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Question 1
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A 75-year-old man visits his GP for a follow-up appointment 6 weeks after undergoing catheter ablation due to unresponsive atrial fibrillation despite antiarrhythmic treatment. He has a medical history of asthma, which he manages with a salbutamol reliever and beclomethasone preventer inhaler, and type II diabetes, which he controls through his diet. The patient is currently receiving anticoagulation therapy in accordance with guidelines. There are no other significant medical histories.
What should be the next course of action in his management?Your Answer: Continue anticoagulation long-term
Explanation:Patients who have undergone catheter ablation for atrial fibrillation still need to continue long-term anticoagulation based on their CHA2DS2-VASc score. In the case of this patient, who has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 2 due to age and past medical history of diabetes, it is appropriate to continue anticoagulation.
Amiodarone is typically used for rhythm control of atrial fibrillation, but it is not indicated in this patient who has undergone catheter ablation and has no obvious recurrence of AF.
Beta-blockers and diltiazem are used for rate control of atrial fibrillation, but medication for AF is not indicated in this patient.
Anticoagulation can be stopped after 4 weeks post catheter ablation only if the CHA2DS2-VASc score is 0.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a heart condition that requires prompt management. The management of AF depends on the patient’s haemodynamic stability and the duration of the AF. For haemodynamically unstable patients, electrical cardioversion is recommended. For haemodynamically stable patients, rate control is the first-line treatment strategy, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin are commonly used to control the heart rate. Rhythm control is another treatment option that involves the use of medications such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone. Catheter ablation is recommended for patients who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication. The procedure involves the use of radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that cause AF. Anticoagulation is necessary before and during the procedure to reduce the risk of stroke. The success rate of catheter ablation varies, with around 50% of patients experiencing an early recurrence of AF within three months. However, after three years, around 55% of patients who have undergone a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 2
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A 60-year-old man with no medication history comes in with three high blood pressure readings of 155/95 mmHg, 160/100 mmHg, and 164/85 mmHg.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Essential hypertension
Explanation:Understanding Hypertension
Ninety five percent of patients diagnosed with hypertension have essential or primary hypertension, while the remaining five percent have secondary hypertension. Essential hypertension is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors, resulting in high blood pressure. On the other hand, secondary hypertension is caused by a specific abnormality in one of the organs or systems of the body.
It is important to understand the type of hypertension a patient has in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan. While essential hypertension may be managed through lifestyle changes and medication, secondary hypertension requires addressing the underlying cause. Regular blood pressure monitoring and consultation with a healthcare professional can help manage hypertension and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 38-year-old woman is 20 weeks pregnant with her first child. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath in recent weeks and has started coughing up pink frothy sputum, particularly when lying down. She reports no chest pain. Blood tests reveal no anemia, but upon listening to her chest, you detect a mid-diastolic heart murmur at the apex. Her chest exam is otherwise normal, and her resting pulse is 90 bpm SR with O2 sats at 96%. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral Stenosis: Symptoms and Findings
Mitral stenosis is a condition where patients experience dyspnoea and pulmonary oedema due to increased left atrial pressure. This is more common in younger patients and can be exacerbated by situations of increased blood volume, such as during pregnancy. As a result, a previously asymptomatic patient may present to their GP during pregnancy.
Typical findings in mitral stenosis include a small pulse that may be irregularly irregular. Jugular venous pressure is only raised if there is heart failure, right ventricular hypertrophy, tapping apex beat, loud S1, loud P2 if pulmonary hypertension, opening snap, mid-diastolic murmur heard at the apex only, or presystolic accentuation murmur if no atrial fibrillation.
In summary, patients with mitral stenosis may experience dyspnoea and pulmonary oedema, and typical findings include a small pulse and irregularly irregular heartbeat. Jugular venous pressure may only be raised in certain situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
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A 70-year-old man with a medical history of chronic heart failure due to ischaemic cardiomyopathy is being evaluated. He was released from the hospital two weeks ago after experiencing a heart attack. An echocardiogram conducted during his hospitalization revealed a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%, but no valve abnormalities were detected.
Despite his current regimen of furosemide, ramipril, carvedilol, aspirin, and simvastatin, he continues to experience shortness of breath with minimal exertion, such as walking 30 meters. On examination, his chest is clear, and there is minimal peripheral edema. What is the most appropriate next step in managing his condition?Your Answer: Add an aldosterone antagonist
Explanation:The 2010 NICE guidelines have been revised to recommend the use of both angiotensin-2 receptor blockers and hydralazine in combination with a nitrate as second-line treatments for heart failure, in addition to aldosterone antagonists. However, considering the patient’s recent myocardial infarction, the most appropriate option would be an aldosterone antagonist, as per the NICE guidelines. For further information, please refer to the guidelines.
Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man who is currently taking warfarin inquires about the feasibility of switching to dabigatran to eliminate the requirement for regular INR testing.
What would be a contraindication to prescribing dabigatran in this scenario?Your Answer: Epilepsy
Correct Answer: Mechanical heart valve
Explanation:Patients with mechanical heart valves should avoid using dabigatran due to its increased risk of bleeding and thrombotic events compared to warfarin. The MHRA has deemed it contraindicated for this population.
Dabigatran: An Oral Anticoagulant with Two Main Indications
Dabigatran is an oral anticoagulant that directly inhibits thrombin, making it an alternative to warfarin. Unlike warfarin, dabigatran doesn’t require regular monitoring. It is currently used for two main indications. Firstly, it is an option for prophylaxis of venous thromboembolism following hip or knee replacement surgery. Secondly, it is licensed for prevention of stroke in patients with non-valvular atrial fibrillation who have one or more risk factors present. The major adverse effect of dabigatran is haemorrhage, and doses should be reduced in chronic kidney disease. Dabigatran should not be prescribed if the creatinine clearance is less than 30 ml/min. In cases where rapid reversal of the anticoagulant effects of dabigatran is necessary, idarucizumab can be used. However, the RE-ALIGN study showed significantly higher bleeding and thrombotic events in patients with recent mechanical heart valve replacement using dabigatran compared with warfarin. As a result, dabigatran is now contraindicated in patients with prosthetic heart valves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 6
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For which patient is it necessary to utilize a cardiovascular risk assessment tool (such as QRISK) in order to ascertain their likelihood of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD)?
Your Answer: A 45-year-old man with type 1 diabetes with a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol and no nephropathy or microalbuminuria
Explanation:High Risk Patients for Cardiovascular Disease
Certain patients are automatically considered at high risk for cardiovascular disease (CVD) and do not require the use of a CVD risk assessment tool such as QRISK2. These high-risk patients include those with pre-existing CVD, those aged 85 and above, those with an eGFR <60 ml/min/1.73m2 and/or albuminuria, those with familial hypercholesterolaemia or other inherited lipid disorders, and those with type 1 diabetes who are over 40 years old, have a history of diabetes for at least 10 years, have established nephropathy, or have other CVD risk factors. However, for patients with a BMI of 38, a CVD risk assessment tool should be used. It is important to note that for patients with a BMI higher than 40 kg/m2, their risk may be underestimated by standard CVD risk assessment tools. By identifying high-risk patients, healthcare providers can take appropriate measures to prevent and manage CVD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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An asymptomatic 63-year-old man is found to have an irregular pulse during a routine check-up. A 12-lead ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. His blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg and his heart rate is 106bpm. He is not taking any regular medications and his blood and urine tests are normal. The physician prescribes bisoprolol to manage his condition.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's atrial fibrillation?Your Answer: Offer a low molecular weight heparin
Correct Answer: Do not offer anticoagulation
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, anticoagulation should be considered for individuals with a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 1 or greater for men and 2 or greater for women to assess stroke risk in atrial fibrillation. As the patient’s score is 1, anticoagulation is not currently indicated. However, this will need to be reassessed if the patient reaches the age of 65 or develops other criteria such as congestive heart failure, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, stroke/TIA, or vascular disease. Direct-acting oral anticoagulants are the first-line choice for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation, unless contraindicated or not suitable. Low molecular weight heparin is not a suitable choice for anticoagulation in this case. Warfarin may be considered as a second-line option if anticoagulation is required but a direct oral anticoagulant is not suitable or tolerated.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.
When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.
For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man undergoes an abdominal ultrasound as part of investigations for persistent mildly abnormal liver function tests. The liver appears normal but he is found to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA).
Select from the list the single correct statement regarding an unruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm.Your Answer: Back pain is a common presenting symptom
Correct Answer: Elective repair of an aneurysm has a significant mortality risk
Explanation:Unruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: Symptoms, Risks, and Treatment Options
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often goes unnoticed due to the lack of symptoms. It is usually discovered incidentally during abdominal examinations or scans. However, bimanual palpation of the supra-umbilical region can detect a significant number of aneurysms. While most patients do not experience any pain, severe lumbar pain may indicate an impending rupture. The risk of rupture increases with the size of the aneurysm, with an annual rupture rate of 0.5-1.5% for aneurysms between 4.0 and 5.5 cm, and 5-15% for those between 5.5 and 6.0 cm.
The natural history of a small AAA is gradual expansion, with an annual rate of approximately 10% of the initial arterial diameter. The mortality rate from a ruptured AAA is high, at 80%. However, elective repair can significantly reduce the risk of rupture. The overall mortality rate for elective repair in the UK is 2.4%, with a lower mortality rate for endovascular aneurysm repair (EVAR) than open surgery.
It is important for drivers to notify the DVLA of any AAA, as it may affect their ability to drive. Group 1 drivers should notify the DVLA of an aneurysm >6 cm, while >6.5 cm would disqualify them from driving. Group 2 drivers should notify the DVLA of an aneurysm of any size, and an aortic diameter >5.5 cm would disqualify them from driving.
In conclusion, while most patients with unruptured AAA do not experience any symptoms, it is important to be aware of the risks and treatment options. Early detection and elective repair can significantly reduce the risk of rupture and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male is being evaluated for hypertension associated with type 2 diabetes.
Currently, he is taking aspirin 75 mg daily, amlodipine 10 mg daily, and atorvastatin 20 mg daily. However, his blood pressure remains consistently around 160/92 mmHg.
What antihypertensive medication would you recommend adding to improve this patient's hypertension?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Hypertension Management in Type 2 Diabetes
This patient with type 2 diabetes has poorly controlled hypertension, but is currently tolerating his medication well. The recommended antihypertensive for diabetes is an ACE inhibitor, which can be combined with a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine. Beta-blockers should be avoided for routine hypertension treatment in diabetic patients. Methyldopa is used for hypertension during pregnancy, while moxonidine is used when other medications have failed. If blood pressure control is still inadequate, a thiazide diuretic can be added to the current regimen of ramipril and amlodipine. Proper management of hypertension is crucial in diabetic patients to prevent complications and improve overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 41-year-old man is worried about his risk of heart disease due to his family history. His father passed away at the age of 45 from a heart attack. During his medical check-up, his lipid profile is as follows:
HDL 1.4 mmol/l
LDL 5.7 mmol/l
Triglycerides 2.3 mmol/l
Total cholesterol 8.2 mmol/l
Upon clinical examination, the doctor notices tendon xanthomata around his ankles. What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Familial hypercholesterolaemia can be diagnosed when there are tendon xanthomata and elevated cholesterol levels present.
Familial Hypercholesterolaemia: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
Familial hypercholesterolaemia (FH) is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 500 people. It is an autosomal dominant disorder that results in high levels of LDL-cholesterol, which can lead to early cardiovascular disease if left untreated. FH is caused by mutations in the gene that encodes the LDL-receptor protein.
To diagnose FH, NICE recommends suspecting it as a possible diagnosis in adults with a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and/or a personal or family history of premature coronary heart disease. For children of affected parents, testing should be arranged by age 10 if one parent is affected and by age 5 if both parents are affected.
The Simon Broome criteria are used for clinical diagnosis, which includes a total cholesterol level greater than 7.5 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.9 mmol/l in adults or a total cholesterol level greater than 6.7 mmol/l and LDL-C greater than 4.0 mmol/l in children. Definite FH is diagnosed if there is tendon xanthoma in patients or first or second-degree relatives or DNA-based evidence of FH. Possible FH is diagnosed if there is a family history of myocardial infarction below age 50 years in second-degree relatives, below age 60 in first-degree relatives, or a family history of raised cholesterol levels.
Management of FH involves referral to a specialist lipid clinic and the use of high-dose statins as first-line treatment. CVD risk estimation using standard tables is not appropriate in FH as they do not accurately reflect the risk of CVD. First-degree relatives have a 50% chance of having the disorder and should be offered screening, including children who should be screened by the age of 10 years if there is one affected parent. Statins should be discontinued in women 3 months before conception due to the risk of congenital defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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