmol/l, Cl- 107 mmol/l, Bicarbonate 25 mmol/l. Blood glucose 5.8 mmol/l. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Correct Answer: Conn syndrome
Explanation:Overproduction of aldosterone (a mineralocorticoid) by the adrenal glands is known as Conn’s syndrome. It can be either due to an aldosterone-secreting adrenal adenoma (50-60% cases) or adrenal gland hyperplasia (40-50% cases). Excess aldosterone leads to sodium and water retention, along with potassium excretion. This leads to arterial (non-essential) hypertension. Conn’s syndrome is the commonest cause of primary hyperaldosteronism. Other symptoms include muscle cramps, headache (due to hypokalaemia) and metabolic alkalosis, which occurs due to increased secretion of H+ ions by the kidney. The raised pH of the blood traps calcium leading to symptoms of hypocalcaemia, which can be mimicked by liquorice ingestion and Liddle syndrome. To diagnose Conn’s syndrome, the ratio of renin and aldosterone is measured. Due to suppression of renin secretion, there is low renin to aldosterone ratio (<0.05). However, anti-hypertensives may affect the test results and should be withdrawn for 6 weeks. Computed tomography can also be done to detect the presence of adrenal adenoma.
Cushing’s syndrome does not cause hypokalaemia with normal serum glucose levels. Nelson’s syndrome refers to increased ACTH secretion due to pituitary adenoma. Pheochromocytoma will not lead to hypokalaemia even though hypertension can be seen. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 12
Correct
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Urine specific gravity allows the assessment of which of the following renal functions?
Your Answer: Concentration
Explanation:Concentrating ability of kidneys is assessed by measuring the urine specific gravity. Normal values of urine specific gravity fall between 1.002 and 1.030 g/ml.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An alcoholic patient was found to have hypomagnesaemia on blood tests. Which of the following clinical features will have prompted the doctor to check the serum magnesium level in this patient?
Your Answer: Bradycardia
Correct Answer: Seizures
Explanation:Hypomagnesaemia is a condition characterised by a low level of magnesium in the blood. The normal range for serum magnesium level is 0.75-1.05 mmol/l. In hypomagnesaemia serum levels of magnesium are less than 0.75 mmol/l. The cardiovascular and nervous systems are the most commonly affected. Neuromuscular manifestations include symptoms like tremor, tetany, weakness, apathy, delirium, a positive Chvostek and Trousseau sign, nystagmus and seizures. Cardiovascular manifestations include electrocardiographic abnormalities and arrhythmias e.g. ventricular fibrillation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 14
Correct
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The transverse colon has two curvatures known as the colic flexures on each side of its lateral ends, the right and left. The left colic flexure found on the side of the descending colon is attached to an organ superiorly by a mesenteric ligament. Which organ is this?
Your Answer: Spleen
Explanation:The left colic flexure is the bend of the transverse colon as it continues to form the descending colon on the left upper quadrant. The spleen is located on the superior aspect of the left colic flexure. It is commonly referred to as the splenic flexure because of its relation o the spleen superiorly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 15
Correct
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A 15 year old girl presented to the emergency with a history of chronic cough, fever and weight loss. Her chest X-ray showed multiple nodules 1-4 cm in size and some of them with cavitation especially in the upper lobe. A sputum sample was positive for acid fast bacilli. Which of the following cells played a part in the development of the lung lesions?
Your Answer: Macrophage
Explanation:The characteristic cells in granulomatous inflammation are giant cells, formed from merging macrophages and epithelioid cells elongated with granular eosinophilic cytoplasm. Granulomatous reactions are seen in patients with tuberculosis. A tuberculous/caseating granuloma is characterised by a zone of central necrosis lined with giant multinucleated giant cells (Langhans cells) and surrounded by epithelioid cells, lymphocytes and fibroblasts. The caseous zone is present due to the damaged and dead giant cells and epithelioid cells.
Mast cells are only few in number and fibroblasts lay down collagen.
Basophils are not present.
The giant cell made up of macrophages are the most abundant cells in this inflammatory process. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 66 year old woman undergoes an emergency hip hemiarthroplasty. The procedure is complicated by a fracture of the femoral shaft following the insertion of the prosthesis. She is seen postoperatively to be unsteady on her feet and she is depressed. She remains bedbound for 2 weeks and is slow to progress despite adequate physiotherapy. Which of the following physiological changes is not seen after prolonged immobilization?
Your Answer: Eventual loss of potassium
Correct Answer: Bradycardia
Explanation:Answer: Bradycardia
Prolonged bed rest and immobilization inevitably lead to complications. Such complications are much easier to prevent than to treat. Musculoskeletal complications include loss of muscle strength and endurance, contractures and soft tissue changes, disuse osteoporosis, and degenerative joint disease. Cardiovascular complications include an increased heart rate (tachycardia), decreased cardiac reserve, orthostatic hypotension, and venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 17
Correct
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A 26-year-old male presents with intermittent dysphagia to both liquids and solids. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Oesophageal manometry
Explanation:Oesophageal dysphagia occurs when there is a difficulty with the passage of solid or liquid material through the oesophagus, specifically the region between the upper and lower oesophageal sphincter. It results from either abnormal motility of this segment of the oesophagus or obstruction.
Common causes of dysphagia:
Gastro-oesophageal reflux—waterbrash, regurgitation, due to dysmotility or stricture
Achalasia—classically hold-up relieved by carbonated beverages
Motility disorders—may be associated with central chest pain, systemic disease (scleroderma, dermatomyositis)
Oesophageal cancer—progressive, weight loss
Head and neck cancer—pain, dysphagia, otalgia, >90% smokers, often excess alcohol consumption
Pharyngeal pouch—slowly progressive, regurgitation, gurgling
Web—able to swallow only small amounts, “can’t swallow tablets”
Stroke
Neurodegenerative disorders—parkinsonism, motor neurone disease, multiple sclerosis, myasthenia gravis
PresbyphagiaEndoscopy has the advantage of potentially yielding a histological diagnosis. The overall rate of oesophageal perforation after flexible endoscopy involving oesophageal instrumentation, biopsy, or dilatation is 2.6%
Oesophageal manometry remains the investigation of choice in suspected motility disorders. Manometry can classify oesophageal dysmotility into rare specific disorders such as achalasia and diffuse oesophageal spasm or more common non-specific motility disorders that do not respond directly to drug treatment but may improve if related reflux or psychiatric disturbances are treated. The symptoms of non-specific motility disorders may have an uncertain relation to the manometric abnormalities
Management is based on the history, findings of the clinical investigations, and prognosis for the individual patient. The underlying disorder is treated, but the impact of dysphagia on nutrition and hydration will compromise any intervention unless managed effectively. Poor physical condition from malnutrition or dehydration will lead to a suboptimal rehabilitation process, in both duration and completeness of recovery and inadequate management of dysphagia contributes to this. A malnourished person is at risk of decompensation of the swallow, leading to dysphagia. The clinical swallow assessment is used to determine safely modified diets that reduce malnutrition and dehydration. This may range from nil by mouth with total enteral support to full oral route or a balance of the two. Enteral feeding is essential to maintain nutritional status when oral feeding is suspended, even if only for a short time. Prompt involvement of a dietitian is thus essential.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Upper Gastrointestinal Surgery
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Question 18
Incorrect
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The nutcracker effect of the alimentary canal is described as a nutcracker-like compression caused by the aorta and the superior mesenteric arteries on a certain section of the alimentary canal leading to bowel obstruction. Which of the following parts of the alimentary canal is usually obstructed by this nutcracker compression of the two arteries?
Your Answer: Transverse colon
Correct Answer: Duodenum
Explanation:The ‘nutcracker effect’ is only seen in one part of the alimentary canal, and that is in the third part of the duodenum. This can happen when the superior mesenteric artery that passes across the duodenum and the aorta, posteriorly to the third part of the duodenum enlarges and starts compressing the duodenum. The result is an obstructed duodenum that inhibits passage of food.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An old woman complains of a lack of sensation halfway down the anterior surface of the thigh. The cause of this:
Your Answer: Could be the result of nerve damage during surgical procedures in the femoral sheath
Correct Answer: Would result from damage to the nerve that innervates the pectineus muscle
Explanation:The pectineus is supplied by the second, third and fourth lumbar nerves through the femoral nerve and by the third lumbar through the accessory obturator when it exists. The anterior surface of the thigh receives its innervation from the femoral nerve as well, thus this is the nerve most likely to be injured
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 20
Correct
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A 24-year-old patient with recurrent episodes of deep vein thrombosis presents again to the clinic. Deficiency of which of the following blood proteins is the most probable cause of this episode?
Your Answer: Antithrombin III
Explanation:Antithrombin III (ATIII) is a blood protein that acts by inhibiting blood coagulation by neutralizing the enzymatic activity of thrombin.
Antithrombin III deficiency is an autosomal dominant disorder that leads to an increased risk of venous and arterial thrombosis. Clinical manifestations typically appear in young adulthood. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 21
Correct
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A correct statement about the RECTUM:
Your Answer: It is an important anastomotic site for the portal and caval (systemic) venous systems
Explanation:The rectum is part of the gastrointestinal tract that is continuous above with the sigmoid colon and below with the anal canal. It contains both longitudinal and circular smooth muscles. These are supplied by the enteric nervous system. It is about 12 cm long. It has no sacculations comparable with those of the colon. It has three permanent transverse folds called the valves of Houston. The peritoneum is related to the upper two thirds of the rectum only whereas the lower part is not covered by peritoneum. It is supplied by the superior rectal (hemorrhoidal) branch of the inferior mesenteric artery and the median sacral artery that is a direct branch from the abdominal aorta. It is drained by veins that begin as a plexus that surround the anus. These veins form anastomoses with the portal system (portocaval anastomoses).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 80 year old woman is undergoing excision of a basal cell carcinoma from her periorbital region under local anaesthesia. Medical history reveals multiple medical comorbities. Which medication should be stopped prior to surgery?
Your Answer: Prednisolone
Correct Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Answer: Aspirin
Aspirin increases bleeding time when taken orally. Aspirin causes several different effects in the body, mainly the reduction of inflammation, analgesia (relief of pain), the prevention of clotting, and the reduction of fever. Much of this is believed to be due to decreased production of prostaglandins and TXA2. Aspirin’s ability to suppress the production of prostaglandins and thromboxanes is due to its irreversible inactivation of the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzyme. Cyclooxygenase is required for prostaglandin and thromboxane synthesis. Prostaglandins are local chemical messengers that exert multiple effects including but not limited to the transmission of pain information to the brain, modulation of the hypothalamic thermostat, and inflammation. They are produced in response to the stimulation of phospholipids within the plasma membrane of cells resulting in the release of arachidonic acid (prostaglandin precursor). Thromboxanes are responsible for the aggregation of platelets that form blood clots.
Low-dose, long-term aspirin use irreversibly blocks the formation of thromboxane A2 in platelets, producing an inhibitory effect on platelet aggregation.Antihypertensive and antidiabetic medications do not need to be stopped when a patient is undergoing local anaesthesia. Steroid (Prednisolone) use cannot be stopped abruptly; tapering the drug gives the adrenal glands time to return to their normal patterns of secretion. Withdrawal symptoms and signs (weakness, fatigue, decreased appetite, weight loss, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, abdominal pain) can mimic many other medical problems. Some may be life-threatening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Peri-operative Care
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 35 year old woman presents to her family physician complaining of perianal discomfort. She is diagnosed with pruritis ani. Which of the following would not be associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Tuberculosis
Explanation:Tuberculosis is least likely to be associated with this condition. Anal pruritus affects up to 5% of the population. It is often persistent and the constant urge to scratch the area can cause great distress. Although usually caused by a combination of irritants, particularly faecal soiling and dietary factors, it can be a symptom of serious dermatosis, skin or generalised malignancy or systemic illness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Colorectal Surgery
- Generic Surgical Topics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Skeletal muscle fibres are divided into two basic types, type I (slow-twitch fibres) and type II (fast-twitch fibres). Fast muscle fibres do which of the following:
Your Answer: Have numerous mitochondria
Correct Answer: Use anaerobic metabolism
Explanation:Skeletal muscles are divided into two types:
1) type I also known as the slow twitch fibres. They use oxygen for their metabolism and as a result they have a high endurance potential. To support this they have abundant mitochondria and myoglobin, so they appear red/dark.
2) type II fibres also called fast twitch fibres, are low endurance fibres used during anaerobic metabolism. They are required for short bursts of strength and cannot sustain contractions for long periods of time. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the nerve supply of the muscle that is inserted onto the crest of the lesser tubercle of the humerus?
Your Answer: Median
Correct Answer: Lower subscapular
Explanation:The muscle is the subscapularis muscle which is supplied by the lower subscapular nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following features is indicative of poor prognosis in a case of breast carcinoma?
Your Answer: Family history of breast carcinoma
Correct Answer: Axillary lymph node metastases
Explanation:Lymphatic spread indicates poor prognosis. Presence of family history is not a prognostic factor despite being linked to higher incidence. Aneuploidy is a poor prognostic factor. A breast tumour positive for oestrogen receptors is a good prognostic factor as it increases the responsiveness of the tumour to certain therapies. In-situ tumours carry the best prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most likely cause of prolonged thrombin clotting time?
Your Answer: Warfarin therapy
Correct Answer: Hypofibrinogenemia
Explanation:Thrombin clotting time, also called thrombin time (TT), is test used for the investigation of possible bleeding or clotting disorders. TT reflects the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and it’s also very sensitive to the presence of the anticoagulant heparin. A prolonged thrombin time may indicate the presence of hypofibrinogenemia (decreased fibrinogen level ), dysfibrinogenaemia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), end stage liver disease or malnutrition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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With respect to far accommodation, which of the following is a TRUE statement?
Your Answer: The zonular fibres are relaxed
Correct Answer: The ciliary muscles are relaxed
Explanation:Myopia or near-sightedness is a disease due to elongated eyeballs or too strong a lens. For far accommodation (focus of a distant object onto the retina), the lens needs to decrease its refractive power, or in other words, increase its focal length. This is done by relaxation of ciliary muscles which tightens the zonular fibres and flattening of the lens. Relaxation of the zonular fibres, rounding of the lens, shortening of the focal length and constriction of the pupil occurs during near accommodation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Calculate the pulmonary vascular resistance in an adult male with the following parameters: Heart rate 70 beats/min, Arterial [O2] 0.24 ml O2/min, Venous [O2] 0.16 ml O2/min, Whole body O2 consumption 500 ml/min, Pulmonary diastolic pressure 15 mmHg, Pulmonary systolic pressure 25 mmHg, Wedge pressure 5 mmHg.
Your Answer: 2.5 resistance units (mmHg/l per min)
Correct Answer: 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min)
Explanation:Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) = (Mean pulmonary artery pressure – Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure) divided by Cardiac output. To get cardiac output, Fick’s principle needs to be applied which states that VO2 = (CO × CAO2) – (CO × CVO2) where VO2 = oxygen consumption, CO = cardiac output, CA = oxygen concentration of arterial blood and CVO2 = oxygen concentration of venous blood. Thus, CO = VO2/CAO2– CVO2, CO = 500/0.24–0.16, CO = 500/0.8, CO = 6.25 l/min. To calculate mean pulmonary artery pressure, we use the formula: Mean pulmonary artery pressure = Diastolic pressure + 1/3(Systolic pressure – Diastolic pressure). Thus, Mean pulmonary artery pressure = 15 + 1/3(25 – 15) = 15 + 3. 33 = 18.33. Substituting these values in the first formula, PVR = 18.3–5/6.25 = 13.5/5.25 = 2.0 resistance units (mmHg/l per min) approximately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
