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Question 1
Correct
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Which of the following is NOT an effect of gastrin:
Your Answer: Stimulation of insulin release
Explanation:Gastrin acts to:Stimulate acid secretion from parietal cells (both directly and indirectly by stimulating release of histamine from ECL cells)Stimulate pepsinogen secretion from chief cellsIncrease gastric motilityStimulate growth of gastric mucosa
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man presented to the emergency room after an incident of slipping and falling onto his back and left hip. Upon physical examination, it was noted that he has pain on hip extension, but normal hip abduction. Which of the following muscles was most likely injured in this case?
Your Answer: Gluteus medius
Correct Answer: Gluteus maximus
Explanation:The primary hip extensors are the gluteus maximus and the hamstrings such as the long head of the biceps femoris, the semitendinosus, and the semimembranosus. The extensor head of the adductor magnus is also considered a primary hip extensor.The hip abductor muscle group is located on the lateral thigh. The primary hip abductor muscles include the gluteus medius, gluteus minimus, and tensor fasciae latae.The secondary hip abductors include the piriformis, sartorius, and superior fibres of the gluteus maximus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Regarding ciprofloxacin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin decreases plasma concentrations of theophylline.
Explanation:Ciprofloxacin increases plasma concentrations of theophylline. There is an increased risk of convulsions when quinolones are given with NSAIDs or theophylline. There is an increased risk of tendon damage when quinolones are given with corticosteroids. Quinolones are known to increase the QT-interval and should not be taken with concomitantly with other drugs that are known to cause QT-interval prolongation. There is an increased risk of myopathy when erythromycin or clarithromycin are taken with simvastatin or atorvastatin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old waiter cuts his hand on a dropped plate that smashed and damages the nerve that innervates opponens digiti minimi.The opponens digiti minimi muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The deep branch of the ulnar nerve
Explanation:Opponens digiti minimi is a triangular-shaped muscle in the hand that forms part of the hypothenar eminence. It originates from the hook of the hamate bone and the flexor retinaculum and inserts into the medial border of the 5thmetacarpal.Opponens digiti minimi is innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve and receives its blood supply from the ulnar artery.Opponens digiti minimi draws the fifth metacarpal bone anteriorly and rotates it, bringing the fifth digiti into opposition with the thumb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A patient suffers a stab wound to the neck. The entry point of the blade is situated within the anterior triangle of the neck.Which of the following muscles is most likely to be involved? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sternothyroid
Explanation:The anterior triangle is the triangular area of the neck found anteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It is formed by the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid laterally, the median line of the neck medially and by the inferior border of the mandible superiorly. The apex of the anterior triangle extends towards the manubrium sterni. The anterior triangle contains:Muscles: thyrohyoid, sternothyroid, sternohyoid musclesOrgans: thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, larynx, trachea, esophagus, submandibular gland, caudal part of the parotid glandArteries: superior and inferior thyroid, common carotid, external carotid, internal carotid artery (and sinus), facial, submental, lingual arteriesVeins: anterior jugular veins, internal jugular, common facial, lingual, superior thyroid, middle thyroid veins, facial vein, submental vein, lingual veinsNerves: vagus nerve (CN X), hypoglossal nerve (CN XII), part of sympathetic trunk, mylohyoid nerveThe posterior triangle is a triangular area found posteriorly to the sternocleidomastoid muscle. It has three borders; anterior, posterior and inferior borders. The anterior border is the posterior margin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. The posterior border is the anterior margin of the trapezius muscle, while the inferior border is the middle one-third of the clavicle. The investing layer of deep cervical fascia and integument forms the roof of the space, while the floor is covered with the prevertebral fascia along with levator scapulae, splenius capitis and the scalene muscles. The inferior belly of omohyoid subdivides the posterior triangle into a small supraclavicular, and a large occipital, triangle.Contents:Vessels: the third part of the subclavian artery, suprascapular and transverse cervical branches of the thyrocervical trunk, external jugular vein, lymph nodesNerves: accessory nerve (CN XI), the trunks of the brachial plexus, fibers of the cervical plexus
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Head And Neck
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male with a known case of Haemophilia A is referred to your orthopaedic clinic for evaluation and aspiration of a hemarthrosis of the left knee joint. Out of the modes of inheritance listed below, which one is present in this disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: X-linked recessive
Explanation:All the Haemophilia’s have an X-linked recessive inheritance pattern, so they only manifest in male patients. Diseases with a mitochondrial inheritance pattern include MELAS syndrome, Leigh syndrome, LHON and MERRF syndrome. Autosomal dominant disorders include Huntingdon disease and Marfan syndrome. X-linked dominant diseases include Fragile X syndrome. Autosomal recessive diseases include cystic fibrosis and sickle cell disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female presents at the hospital with a diabetic foot ulcer that has become infected. She has a longstanding history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and diabetic polyneuropathy. She has trouble controlling her blood sugar levels, and recently, she was converted to a new insulin regimen that includes intermediate-acting insulin.Out of the following, which one is the intermediate-acting insulin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isophane insulin
Explanation:Insulin is used mainly in type 1 diabetes, where the pancreas makes no insulin and can sometimes be prescribed in type 1 diabetes. There are different types of insulin categorized by their onset of action:1. Intermediate-acting insulins (isophane insulin NPH): – intermediate duration of action, designed to mimic the effect of endogenous basal insulin- starts their action in 1 to 4 hours- peaks in 4 to 8 hours – dosing is usually twice a day and helps maintain blood sugar throughout the day- Isophane insulin is a suspension of insulin with protamine2. Short-acting insulins (regular insulin)- starts the action in 30 to 40 minutes- peaks in 90 to 120 minutes- duration of action is 6 to 8 hours- taken before meals, and food is necessary within 30 minutes after its administration to avoid hypoglycaemia3. Long-acting insulins (glargine, detemir, degludec)- start action in 1 to 2 hours- plateau effect over 12 to 24 hours- Dosing is usually during the night-time after meals. Their long duration of action helps in reducing the frequency of dosing throughout the day. 4. Rapid-acting insulins (lispro, aspart, glulisine) – start their action in 5 to 15 minutes- peak in 30 minutes- The duration of action is 3 to 5 hours- generally used before meals and always used along with short-acting or long-acting insulins to control sugar levels throughout the day.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Regarding aciclovir, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aciclovir eradicates herpes simplex virus from the body.
Explanation:Aciclovir is active against herpesviruses but does not eradicate latent virus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Regarding macrolide antibiotics, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Macrolides are first line for treatment of whooping cough.
Explanation:A macrolide antibiotic is recommended first line for whooping cough (if onset of cough is within the previous 21 days)Prescribe clarithromycin for infants less than 1 month of age.Prescribe azithromycin or clarithromycin for children aged 1 month or older, and non-pregnant adults.Prescribe erythromycin for pregnant women.Macrolides interfere with bacterial protein synthesis and are mainly active against Gram-positive organisms. They have a similar antibacterial spectrum to penicillin and are thus a useful alternative in penicillin-allergic patients. Erythromycin is commonly associated with gastrointestinal upset.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Injury to which nerve can lead to weakness or paralysis of the brachialis muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The musculocutaneous nerve
Explanation:The brachialis muscle is a prime flexor of the forearm at the elbow joint. It is fusiform in shape and located in the anterior (flexor) compartment of the arm, deep to the biceps brachii. The brachialis is a broad muscle, with its broadest part located in the middle rather than at either of its extremities. It is sometimes divided into two parts, and may fuse with the fibres of the biceps brachii, coracobrachialis, or pronator teres muscles. It also functions to form part of the floor of the cubital fossa.The brachialis is primarily supplied by the musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6). In addition, a small lateral portion of the muscle is innervated by the radial nerve (C7).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 30 year old man presents to ED after a road traffic accident. Free intraperitoneal fluid is found on FAST (Focussed assessment for sonography in trauma) done in the supine position. Which of these is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatorenal recess
Explanation:Fluid accumulates most often in the hepatorenal pouch (of Morrison) in a supine patient. The hepatorenal pouch is located behind the liver and anterior to the right kidney and is the lowest space in the peritoneal cavity in the supine position.Although the vesicouterine and rectouterine spaces are also potential spaces for fluid accumulation, fluid accumulation in them occur in the erect position.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen
- Anatomy
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Approximately how long is the duration of a lidocaine block (when given with adrenaline):
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 90 minutes
Explanation:Lidocaine is a tertiary amine that is primarily used as a local anaesthetic but can also be used intravenously in the treatment of ventricular dysrhythmias.Lidocaine works as a local anaesthetic by diffusing in its uncharged base form through neural sheaths and the axonal membrane to the internal surface of the cell membrane sodium channels. Here it alters signal conduction by blocking the fast voltage-gated sodium channels. With sufficient blockage, the membrane of the postsynaptic neuron will not depolarise and will be unable to transmit an action potential, thereby preventing the transmission of pain signals.Each 1 ml of plain 1% lidocaine solution contains 10 mg of lidocaine hydrochloride. The maximum safe dose of plain lidocaine is 3 mg/kg. When administered with adrenaline 1:200,000, the maximum safe dose is 7 mg/kg. Because of the risk of vasoconstriction and tissue necrosis, lidocaine should not be used in combination with adrenaline in extremities such as fingers, toes, and the nose.The half-life of lidocaine is 1.5-2 hours. Its onset of action is rapid within a few minutes, and it has a duration of action of 30-60 minutes when used alone. Its duration of action is prolonged by co-administration with adrenaline (about 90 minutes).Lidocaine tends to cause vasodilatation when used locally. This is believed to be due mainly to the inhibition of action potentials via sodium channel blocking in vasoconstrictor sympathetic nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man presents with painful red eye with copious discharge and you make a diagnosis of infective conjunctivitis following a history and an examination,.One of these is NOT an indication for an urgent ophthalmology referral in this patient.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bilateral conjunctivitis
Explanation:Urgent referral to ophthalmology is indicated if the patient with conjunctivitis has any of the following:Suspected gonococcal or chlamydial conjunctivitisCorneal involvement associated with soft contact lens useSevere disease indicated by presence of a pseudomembraneConjunctivitis associated with rheumatoid arthritis or in immunocompromised patient. Ophthalmia neonatorum.Possible herpes infection.Had recent intraocular surgery. A red flag indicating a serious cause of red eye.Suspected periorbital or orbital cellulitis.Bilateral conjunctivitis is not an indication for urgent referral to ophthalmology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled hypertension complains of a headache and vision blurring today. In triage, his blood pressure is 210/192 mmHg. A CT head scan is scheduled to rule out the possibility of an intracranial haemorrhage. You make the diagnosis of hypertensive encephalopathy and rush the patient to reus to begin blood pressure-lowering treatment. He has a history of brittle asthma, for which he has been admitted to the hospital twice in the last year.Which of the following is the patient's preferred drug treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 25% of the mean arterial pressure over the first hour
Explanation:End-organ damage (e.g. encephalopathy, intracranial haemorrhage, acute myocardial infarction or ischaemia, dissection, pulmonary oedema, nephropathy, eclampsia, papilledema, and/or angiopathic haemolytic anaemia) characterises a hypertensive emergency (also known as ‘accelerated hypertension’ or malignant hypertension’ It’s a life-threatening condition that necessitates rapid blood pressure reduction to avoid end-organ damage and a negative outcome.Hypertensive encephalopathy is a syndrome that includes headaches, seizures, visual changes, and other neurologic symptoms in people who have high blood pressure. It is reversible if treated quickly, but it can progress to coma and death if not treated properly.Any patient with suspected hypertensive encephalopathy should have an urgent CT scan to rule out an intracranial haemorrhage, as rapid blood pressure reduction could be dangerous in these circumstances.The drug of choice is labetalol, which reduces blood pressure steadily and consistently without compromising cerebral blood flow.An initial reduction of approximately 25% in mean arterial pressure (MAP) over an hour should be aimed for, followed by a further controlled MAP reduction over the next 24 hours. In patients who are unable to take beta-blockers, nicardipine can be used as a substitute.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A young female was diagnosed with a urinary tract infection and was sent home with medications. However, after 48 hours of discharge, she returned to the hospital because there had been no relief from her symptoms. She is pregnant in her second trimester. The urine sensitivity test report is still unavailable. Fresh blood tests were sent, and her estimated GFR is calculated to be >60 ml/minute. She was prescribed nitrofurantoin 100 mg modified-release orally twice a day for two days.Out of the following, which antibiotic is most appropriate to be prescribed to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cefalexin
Explanation:The NICE guidelines for pregnant women with lower UTIs are:1. Prescribe an antibiotic immediately, taking into account the previous urine culture and susceptibility results or avoiding past antibiotics that may have caused resistance2. Obtain a midstream urine sample before starting antibiotics and send for urine culture and susceptibility – Review the choice of antibiotic when the results are available – change the antibiotic according to susceptibility results if the bacteria are resistant, using a narrow-spectrum antibiotic wherever possibleThe first choice of antibiotics for pregnant women aged 12 years and over is:1. Nitrofurantoin100 mg modified-release PO BD for 3 days – if eGFR >45 ml/minuteThe second-choice (no improvement in lower UTI symptoms on first-choice for at least 48 hours, or when first-choice is not suitable) are:1. Amoxicillin 500 mg PO TDS for seven days (ONLY if culture results available and susceptible)2. Cefalexin500 mg BD for seven daysAlternative second-choices – consult local microbiologist, choose antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity results
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the primary indication for loop diuretics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute pulmonary oedema
Explanation:Loop diuretics have long been the cornerstone of pulmonary oedema treatment, with furosemide being the most commonly used of these drugs. Premedication with drugs that decrease preload (e.g., nitro-glycerine [NTG]) and afterload (e.g., angiotensin-converting enzyme [ACE] inhibitors) before the administration of loop diuretics can prevent adverse hemodynamic changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following corticosteroids has the most potent mineralocorticoid effect:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone
Explanation:Fludrocortisone has the most potent mineralocorticosteroid activity, making it ideal for mineralocorticoid replacement in adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old with a longstanding history of asthma presents to the ED with worsening symptoms of cough and wheeze and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) measurement is taken.Which statement concerning PEFR is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PEFR is dependent upon the patient's height
Explanation:The maximum flow rate generated during a forceful exhalation, after maximal inspiration is the peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR).PEFR is dependent upon initial lung volume. It is, therefore, dependant on patient’s age, sex and height.PEFR is dependent on voluntary effort and muscular strength of the patient.PEFR is decreased with increasing airway resistance, e.g. in asthma, and it correlates well with the forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) value measured in spirometry. This correlation decreases in patients with asthma as airflow decreases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Regarding the management of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), insulin should initially be given:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: At a concentration of 1 unit/mL at a fixed rate of 0.1 units/kg/hour
Explanation:An intravenous insulin infusion should be started at a concentration of 1 unit/mL, at a fixed rate of 0.1 units/kg/hour. Established subcutaneous long-acting insulin therapy should be continued concomitantly. Blood ketone and blood glucose concentrations should be checked hourly and the insulin infusion rate adjusted accordingly. Blood ketone concentration should fall by at least 0.5 mmol/litre/hour and blood glucose concentration should fall by at least 3 mmol/litre/hour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine
- Pharmacology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves supply the superficial head of the flexor pollicis brevis muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The recurrent branch of the median nerve
Explanation:The two heads of the flexor pollicis brevis usually differ in their innervation. The superficial head of flexor pollicis muscle receives nervous supply from the recurrent branch of the median nerve, whereas the deep head receives innervation from the deep branch of the ulnar nerve, derived from spinal roots C8 and T1.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Regarding antacids, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antacids should not be taken at the same time as other drugs as they impair absorption.
Explanation:Antacids should preferably not be taken at the same time as other drugs since they may impair absorption. Antacids act by neutralising stomach acid. They are used for symptomatic relief in dyspepsia, but are not first line for proven peptic ulcer disease where antisecretory drugs have a better healing effect. Magnesium-containing antacids tend to be laxative whereas aluminium-containing antacids tend to be constipating. Antacids are contraindicated in hypophosphataemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The most common site of ectopic pregnancy is?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ampulla of Fallopian tube
Explanation:Nearly 95% of ectopic pregnancies are implanted in the various segments of the fallopian tube and give rise to fimbrial, ampullary, isthmic, or interstitial tubal pregnancies. The ampulla is the most frequent site, followed by the isthmus. The remaining 5% of non tubal ectopic pregnancies implant in the ovary, peritoneal cavity, cervix, or prior caesarean scar.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Abdomen And Pelvis
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You're examining a 58-year-old male who has cellulitis in his left leg. Because he is allergic to penicillin, you start him on erythromycin.Which of the following statements about erythromycin is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It can be used to treat Legionnaire’s disease
Explanation:Bacteriostatic antibiotics include erythromycin and other macrolide antibiotics. They work by attaching to the bacterial ribosome’s 50S subunit, preventing translocation and thereby protein synthesis. Macrolide antibiotics are actively concentrated inside leukocytes and delivered to the infection site as a result.Erythromycin is an orally active antibiotic that can also be given intravenously. It is metabolized in the liver and eliminated in the bile and has a biological half-life of 1.5 hours.It has a similar antibacterial spectrum to benzylpenicillin (i.e., a narrow spectrum, primarily against Gram-positive pathogens) and can be used as a penicillin substitute in people who are allergic to penicillin.Erythromycin is unsuccessful in the treatment of meningitis because it does not penetrate the central nervous system well enough. It is efficient against a variety of unusual pathogens, unlike penicillin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A patient suffers from an injury and as a consequence, the nerve that was damaged innervates the obturator internus muscle.In which of the following nerves is the obturator internus muscle innervated by?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nerve to obturator internus
Explanation:The obturator internus is innervated by the obturator internus nerve (L5–S2), a branch of sacral plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man with an acute episode of gout presents to you and you discuss treatment plan with him.Which one of these statements concerning the treatment of acute gout is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A common first-line treatment is Naproxen as a stat dose of 750 mg followed by 250 mg TDS
Explanation:High-dose NSAIDs are the first-line treatment for acute gout. In the absence of any contraindications, Naproxen 750 mg as a stat dose followed by 250 mg TDS is commonly used.Aspirin is contraindicated in gout. It reduces the urinary clearance of urate and also interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Colchicine is preferred in patients with heart failure or in those who are intolerant of NSAIDs. It is as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute attacks.Colchicine acts on the neutrophils, binding to tubulin to prevent neutrophil migration into the joint. Where Allopurinol is not tolerated, it has a role in prophylactic treatment of gout.Allopurinol should not be started in the acute phase of gout as it increases the severity and duration of symptoms. It is used as a prophylaxis in preventing future attacks and acts by reducing serum uric acid levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are considered true regarding likelihood ratios, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A likelihood ratio less than 1 indicates that the result is associated with the presence of the disease
Explanation:The Likelihood Ratio (LR) is the likelihood that a given test result would be expected in a patient with the target disorder compared to the likelihood that that same result would be expected in a patient without the target disorder.The LR is used to assess how good a diagnostic test is and to help in selecting an appropriate diagnostic tests or sequence of tests. They have advantages over sensitivity and specificity because they are less likely to change with the prevalence of the disorder, they can be calculated for several levels of the symptom/sign or test, they can be used to combine the results of multiple diagnostic test and they can be used to calculate post-test probability for a target disorder.A LR greater than 1 produces a post-test probability which is higher than the pre-test probability. An LR less than 1 produces a post-test probability which is lower than the pre-test probability. When the pre-test probability lies between 30 and 70 per cent, test results with a very high LR (say, above 10) rule in disease. An LR below 1 produces a post-test probability les than the pre-test probability. A very low LR (say, below 0.1) virtually rules out the chance that the patient has the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Regarding the varicella zoster virus, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contracting chickenpox infection while pregnant is associated with a higher risk of developing varicella pneumonitis.
Explanation:Chickenpox infection in neonates, adults/adolescents and pregnant women is associated with more severe disease. Varicella zoster pneumonitis typically occurs in pregnant women or immunocompromised individuals and is associated with a high mortality. A live attenuated-virus vaccine is available and recommended for non-immune healthcare workers but is not part of the routine childhood immunisation schedule. Antiviral treatment is not typically recommended in childhood chickenpox but is indicated for shingles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Pathogens
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man with sickle-cell disease receives a blood transfusion for symptomatic anaemia. He presents to the Emergency Department three weeks later with a rash, fever, and diarrhoea. He has pancytopenia and abnormal liver function results on blood tests.Which of the transfusion reactions is most likely to have happened?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Graft-vs-host disease
Explanation:Blood transfusion can be a life-saving treatment with significant clinical benefits, but it also comes with a number of risks and potential complications, including:Immunological side effectsErrors in administration (episodes of ‘wrong blood’)Viruses and Infections (bacterial, viral, possibly prion)ImmunodilutionA culture of better safety procedures as well as steps to reduce the use of transfusion has emerged as a result of growing awareness of avoidable risk and improved reporting systems. Transfusion errors, on the other hand, continue to occur, and some serious adverse reactions go unreported.Transfusion-associated graft-vs-host disease (TA-GVHD) is a rare blood transfusion complication that causes fever, rash, and diarrhoea 1-4 weeks after the transfusion. Pancytopenia and liver function abnormalities are common laboratory findings.TA-GVHD, unlike GVHD following allogeneic marrow transplantation, causes profound marrow aplasia with a mortality rate of >90%. Survival is uncommon, with death occurring within 1-3 weeks of the onset of symptoms.Because of immunodeficiency, severe immunosuppression, or shared HLA antigens, viable T lymphocytes in blood components are transfused, engraft, and react against the recipient’s tissues, and the recipient is unable to reject the donor lymphocytes.The following is a list of the most common transfusion reactions and complications:1) Reaction to a febrile transfusionThe temperature rises by one degree from the baseline. Chills and malaise are also possible symptoms.The most common response (1 in 8 transfusions).Cytokines from leukocytes in transfused red cell or platelet components are usually to blame.Only supportive. The use of paracetamol is beneficial.2) Acute haemolytic reaction is a type of haemolytic reaction that occurs when theFever, chills, pain at the transfusion site, nausea, vomiting, and dark urine are all symptoms of a transfusion reaction.Early on, many people report a sense of ‘impending doom.’The most serious reaction. ABO incompatibility is frequently caused by a clerical error.STOP THE TRANSFUSION OF INFORMATION. IV fluids should be given. It’s possible that diuretics will be required.3) Haemolytic reaction that is delayedIt usually happens 4 to 8 days after a blood transfusion.Fever, anaemia, jaundice, and haemoglobinuria are all symptoms that the patient has.Positive Coombs test for direct antiglobulin.Because of the low titre antibody, it is difficult to detect in a cross-match, and it is unable to cause lysis at the time of transfusion.The majority of delayed haemolytic reactions are harmless and do not require treatment.Anaemia and renal function should be monitored and treated as needed.4) Reaction to allergensForeign plasma proteins are usually to blame, but anti-IgA could also be to blame.Urticaria, pruritus, and hives are typical allergic reactions. It’s possible that it’s linked to laryngeal oedema or bronchospasm.Anaphylaxis is a rare occurrence.Antihistamines can be used to treat allergic reactions symptomatically. It is not necessary to stop transfusions.If the patient develops anaphylaxis, the transfusion should be stopped and the patient should be given adrenaline and treated according to the ALS protocol.5) TRALI (Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury)Within 6 hours of transfusion, there was a sudden onset of non-cardiogenic pulmonary oedema.It’s linked to the presence of antibodies to recipient leukocyte antigens in the donor blood.The most common cause of death from transfusion reactions is this.STOP THE TRANSFUSION OF INFORMATION. Oxygen should be given to the patient. Around 75% of patients will require aggressive respiratory support.The use of diuretics should be avoided.6) TACO (Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload)Acute or worsening respiratory distress within 6 hours of a large blood transfusion. Fluid overload and pulmonary and peripheral oedema can be seen. Rapid blood pressure rises are common. BNP is usually 1.5 times higher than it was before the transfusion. It is most common in the elderly and those who have chronic anaemia.Blood transfusions should be given slowly, over the course of 3-4 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A patient presents with increased breathlessness and worsening of his chronic cough and. He has a chronic lung disorder and is on long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT).Which of these is an indication for LTOT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A non-smoker with COPD and a PaO 2 of 7.5 kPa when stable with secondary polycythaemia
Explanation:Long-term administration of oxygen, usually at least 15 hours daily, improves survival in COPD patients who have severe hypoxaemia. Long-term oxygen therapy should be considered in:A non-smoker with COPD and a PaO2<7.3 kPa when stableA non-smoker with COPD and PaO27.3–8 kPa when stable and with secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or evidence of pulmonary hypertensionSevere chronic asthma with PaO2<7.3 kPa or persistent disabling breathlessnessA patient with Interstitial lung disease with PaO28 kPa with disabling dyspnoeaA patient with cystic fibrosis when PaO2<7.3 kPa or if PaO27.3–8 kPa in the presence of secondary polycythaemia, nocturnal hypoxaemia, pulmonary hypertension, or peripheral oedemaPulmonary hypertension, without parenchymal lung involvement when PaO2<8 kPaNeuromuscular or skeletal disorders, after specialist assessmentObstructive sleep apnoea despite continuous positive airways pressure therapy, after specialist assessmentPulmonary malignancy or other terminal disease with disabling dyspnoeaHeart failure with daytime PaO2<7.3 kPa when breathing air or with nocturnal hypoxaemia
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man diagnosed with chronic kidney disease has an elevated creatinine level and a reduced glomerular filtration rate (GFR).Which statement concerning glomerular filtration is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Creatinine is freely filtered at the glomerulus
Explanation:Glomerular filtration is a passive process. It depends on the net hydrostatic pressure across the glomerular capillaries, the oncotic pressure, and the intrinsic permeability of the glomerulus.The mean values for glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in young adults are 130 ml/min/1.73m2 in males and 120 ml/min/1.73m2in females.The GFR declines with age after the age of 40 at a rate of approximately 1 ml/min/year.The Cockcroft and Gault formula overestimates creatinine in obese patients. This is because their endogenous creatinine production is less than that predicted by overall body weight.Creatinine is used in the estimation of GFR because it is naturally produced by muscle breakdown, not toxic, not produced by the kidney, freely filtered at the glomerulus, not reabsorbed from the nephron, and does not alter GFR.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal Physiology
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