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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old woman visits her GP six weeks after giving birth, seeking advice...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits her GP six weeks after giving birth, seeking advice on contraception. She prefers to use the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), which she has used before. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity since week three postpartum. Currently, she is breastfeeding her baby about 60% of the time and supplementing with formula for the remaining 40%. What recommendation should the GP give to the patient?

      Your Answer: A pregnancy test is not required. Advise that contraception is not required whilst breastfeeding

      Correct Answer: A pregnancy test is required. The COCP can be prescribed in this situation

      Explanation:

      This question involves two components. Firstly, the lady in question is seven weeks postpartum and has had unprotected intercourse after day 21, putting her at risk of pregnancy. Therefore, she must have a pregnancy test before receiving any form of contraception. Secondly, the safety of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) at 7 weeks postpartum is being considered. While the COCP is contraindicated for breastfeeding women less than 6 weeks postpartum, this lady falls into the 6 weeks – 6 months postpartum category where the benefits of prescribing the COCP generally outweigh the risks. Therefore, it would be suitable to prescribe the COCP for her. It is important to note that even if a woman is exclusively breastfeeding, the lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) is only effective for up to 6 months postpartum. Additionally, while the progesterone only pill is a good form of contraception, it is not necessary to recommend it over the COCP in this case.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of scant abnormal vaginal bleeding for...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of scant abnormal vaginal bleeding for 5 days before menses during each cycle over the past 6 months. She has been married for a year but has been unable to conceive. She experiences lower abdominal cramps during her menses and takes naproxen for relief. Additionally, she complains of pelvic pain during intercourse and defecation. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in the right adnexa. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common gynecological problem that can have various underlying causes. Here are some of the most common causes of abnormal uterine bleeding in women:

      Endometriosis: This condition occurs when the endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, usually in the ovaries or pelvic cavity. Symptoms include painful periods, painful intercourse, painful bowel movements, and adnexal tenderness. Endometriosis can also lead to infertility.

      Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding: This condition is caused by excessive production of vasoconstrictive prostaglandins in the endometrium during a menstrual period. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the treatment of choice.

      Cervical cancer: This type of cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection, smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, use of oral contraceptives, and immunosuppression. Symptoms include vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge. Cervical cancer is rare before the age of 25 and is unlikely to cause dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, or adnexal tenderness.

      Submucosal leiomyoma: This is a benign neoplastic mass of myometrial origin that protrudes into the intrauterine cavity. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods, but acute pain is rare.

      Endometrial polyps: These are masses of endometrial tissue attached to the inner surface of the uterus. They are more common around menopausal age and can cause heavy or irregular bleeding. They are usually not associated with pain or menstrual cramps and are not pre-malignant.

      Understanding the Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 1-year history of amenorrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 1-year history of amenorrhoea and a milky discharge from both breasts. She is not taking any medications and a pregnancy test is negative. What is the next recommended test?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      The patient’s amenorrhea and galactorrhea are caused by hyperprolactinemia, which requires initial management to exclude hypothyroidism, chronic renal failure, and pregnancy as underlying causes. A CT scan is not necessary in this scenario. However, after excluding primary hypothyroidism and chronic renal failure, formal visual field testing can be done to investigate potential changes in keeping with a pituitary adenoma. An MRI head can also be done to look for a pituitary adenoma. Although a mammogram is not relevant in this case, the patient should still undergo breast screening. If the discharge were bloody, a mammogram would be necessary to rule out breast carcinoma.

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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old patient is worried about her amenorrhea for the past 3 months....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old patient is worried about her amenorrhea for the past 3 months. She has a body mass index of 33 kg/m² and severe acne. A pregnancy test came back negative. Upon testing, her results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Testosterone 3.5 nmol/l 0.21-2.98 nmol/l
      Luteinizing hormone (LH) 31 u/l 3-16 u/l
      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 5 u/l 2-8 u/l
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Secondary Amenorrhoea: Polycystic Ovary Syndrome, Cushing’s Syndrome, Primary Ovarian Failure, Hypothalamic Disease, and Adrenal Tumour

      Secondary amenorrhoea, the cessation of menstruation after previously menstruating, can have various causes. In a patient who is overweight, has acne, and slightly elevated testosterone and LH levels, polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a likely diagnosis. PCOS is characterized by small cysts in the ovaries and is linked to insulin resistance, hypertension, lipid abnormalities, and increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Hirsutism is also common in PCOS.

      Cushing’s syndrome is a potential differential diagnosis for this patient, but blood results would show suppression of LH and FSH, not elevation. Primary ovarian failure is much rarer than PCOS and would show elevated serum FSH levels. Hypothalamic disease is less likely in this patient with multiple risk factors for PCOS, as it would result in decreased production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and lower than normal detectable serum levels of LH and FSH. An adrenal tumour, particularly an adenoma, could rarely lead to amenorrhoea, but would also present with other symptoms such as palpitations and weight loss. Other adrenal tumours that secrete sex hormones are even rarer and would also be associated with weight loss.

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  • Question 5 - A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal bleeding for the past 2 weeks. What would be your initial investigation in the clinic?

      Your Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      TVUS is the recommended initial investigation for PMB, unless there are contraindications. This is because it provides the most accurate measurement of endometrial thickness, which is crucial in determining if the bleeding is due to endometrial cancer.

      Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding

      Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.

      To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.

      Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor's office with concerns about forgetting to change...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor's office with concerns about forgetting to change her combined contraceptive patch. She has missed the deadline by 12 hours and had sex during this time. She has never missed a patch before. What guidance would you offer her?

      Your Answer: Apply a new patch immediately, no further precautions needed

      Explanation:

      The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.

      If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

      If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to the general practitioner by her mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to the general practitioner by her mother who is concerned about her. She has experienced irregular and unpredictable uterine bleeding during the last 2 years. Her menses started at age 14 and have always varied in amount, duration and timing. The mother states that her older daughter who is 22 years old now had normal menses at teenage years. There is no adnexal mass or tenderness.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Submucosal leiomyoma

      Correct Answer: Anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Young Women

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common problem among young women, especially within the first years of menarche. There are several possible causes, including anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding, cervical cancer, ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding, submucosal leiomyoma, and prolactinoma.

      Anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding occurs when the hormonal axis that regulates the menstrual cycle is not fully matured. This can lead to irregular and unpredictable bleeding due to the lack of ovulation and the resulting hyperoestrogenic state that induces endometrial hyperplasia.

      Cervical cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection and other risk factors such as smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, oral contraceptive use, and immunosuppression. It can cause vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge.

      Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding is caused by excessive production of vasoconstrictive prostaglandins in the endometrium during a menstrual period. This can result in more severe and prolonged bleeding associated with painful uterine contractions.

      Submucosal leiomyoma is a benign neoplastic mass that protrudes into the intrauterine cavity and can cause metrorrhagia or menorrhagia. It is rare in young women.

      Prolactinoma can result in oligomenorrhoea/amenorrhoea or anovulation and metromenorrhagia by inhibiting the action of hypothalamic gonadotrophin-releasing hormone on the anterior pituitary gland. This leads to reduced follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinising hormone secretion, resulting in abnormal uterine bleeding.

      In conclusion, abnormal uterine bleeding in young women can have various causes, and a proper diagnosis is essential for appropriate treatment. Anovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding is the most likely cause in this case due to the patient’s age.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old woman, who has never been pregnant, complains of chronic pain in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman, who has never been pregnant, complains of chronic pain in her pelvis and sacrum during her menstrual cycle. Her temperature is 37.2 degrees Celsius. During the examination, there is tenderness in her posterior vaginal fornix and uterine motion tenderness. A pelvic ultrasound shows no abnormalities. What is the subsequent diagnostic test recommended?

      Your Answer: CA-125

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      When it comes to patients with suspected endometriosis, laparoscopy is considered the most reliable investigation method.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is scheduled for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy in 2 months. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill and no other medications. What actions should be taken regarding her surgery and pill usage?

      Your Answer: Stop the pill now, and restart 2 weeks after surgery

      Correct Answer: Stop the pill 4 weeks before surgery and restart 2 weeks after surgery

      Explanation:

      It is a common scenario for surgical patients to face an increased risk of venous thromboembolism when they are on the pill and undergoing surgery, particularly abdominal or lower limb surgery. Therefore, it is necessary to discontinue the pill.

      However, stopping the pill too early would increase the risk of pregnancy, and restarting it too soon after surgery would still pose a risk due to the surgery’s effects on coagulation. Ceasing the pill on the day of surgery would not eliminate the risk of clotting either.

      The best course of action is to stop the pill four weeks before surgery to allow for a return to normal coagulation levels. Then, restarting it two weeks after surgery would allow the procoagulant effects of surgery to subside.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old female visits her GP complaining of hot flashes, irritability, and a 7-month history of lighter periods that have become more irregular. The GP diagnoses her as perimenopausal and prescribes Elleste duet tablets (estradiol + norethisterone) as sequential combined HRT since she has not had a total abdominal hysterectomy. The GP discusses the potential risks with the patient. What is the most crucial risk to mention regarding the norethisterone component?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of endometrial carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The risk of breast cancer is increased when progesterone is added to HRT. However, it is important to note that the risk is minimal and patients should be informed of this. According to the Women Health Institute, if 1000 women on HRT for 5 years were compared to 1000 women not on HRT for 5 years, there would only be 4 more cases of breast cancer. Women who start HRT under the age of 60 are not at an increased risk of dying from cardiovascular disease. Norethisterone, a progesterone, reduces the risk of endometrial carcinoma, so women with a uterus are always started on combined HRT. Women without a uterus are started on unopposed oestrogen. While HRT may increase the risk of headaches, this is less important to mention compared to the risk of breast cancer.

      Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.

      Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.

      Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.

      HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).

      Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.

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  • Question 11 - A 16-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of never having...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of never having had a menstrual period. During the examination, the GP observes normal external female genitalia and a vagina that terminates as a blind pouch. The absence of a uterus or ovaries is palpable, and there is no growth of pubic or axillary hair. What karyotype abnormality is likely to be present in this patient?

      Your Answer: 46,XX

      Correct Answer: 46,XY

      Explanation:

      Genotypes and Associated Syndromes

      There are several genotypes that can lead to different syndromes.

      The genotype 46,XY can cause androgen insensitivity syndrome, where the patient is genotypically male but has complete resistance to testosterone. This results in the absence of male internal genitalia.

      The genotype 46,XX is associated with a phenotypically normal female.

      45,XO causes Turner syndrome, which is characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and streak gonads in girls.

      47,XXY causes Klinefelter syndrome in males, which is characterized by atrophic testes, azoospermia, wide-set nipples, female distribution of body hair, and mild intellectual disability.

      47,XYY causes tall stature, acne, and mild mental retardation in men. This genotype is also associated with aggressive behavior, but normal fertility.

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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman, presenting with a 4-month history of severe mood swings, breast...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman, presenting with a 4-month history of severe mood swings, breast tenderness and reduced cognitive ability to perform functions at work, comes for a review with her diary of symptoms corresponding to a period of three cycles. She attends work regularly during these episodes and goes out with friends, but does not enjoy it as much and is less productive.
      Going through the diary, symptoms occur during the luteal phase and resolve 2–3 days into menstruation.
      Blood tests, including thyroid function tests, are normal. She has tried the progesterone implant, which made her symptoms worse; therefore, she is not currently using any contraception.
      A diagnosis of premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is made.
      Which of the following is the next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)

      Explanation:

      Management of Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS) is a diagnosis of exclusion, characterized by cyclical psychological, behavioral, and physical symptoms during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle. The exact causes are not yet identified, but studies suggest that the effects of hormones on serotonin and GABA signaling may have a significant role, in addition to psychological and environmental factors.

      For moderate PMS, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends the use of new-generation combined oral contraceptives, which prevent the natural cyclical change in hormones seen in the physiological menstrual cycle. Continuous use, rather than cyclical, showed better improvement. Response is unpredictable, and NICE suggests a trial of three months, and then to review.

      Referral to a specialist clinic is reserved for women who have severe PMS, resistant to medication, that cannot be managed in the community. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, has been used successfully in the treatment of women with severe PMS symptoms or in women with moderate PMS that fails to respond to other treatments.

      Lifestyle modification advice is given to patients with mild PMS, including regular exercise, restriction in alcohol intake, smoking cessation, regular meals, regular sleep, and stress reduction. St John’s wort, an over-the-counter herbal remedy, has shown improvement of symptoms in some studies, but its safety profile is unknown, and it can interact with prescribed medication. Its use is at the discretion of the individual, but the patient needs to be warned of the potential risks.

      Management Options for Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

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  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old female patient comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient comes in seeking advice on contraception. She is currently on day 14 of her regular 28-30 day cycle and has no medical history or regular medications. She desires a method that is effective immediately and does not require daily attention. What contraceptive option would be suitable for her?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine device

      Explanation:

      If a woman is not starting her contraceptive method on the first day of her period, the time until it becomes effective varies. The only option that is effective immediately is an intrauterine device (IUD), which is a T-shaped device containing copper that is inserted into the uterus. Other methods, such as the progesterone-only pill (POP), combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, and intrauterine system (IUS), require a certain amount of time before they become effective. The POP requires 2 days, while the COC, injection, implant, and IUS all require 7 days before they become effective. It’s important to consider the effectiveness and convenience of each method before choosing the best option.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

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  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old woman without prior pregnancies is referred to a fertility clinic after...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman without prior pregnancies is referred to a fertility clinic after attempting to conceive for 12 months. Upon initial examination, it is determined that she is ovulating and her partner's semen analysis is normal. However, due to a history of menorrhagia, a transvaginal ultrasound is conducted which reveals a significant uterine fibroid causing distortion in the uterine cavity.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer for endometrial ablation

      Correct Answer: Refer for myomectomy

      Explanation:

      The most effective treatment for large fibroids that are causing fertility problems is myomectomy, especially if the patient wishes to conceive in the future. Fibroids may not cause any symptoms, but they can lead to menorrhagia, bloating, dysuria, and sub-fertility. Medical therapies like anti-progestogens and gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonists may temporarily reduce fibroid size, but they can also interfere with fertility. Surgical treatment, specifically myomectomy, is necessary in cases where fibroids are distorting the uterine cavity and affecting fertility. Myomectomy has been shown to improve fertility outcomes. The combined oral contraceptive pill may help reduce bleeding associated with fibroids, but it does not affect fibroid size and is not suitable for patients with sub-fertility due to fibroids. Endometrial ablation destroys the endometrial lining and reduces menstrual bleeding but is not appropriate for patients who desire fertility. Uterine artery embolisation is only recommended for patients who do not want to conceive as it can lead to obstetric risks such as placental abnormalities.

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

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  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old woman student presents to her general practitioner (GP) with menstrual irregularity....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman student presents to her general practitioner (GP) with menstrual irregularity. Her last menstrual period was 5 months ago. On examination, the GP notes an increased body mass index (BMI) and coarse dark hair over her stomach. There are no other relevant findings. The GP makes a referral to a gynaecologist.
      What is the most probable reason for this patient's menstrual irregularity?

      Your Answer: Turner syndrome

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Amenorrhea and Hirsutism in Women

      Amenorrhea, the absence of menstrual periods, and hirsutism, excessive hair growth, are symptoms that can be caused by various conditions. Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a common cause of anovulatory infertility and is diagnosed by the presence of two out of three criteria: ultrasound appearance of enlarged ovaries with multiple cysts, infrequent ovulation or anovulation, and clinical or biochemical evidence of hyperandrogenism. Turner syndrome, characterized by short stature, webbed neck, and absence of periods, is a genetic disorder that would not cause primary amenorrhea. Hyperprolactinemia, a syndrome of high prolactin levels, can cause cessation of ovulation and lactation but not an increase in BMI or hair growth. Premature ovarian failure has symptoms similar to menopause, such as flushing and vaginal dryness. Virilizing ovarian tumor can also cause amenorrhea and hirsutism, but PCOS is more likely and should be ruled out first.

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  • Question 16 - A 42-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of abdominal pain and heavy menstrual bleeding for the past 6 months. Upon examination, the abdomen is not tender, but the uterus feels enlarged. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometrial adenocarcinoma

      Correct Answer: Fibroids

      Explanation:

      Understanding Uterine Fibroids

      Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.

      Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.

      Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.

      Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A woman of 68 presents with four episodes of postmenopausal bleeding over the...

    Incorrect

    • A woman of 68 presents with four episodes of postmenopausal bleeding over the last 6 months. She is otherwise fit and well, although her body mass index is 38 kg/m2.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Explanation:

      postmenopausal Bleeding: Common Causes and Investigations

      postmenopausal bleeding can be caused by various factors, including atrophic vaginitis, endometrial atrophy, cervical or endometrial polyps, and endometrial hyperplasia/cancer. Among these causes, endometrial cancer is the most likely. Therefore, investigation for patients with postmenopausal bleeding is typically done in a specialist clinic, with transvaginal ultrasound, hysteroscopy, and biopsy.

      However, submucosal fibroids become quiescent following menopause and usually calcify, and there is no evidence of increased risk of endometrial cancer in women with fibroids. On the other hand, ovarian cancer rarely, if ever, presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Cervical ectropion is a condition of young women, and vaginal cancer is very rare and usually presents with vaginal discharge.

      In summary, postmenopausal bleeding should be investigated thoroughly to rule out any underlying serious conditions, such as endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. She had an appendicectomy 10 years ago. She denies any recent per-vaginal (PV) bleeding and her last menstrual period was six weeks ago. On examination, she has tenderness and guarding in the right iliac fossa. She also complains of right shoulder tip pain.
      Observations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Heart rate 110 beats per minute 60–100 beats per minute
      Blood pressure 120/80 mmHg <120/<80 mmHg
      Respiratory rate (RR) 16 breaths per minute 12–20 breaths per minute
      O2 saturation 98% 94–99%
      Temperature 37.2°C 36.5–37.5°C
      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian torsion

      Correct Answer: Ruptured ectopic

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Severe Iliac Fossa Pain in Reproductive-Age Women

      Severe, sudden-onset pain in the right or left iliac fossa is a common symptom of ectopic pregnancy in reproductive-age women. This pain may be accompanied by vaginal bleeding, shoulder tip pain, syncopal episodes, and shock. To rule out pregnancy, a urinary beta human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone (b-HCG) test should be performed, followed by a transvaginal ultrasound scan to confirm the diagnosis.

      Ovarian torsion may also cause iliac fossa pain, but it is unlikely to cause referred shoulder pain. Appendicitis is not a consideration in this scenario, as the patient does not have an appendix. Irritable bowel syndrome and inflammatory bowel disease are also unlikely diagnoses, as the patient’s tachycardia and right iliac fossa tenderness and guarding are not consistent with these conditions. Overall, a thorough evaluation is necessary to differentiate between these potential causes of severe iliac fossa pain in reproductive-age women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 24-year-old female about...

    Incorrect

    • You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 24-year-old female about the contraceptive patch.

      What are the proper steps to ensure the effective use of the contraceptive patch?

      Your Answer: Change patch fortnightly without breaks

      Correct Answer: Change patch weekly with a 1 week break after 3 patches

      Explanation:

      The contraceptive patch regime involves wearing one patch per week for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week. This method is gaining popularity due to its flexibility, as the patch can be changed up to 48 hours late without the need for backup contraception. Additionally, the patch’s transdermal absorption eliminates the need for extra precautions during episodes of vomiting or diarrhea. Similar to the pill, this method involves three weeks of contraceptive use followed by a one-week break, during which the woman will experience a withdrawal bleed.

      The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.

      If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.

      If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.

      If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A woman aged 57 presents with a unilateral ovarian cyst accompanied by a...

    Correct

    • A woman aged 57 presents with a unilateral ovarian cyst accompanied by a large omental metastasis. What is the preferred surgical treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: Omentectomy, total abdominal hysterectomy, and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

      Explanation:

      Surgical Options for Ovarian Cancer with Omental Involvement

      When it comes to ovarian cancer with confirmed malignancy, the first-line surgery should be a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. This surgery should also include the removal of any omental involvement. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be necessary. It’s important to note that ovarian cysts in postmenopausal women should always be assumed to be malignant. If there is omental metastasis, it confirms the diagnosis of ovarian cancer and surgery should include the removal of the ovaries, tubes, uterus, and omentum.

      If a patient wants to preserve the possibility of future fertility, excision of the omental metastasis and unilateral oophorectomy could be considered. However, for older patients, this is an unnecessary risk. Total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy would have been the correct approach without omental involvement. Total abdominal hysterectomy with unilateral oophorectomy could be used in younger patients to maintain hormonal balance and avoid the need for HRT. However, there is a risk for recurrence, and for this patient, the omental lesion should still be removed. It’s safer to remove the uterus as well to reduce the risk of ovarian malignancy recurrence and potential uterine malignancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old woman with a lengthy history of vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus complains of escalating itching and bleeding upon contact of the vulva. Upon examination, a 2.2 cm unilateral ulcer with an aggressive appearance is discovered. Biopsy results indicate invasive squamous cell carcinoma. There is no clinical indication of lymph node metastasis, and the patient is in good health. What is the suggested course of action?

      Your Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Simple Vulvectomy and Bilateral Inguinal Lymphadenectomy

      Vulval cancer is a rare form of cancer that accounts for less than 1% of cancer diagnoses. The labia majora are the most common site, followed by labia minora. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of vulval cancer, with carcinoma-in-situ being a precursor lesion that does not invade through the basement membrane. Risk factors for developing vulval cancer include increasing age, exposure to HPV, vulval lichen sclerosus et atrophicus, smoking, and immunosuppression.

      Patients may present with symptoms such as itching, pain, easy-contact bleeding of the vulva, changes in vulval skin, or frank ulcers/masses. The first lymph node station for metastases is the inguinal group. Surgery is the primary treatment for vulval cancer, with a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy being the usual surgery performed, even in the absence of clinically palpable groin lymph nodes.

      Radiotherapy is commonly used before and/or after surgery depending on the stage of the disease, but it is not curative and would not be offered in isolation to an otherwise healthy patient. Chemotherapy is not usually used as a primary treatment but is offered in disseminated malignancy. Wide local excision is only used for lesions less than 2 cm in diameter with a depth of less than 1 mm. Lesions larger than this require vulvectomy and lymph node clearance due to the risk of metastasis.

      In conclusion, a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy are the mainstay of treatment for vulval cancer, with radiotherapy and chemotherapy being used in certain cases. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with vulval cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman visits her GP clinic with concerns about her chances of getting pregnant. She typically takes the combined contraceptive pill but missed her pills on days 2 and 3 of the first week of her current packet. On day 4, she engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI). As a solution, you prescribe ulipristal acetate as an emergency contraceptive.

      What is the appropriate time for her to resume her regular hormonal contraception?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Correct Answer: Wait 5 days

      Explanation:

      Patients who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before resuming regular hormonal contraception. This is because hormonal contraception may be less effective when taken with ulipristal acetate, which could compromise its ability to prevent ovulation. However, there is an exception to this rule. If a patient is already taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has missed pills later than the first week of taking them, they can resume the COCP immediately after taking ulipristal acetate. Otherwise, patients should wait for 5 days before restarting hormonal contraception and use barrier methods during this period. It is not necessary to take a pregnancy test after taking ulipristal acetate unless the patient’s next period is more than 7 days late or lighter than usual. It is not contraindicated to use hormonal contraception with ulipristal acetate, but it is recommended to wait for 5 days before resuming it.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 56-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a complaint of...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with a complaint of urinary incontinence. She recently experienced a significant episode when she leaked urine while running to catch a bus. Previously, she had only noticed small leaks when coughing or laughing, and did not want to make a fuss. She reports no abdominal pain and has not had a menstrual period in 3 years. She has two children, both of whom were delivered vaginally and were large babies. Physical examination is unremarkable and a urine dipstick test is negative.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscle training

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Stress Urinary Incontinence

      Stress urinary incontinence is a common condition in women, especially those who have had vaginal deliveries and are getting older. It is caused by weak sphincter muscles, leading to leakage during activities such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. The first-line treatment for this condition is pelvic floor muscle training, which involves a minimum of eight contractions three times per day for 12 weeks.

      However, it is important to note that other treatment options, such as oxybutynin, pelvic ultrasound scans, urodynamic studies, and bladder training, are not recommended for stress urinary incontinence. Oxybutynin is used for overactive bladder or mixed urinary incontinence, while pelvic ultrasound scans are not indicated for urinary incontinence. Urodynamic studies are not recommended for women with simple stress incontinence on history and examination, and bladder training is used for urgency or mixed urinary incontinence, not stress incontinence. Therefore, pelvic floor muscle training remains the most effective treatment option for stress urinary incontinence.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 25-year-old woman comes to her University Health Service complaining of a fishy-smelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to her University Health Service complaining of a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge that she has noticed over the past few days. The discharge is yellow in colour and is accompanied by vulval itching. She has had protected sexual intercourse three times in the past six months and is not currently in a committed relationship. Upon investigation, her vaginal pH is found to be 6.0 and ovoid mobile parasites are observed on a wet saline mount. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing between common vaginal infections: Trichomoniasis, Bacterial Vaginosis, gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia, and Mycoplasma Genitalium

      When a woman presents with an elevated vaginal pH, a fish-smelling, yellow vaginal discharge, and ovoid trichomonads, the diagnosis of trichomoniasis (Trichomonas vaginalis) is strongly supported. A wet saline mount or anaerobic culture can confirm the diagnosis, with culture being particularly useful in men. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for seven days or a single 2g dose, and sexual partners should also be treated to prevent re-infection.

      Bacterial vaginosis is a differential diagnosis to consider, as it also presents with a fish-smelling discharge and a pH > 4.5. However, the presence of ovoid mobile parasites on wet saline mount suggests trichomoniasis as the more likely diagnosis. Bacterial vaginosis would show clue cells on wet saline mount.

      gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia are sexually transmitted infections that are more likely to be seen in patients with a history of unprotected sex. However, fish-smelling discharge is not characteristic of either infection. A specimen culture of gonorrhoeae would show Gram-negative diplococci, while chlamydia would not show ovoid mobile parasites on wet saline mount.

      Mycoplasma genitalium is another potential sexually transmitted infection that can cause urethritis, discharge, cervicitis, or endometritis in women. However, the wet saline mount results suggest that this is not the diagnosis, and fish-smelling discharge is not characteristic of this infection.

      In summary, a combination of clinical presentation, wet saline mount, and culture can help distinguish between common vaginal infections such as trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis, gonorrhoeae, chlamydia, and mycoplasma genitalium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 23-year-old woman contacts her GP clinic seeking a more dependable form of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman contacts her GP clinic seeking a more dependable form of contraception. She had visited her pharmacist the day before and received the levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill after engaging in unprotected sexual activity. As her healthcare provider, you recommend the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). What is the appropriate time for this patient to begin taking the COCP?

      Your Answer: 7 days after the emergency contraceptive pill

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Starting hormonal contraception immediately after using levonorgestrel emergency contraceptive pill is safe. However, if ulipristal was used, hormonal contraception should be started or restarted after 5 days, and barrier methods should be used during this time. Waiting for 7 or 30 days before starting hormonal contraception is unnecessary as levonorgestrel does not affect its efficacy. A pregnancy test is only recommended if the patient’s next period is more than 5-7 days late or lighter than usual, not routinely after taking levonorgestrel.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden onset of right-sided iliac fossa pain, right tip shoulder pain and a scanty brown per vaginum (PV) bleed. She missed her last menstrual period which was due eight weeks ago. She has an intrauterine device (IUD) in place.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Correct Answer: Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Abdominal Pain in Women of Childbearing Age

      One of the most likely diagnoses for a woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain is a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. This is especially true if the patient has a history of using an intrauterine device (IUD), has missed a period, and experiences scanty bleeding. However, other possible differential diagnoses include appendicitis, ovarian cysts, and pelvic inflammatory disease.

      Appendicitis may cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other symptoms and history suggest an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. A femoral hernia is inconsistent with the clinical findings. Ovarian cysts may also cause right iliac fossa pain, but the other features from the history point to an ectopic pregnancy as a more likely cause. Pelvic inflammatory disease is not consistent with the history described, as there is no offensive discharge and no sexual history provided. Additionally, pelvic inflammatory disease does not cause a delay in the menstrual period.

      It is important to always test for pregnancy in any woman of childbearing age presenting with abdominal pain, regardless of contraception use or perceived likelihood of pregnancy. Early diagnosis and treatment of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy can be life-saving.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP clinic urgently seeking advice as she had...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP clinic urgently seeking advice as she had unprotected sex last night. She has recently started taking the combined oral contraceptive pill but missed two pills because she forgot to bring them along while on vacation. She is currently in the first week of a new pack. What steps should her GP take now?

      Your Answer: Advise her to take an extra pill today, no extra precautions needed

      Correct Answer: Advise her to take an extra pill today, use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and prescribe emergency contraception

      Explanation:

      If a patient misses 2 pills in the first week of their combined oral contraceptive pill pack and has had unprotected sex during the pill-free interval or week 1, emergency contraception should be considered. The patient should take the missed pills as soon as possible and use condoms for the next 7 days. For patients who have only missed 1 pill, they should take it as soon as possible without needing extra precautions. If extra barrier contraception is needed for patients on the combined oral contraceptive pill, it should be used for at least 7 days. Patients on the progesterone-only pill only need barrier contraception for 2 days. Missing 1 pill at any time throughout a pack or starting a new pack 1 day late generally does not affect protection against pregnancy. Taking more than 2 contraceptive pills in a day is not recommended as it does not provide extra contraceptive effects and may cause side effects.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP complaining of cyclical pelvic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP complaining of cyclical pelvic pain and painful bowel movements. She has previously sought treatment from gynaecology and found relief with paracetamol and mefenamic acid, but the pain has returned and she is seeking alternative options. She is not pregnant but plans to start a family within the next few years. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition from the options provided below?

      Your Answer: Injectable depo-provera

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      If simple analgesia with paracetamol and NSAIDs is not effective in treating endometriosis symptoms, hormonal treatment with the combined oral contraceptive pill or a progesterone should be considered.

      Although a referral to gynaecology may be necessary due to the recurrence of symptoms and potential pelvic/bowel involvement, primary care can offer further treatment options in the meantime. Hormonal treatment is recommended for this patient, and the combined oral contraceptive pill or any of the progesterone options can be used. As the patient plans to start a family soon, a hormonal option that can be quickly reversed is the most suitable.

      Buscopan is not an appropriate treatment for endometriosis, as it only provides relief for menstrual cramps and is not a cure. It may be used to alleviate symptoms associated with irritable bowel syndrome.

      Injectable depo-provera is not the best option for this patient, as it can delay the return of fertility, which conflicts with her desire to start a family within the next year.

      Opioid analgesia is not recommended for endometriosis treatment, as it carries the risk of side effects and dependence. It is not a long-term solution for managing symptoms.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of abnormal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old teacher visits her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of abnormal discharge and vaginal discomfort. She also reports experiencing dyspareunia. During a speculum examination, the GP observes a curdy, white discharge covering the vaginal walls with a non-offensive odour. The GP also notes some vulval excoriations. What infection is likely causing this woman's discharge?

      Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis

      Correct Answer: Candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Vaginal discharge is a common symptom experienced by women, and it can be caused by various infections. Here are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge, along with their symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment options.

      Candidiasis: This infection is caused by Candida fungi, particularly Candida albicans. Symptoms include vaginal itch, thick discharge with a consistency similar to cottage cheese, vaginal discomfort, and pain during sexual intercourse. Diagnosis is usually clinical, and treatment includes good hygiene, emollients, loose-fitting underwear, and antifungal cream or pessary, or oral antifungal medication.

      Trichomoniasis: This infection is caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis. Symptoms include dysuria, itch, and yellow-green discharge that can have a strong odor. Up to 50% of infected individuals are asymptomatic.

      Bacterial vaginosis: This infection is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobes in the vagina, most commonly Gardnerella vaginalis. Symptoms include a thin, white discharge, vaginal pH >4.5, and clue cells seen on microscopy. Treatment of choice is oral metronidazole.

      Streptococcal infection: Streptococcal vulvovaginitis presents with inflammation, itch, and a strong-smelling vaginal discharge. It is most commonly seen in pre-pubertal girls.

      Chlamydia: Although Chlamydia infection can present with urethral purulent discharge and dyspareunia, most infected individuals are asymptomatic. Chlamydia-associated discharge is typically more purulent and yellow-clear in appearance, rather than cheese-like.

      In conclusion, proper diagnosis and treatment of vaginal discharge depend on identifying the underlying cause. It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any symptoms of vaginal discharge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old nulliparous woman presents to her General Practice for a routine cervical...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old nulliparous woman presents to her General Practice for a routine cervical smear. Her previous smear was negative, and she is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She had one episode of gonorrhoeae treated two years ago. During the examination, the practice nurse observes a soft, pea-sized, fluctuant lump on the posterior vestibule near the vaginal opening. There is some minor labial swelling, but it is non-tender. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lipoma

      Correct Answer: Bartholin cyst

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Lumps in the Vaginal Area in Women

      The vaginal area in women can be affected by various lumps, which can cause discomfort and concern. Here are some of the most common causes of lumps in the vaginal area in women:

      Bartholin Cyst: This type of cyst occurs when the ducts connecting the Bartholin glands, which are located near the introitus at the 4 and 8 o’clock positions, become obstructed. Bartholin cysts are usually soft, small, and asymptomatic, but they can cause discomfort and require removal in women over 40 to rule out vaginal carcinoma.

      Lipoma: A lipoma is a benign adipose tissue that can be found on the labia majora. It is a larger and rarer lump than a Bartholin cyst.

      Bartholin Abscess: This condition arises from an infected Bartholin cyst and causes significant labial swelling, erythema, tenderness, and pain on micturition and superficial dyspareunia. Treatment includes antibiotics and warm baths, but surgical management may be necessary.

      Haematoma: A haematoma is a collection of blood cells outside the vessels, which presents as a firm, red-purple lump. It usually occurs after trauma or surgery.

      Infected Epidermal Cyst: Epidermal cysts are benign tumors that can occur in the perineal area. When infected, they cause erythema, pain, and extravasation of keratin material.

      Understanding the Different Types of Lumps in the Vaginal Area in Women

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  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the GP with a three-day history of vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the GP with a three-day history of vaginal itching and thick, non-odorous white discharge. She had a similar complaint four months ago but has no other medical history. The patient is married and sexually active with her husband, and her menstrual cycle is regular, following a 28-day cycle. Vaginal pH testing shows a value of 4.3. What further tests should be conducted before initiating treatment?

      Your Answer: High vaginal swab

      Correct Answer: None needed, the diagnosis is clinical

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of vaginal candidiasis does not require a high vaginal swab if the symptoms are highly suggestive. In fact, the diagnosis can be made clinically based on the patient’s symptoms. For example, if a patient presents with thickened, white discharge that resembles cottage cheese and vaginal itching, along with a normal vaginal pH, it is very likely that they have vaginal candidiasis. It is important to note that glycated haemoglobin (HbA1c) is not necessary for diagnosis unless the patient has recurrent episodes of vaginal candidiasis, which may indicate diabetes mellitus. Additionally, a midstream urine sample is not useful in diagnosing vaginal candidiasis and should only be used if a sexually-transmitted infection is suspected.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 32 - A woman aged 74 comes in with a 2-cm unilateral, invasive vulvar carcinoma,...

    Incorrect

    • A woman aged 74 comes in with a 2-cm unilateral, invasive vulvar carcinoma, without signs of lymph node involvement. What is the suggested course of action?

      Your Answer: Chemotherapy

      Correct Answer: Simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Vulval Cancer: Surgery, Radiation Therapy, and Chemotherapy

      Vulval cancer is a type of cancer that affects the external female genitalia. The lymphatic drainage of the vulva is to the inguinal nodes, which means that even if there is no clinical evidence of lymphatic involvement, the inguinal nodes should be removed. This is done through a simple vulvectomy and bilateral inguinal lymphadenectomy. Radiation therapy can also be used for T2 or greater lesions, when combined with surgery. The role of radiation is often to shrink tumours to make a surgical excision more likely to succeed or to increase the chance of remission.

      It is important to note that vulvectomy without lymph node surgery or biopsy is inappropriate. Only in stage 1a cancer with a depth of invasion of <1 mm can lymph nodes safely not be biopsied or removed. Chemotherapy largely plays a role as neoadjuvant or adjuvant therapy in vulval cancer. This is particularly important for tumours which extend within 1 cm of structures that would not be surgically removed such as the urethra, clitoris and anus. It can also be used where repeat surgery in positive margins may not be feasible. Wide local excision, also termed radical local excision, is appropriate, depending on the staging of the lesion. If the tumour is localised, ie T1 staging, then a radical local excision is a viable option, regardless of the location. As the tumour is described as invasive, it must be T2 or greater in staging and therefore needs more invasive surgery. In summary, treatment options for vulval cancer include surgery, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy, depending on the staging and location of the tumour.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 33 - A 27-year-old nulliparous woman has presented to her General Practitioner (GP), requesting an...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old nulliparous woman has presented to her General Practitioner (GP), requesting an appointment to discuss contraceptive options. She has previously relied on condoms for contraception but would now prefer alternative means of contraception. Her last menstrual period was one week ago. Her previous cervical smears were normal, and she denies any symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of a sexually transmitted infection. She has a past medical history of epilepsy, for which she takes regular carbamazepine, and menorrhagia secondary to several large uterine fibroids, for which she takes tranexamic acid. She does not wish to have children in the near future. She does not smoke. The GP decides to take a blood pressure reading and calculates the patient’s body mass index (BMI):
      Investigation Result
      Blood pressure 132/71 mmHg
      BMI 28 kg/m2
      Which of the following would be the contraceptive most suited to the patient?

      Your Answer: progesterone-only injectable

      Explanation:

      Contraceptive Options for Patients with Uterine Fibroids and Carbamazepine Use

      Patients with uterine fibroids and concurrent use of carbamazepine may have limited contraceptive options due to drug interactions and uterine cavity distortion. The progesterone-only injectable is a suitable option as it does not interact with enzyme inducers and is not affected by uterine cavity distortion. The copper intrauterine device and levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system are not recommended in this case. The progesterone-only implant and combined oral contraceptive pill have severe interactions with carbamazepine, reducing their efficacy. It is important to consider individual patient factors and discuss all available contraceptive options with them.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 34 - A 54-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has had a...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has had a positive CA125 blood test, ultrasound scan and CT abdomen and pelvis. She is found to have stage 2 ovarian cancer. What is the primary treatment?

      Your Answer: Surgical excision of the tumour

      Explanation:

      Surgical removal of the tumour is the primary treatment for ovarian cancers in stages 2-4, often accompanied by chemotherapy as well, according to NICE CG122.

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 35 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with abdominal distension and...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with abdominal distension and shortness of breath. A chest x-ray reveals a right pleural effusion. Following the removal of an ovarian mass, it is determined to be benign on histology. What is the name of this syndrome?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Meig's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Meig’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of a non-cancerous ovarian tumor, as well as ascites and pleural effusion. This condition is uncommon and typically affects women who are 40 years of age or older, with the ovarian tumor usually being a fibroma. Treatment involves surgical removal of the tumor, although drainage of the ascites and pleural effusion may be necessary beforehand to alleviate symptoms and improve lung function prior to anesthesia. The prognosis for Meig’s syndrome is favorable due to the benign nature of the tumor.

      Types of Ovarian Tumours

      Ovarian tumours can be classified into four main types: surface derived tumours, germ cell tumours, sex cord-stromal tumours, and metastatic tumours. Surface derived tumours are the most common, accounting for around 65% of ovarian tumours, and include the greatest number of malignant tumours. Examples of surface derived tumours include serous cystadenoma, serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, and Brenner tumour.

      Germ cell tumours, which are more common in adolescent girls, account for 15-20% of tumours and have similar cancer types to those seen in the testicle. Examples of germ cell tumours include teratoma, dysgerminoma, yolk sac tumour, and choriocarcinoma.

      Sex cord-stromal tumours represent around 3-5% of ovarian tumours and often produce hormones. Examples of sex cord-stromal tumours include granulosa cell tumour, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour, and fibroma.

      Metastatic tumours account for around 5% of tumours and occur when cancer cells from other parts of the body spread to the ovaries. An example of a metastatic tumour is Krukenberg tumour, which is a mucin-secreting signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma that results from metastases from a gastrointestinal tumour.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 36 - A newly registered couple comes to see you as they have been trying...

    Incorrect

    • A newly registered couple comes to see you as they have been trying to have a baby for 4 months. She is 32 years old and was previously taking the oral contraceptive pill for 8 years. Her body mass index (BMI) is 27 and she is a non-smoker. She reports regular periods. He is 36 years old without medical history. His BMI 25 and he smokes five cigarettes per day.
      What would you suggest next?

      Your Answer: Sperm analysis

      Correct Answer: Advice about weight loss and lifestyle measures

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatment for Couples Trying to Conceive

      When a couple is trying to conceive, lifestyle measures should be the first-line treatment. This includes weight loss and quitting smoking, as both can negatively impact fertility. It’s also important to check for folic acid intake, alcohol and drug use, previous infections, and mental health issues. If the couple is having regular sexual intercourse without contraception, 84% will become pregnant within a year and 92% within two years. Therefore, further investigations and referrals to infertility services are not recommended until after a year of trying. Blood tests are not necessary if the woman is having regular periods. Sperm analysis can be performed after a year of trying, and a female pelvic ultrasound is not necessary at this point. The focus should be on lifestyle changes to improve the chances of conception.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 37 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain. She has a medical history of endometriosis and reports that her last period was one week ago. An ultrasound scan reveals the presence of free fluid in her pelvic region. What could be the underlying cause of her acute abdomen?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Correct Answer: Ruptured endometrioma

      Explanation:

      A rupture endometrioma can result in a sudden and severe pain, given the patient’s medical history of endometriosis, acute abdomen, and fluid accumulation in the pelvis. Diverticular disease is an improbable diagnosis in this age group and does not match the symptoms described. Additionally, the patient’s current menstrual cycle rules out endometriosis pain as a possible cause.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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  • Question 38 - A 29-year-old woman, who previously had a negative HPV smear, has been requested...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman, who previously had a negative HPV smear, has been requested to visit the General Practice Surgery to discuss the outcome of her recent smear. The results letter states that she is 'human papillomavirus negative'. As per NICE guidelines, what is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer back to routine screening, repeat in five years

      Correct Answer: Refer back to routine screening, repeat in three years

      Explanation:

      Cervical Screening and Referral Guidelines

      Routine Screening and Recall

      Women between the ages of 25 and 49 are screened for cervical cancer every three years. If a smear sample is negative for high-risk (HR) human papillomavirus (HPV), the patient is referred back to routine recall according to her age group.

      Referral to Colposcopy

      If reflex HR HPV testing is positive, the patient is referred to colposcopy for further assessment within six weeks. Women with high-grade dyskaryosis or abnormalities in glandular cells are referred to colposcopy as urgent appointments to be seen within two weeks. Women with borderline or mild dyskaryosis and who are HR HPV positive are referred to colposcopy as routine appointments to be seen within six weeks.

      HPV Test of Cure

      Women who have undergone treatment for cervical disease are offered an HPV test of cure six months after treatment. If the test is negative for dyskaryosis and HR HPV, the woman is recalled in three years. If the 6-month post-treatment test is negative for dyskaryosis but positive for HR HPV, the woman is re-referred to colposcopy. If there is evidence of high-grade dyskaryosis, the woman is referred back to colposcopy for reassessment.

      Recall Frequency

      Women aged 25-49 are recalled for routine screening every three years. Women aged 50-64 are recalled every five years.

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  • Question 39 - A 17-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea for 6 months. She has a history...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea for 6 months. She has a history of irregular periods with a cycle ranging from 25-39 days long and has missed a whole cycle before. She is concerned about the potential impact on her future fertility. The patient denies being sexually active and has no syndromic features on examination. There is no significant acne or excess body hair. She has a BMI of 20 kg/m² and is currently training for a half marathon. What is the probable cause of her condition?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

      Correct Answer: Hypothalamic hypogonadism

      Explanation:

      Secondary amenorrhoea is a common issue in highly athletic women, often caused by hypothalamic hypogonadism. This is the case for a young woman who is training for a marathon and has experienced oligomenorrhoea in the past. When a woman’s body has low levels of fat, the hypothalamus releases less gonadotrophin-releasing hormone, leading to hypogonadism. This is believed to occur because very low-fat levels are not conducive to successful pregnancy in females.

      While an ultrasound may reveal many cysts on the ovaries, this woman does not meet the Rotterdam criteria for a diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Although she experiences oligomenorrhoea, she does not exhibit signs of hyperandrogenism and has a lower-normal weight. It is also possible that she is pregnant, and a urine or serum pregnancy test should be conducted to rule out this possibility, even if she claims not to be sexually active.

      While primary ovarian failure is a potential cause, it is not the most likely explanation in this case. However, it should still be investigated with gonadotrophins. If ovarian failure is present, gonadotrophin levels will be elevated, indicating that the hypothalamus and pituitary gland are not providing negative feedback on hormone release.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 40 - A 15-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old girl is brought in by her parents who are concerned about her lack of menstruation. They have noticed that all her friends have already started their periods and are worried that something may be wrong with her. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      FSH 12 IU/L (4-8)
      LH 13 IU/L (4-8)
      What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Normal late menarche

      Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

      Explanation:

      If a patient with primary amenorrhea has elevated FSH/LH levels, it may indicate gonadal dysgenesis, such as Turner’s syndrome.

      Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management

      Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.

      There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.

      The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.

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  • Question 41 - A 20-year-old woman complains of heavy and irregular periods, postcoital bleeding, and deep...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman complains of heavy and irregular periods, postcoital bleeding, and deep dyspareunia that have been present for the past six months.

      What is the probable diagnosis for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Anovulatory cycles

      Correct Answer: Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease

      Explanation:

      Chronic PID: A Possible Cause of Irregular Menses, Deep Dyspareunia, and Post-Coital Bleeding in Young Females

      Chronic pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a possible diagnosis for young females experiencing irregular menses, deep dyspareunia, and post-coital bleeding. This condition is typically caused by a Chlamydia infection. PID is a result of the inflammation of the female reproductive organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries. The inflammation can cause scarring and damage to the reproductive organs, leading to long-term complications such as infertility.

      Irregular menses, deep dyspareunia, and post-coital bleeding are common symptoms of chronic PID. Irregular menses refer to menstrual cycles that are shorter or longer than the usual 28-day cycle. Deep dyspareunia is a condition where a woman experiences pain during sexual intercourse, particularly in the lower abdomen. Post-coital bleeding is the occurrence of vaginal bleeding after sexual intercourse.

      Early diagnosis and treatment of chronic PID can prevent long-term complications. Treatment typically involves antibiotics to clear the infection and pain management to alleviate symptoms. In severe cases, surgery may be necessary to remove damaged tissue.

      In conclusion, chronic PID is a possible cause of irregular menses, deep dyspareunia, and post-coital bleeding in young females.

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  • Question 42 - A 22-year-old female presents to her general practitioner seeking contraception. She has a...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old female presents to her general practitioner seeking contraception. She has a past medical history of spina bifida, for which she uses a wheelchair. She has a family history of endometrial cancer, smokes 5 cigarettes a day and regularly drinks 20 units of alcohol per week. Her observations show:

      Respiratory rate 18/min
      Blood pressure 95/68 mmHg
      Temperature 37.1ºC
      Heart rate 92 bpm
      Oxygen saturation 97% on room air

      What would be a contraindication for starting the combined oral contraceptive pill for this patient?

      Your Answer: Her alcohol consumption

      Correct Answer: Her wheelchair use

      Explanation:

      The use of COCP as a first-line contraceptive should be avoided for wheelchair users due to their increased risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT). The presence of oestradiol in COCP increases the risk of DVT, and immobility associated with wheelchair use further exacerbates this risk. Therefore, the risks of using COCP outweigh the benefits for wheelchair users, and it is classified as UKMEC 3.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

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  • Question 43 - A 32-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception four weeks after...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on contraception four weeks after giving birth to her second child. She is currently breastfeeding and has a BMI of 27 kg/m^2. Her husband has a vasectomy scheduled in two months. What is the best contraceptive option for her?

      Your Answer: Intra-uterine progesterone-only system (Mirena)

      Correct Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Explanation:

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 44 - A 49-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine cervical smear. Later, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine cervical smear. Later, she receives a phone call informing her that the smear was insufficient. She recalls having an inadequate smear more than ten years ago.

      What is the correct course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Refer to gynaecology

      Correct Answer: Repeat smear in 3 months

      Explanation:

      When a cervical cancer screening smear is inadequate, the recommended course of action is to repeat the smear within 3 months. It is not necessary to consider any previous inadequate smears from a decade ago. Therefore, repeating the smear in 1 month or 3 years is not appropriate. Referral for colposcopy or gynaecology is also not necessary at this stage, as it should only be considered if the second smear in 3 months’ time is also inadequate.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 45 - A 30-year-old woman with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle reports experiencing mood changes...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle reports experiencing mood changes during the week leading up to her period. She describes feeling increasingly anxious and irritable, and these symptoms are severe enough to affect her work and social life. She has a history of migraine with aura. What is the most suitable intervention to alleviate her premenstrual symptoms?

      Your Answer: Contraceptive implant

      Correct Answer: Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)

      Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.

      Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.

      Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.

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  • Question 46 - A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of vaginal soreness, itchiness,...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old female patient visits her GP with complaints of vaginal soreness, itchiness, and discharge. During the examination, the doctor notices an inflamed vulva and thick, white, lumpy vaginal discharge. The cervix appears normal, but there is discomfort during bimanual examination. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which is well-controlled with salbutamol, and type one diabetes, and has no known allergies. What is the most suitable next step in her care, considering the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Prescribe oral fluconazole as a single oral dose

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with symptoms highly suggestive of vaginal candidiasis, a high vaginal swab is not necessary for diagnosis and treatment can be initiated with a single oral dose of fluconazole. Symptoms of vaginal candidiasis include vulval soreness, itching, and thick, white vaginal discharge. Prescribing oral metronidazole as a single dose or taking a high vaginal swab would be incorrect as they are used to treat Trichomonas vaginalis infections or bacterial vaginosis, respectively.

      Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.

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  • Question 47 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with concerns about her inability to conceive despite trying for two years with her regular partner. She has a BMI of 29 kg/m² and a known history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. What medication would be the most effective in restoring regular ovulation in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Folic acid

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      For overweight or obese women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) who are having difficulty getting pregnant, the initial approach is weight loss. If weight loss is not successful, either due to the woman’s inability to lose weight or failure to conceive despite weight loss, metformin can be used as an additional treatment.

      Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.

      Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 48 - A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of involuntary urine leakage when she sneezes or coughs. She has also had similar incidents while exercising in the gym, which has caused significant embarrassment and now wears pads whenever she goes out.

      She denies urinary urgency or frequency and opens her bladder once at night. She has no bowel-related symptoms.

      Despite trying pelvic floor exercises with support from a women's health physiotherapist for the past 6 months, she still finds the symptoms very debilitating. However, she denies feeling depressed and is keen to try further treatment, although is frightened by the prospect of surgery and would prefer alternative measures.

      Urinalysis is unremarkable, and on vaginal examination, there is no evidence of pelvic organ prolapse.

      What is the next most appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Offer a trial of oxybutynin

      Correct Answer: Offer a trial of duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle training is the most effective and cost-efficient treatment for stress urinary incontinence in women. Ring pessaries can also be used as a non-surgical option for pelvic organ prolapse. Oxybutynin is typically used for urge incontinence, but in this scenario, the woman only experiences stress incontinence. While a referral to urogynaecology may be considered for further investigation or surgery, it is not necessary to do so urgently. Pelvic floor exercises should be attempted for at least 3 months under the guidance of a continence adviser, specialist nurse, or women’s health physiotherapist. As the woman’s symptoms persist despite 6 months of trying this approach, it would be inappropriate to suggest continuing with the same strategy.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 49 - A 35-year-old woman visits the gynaecology clinic with a history of endometriosis diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits the gynaecology clinic with a history of endometriosis diagnosed 3 years ago after laparoscopic surgery. She complains of chronic pelvic pain that intensifies during her menstrual cycle and deep dyspareunia. Despite trying ibuprofen, the progesterone-only pill, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, she has not found relief. The patient has no medical history, allergies, or current desire to conceive. What would be the recommended course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a regular weak opioid

      Correct Answer: Trial a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonist

      Explanation:

      If a patient with endometriosis is not experiencing relief from their symptoms with a combination of non-steroidal anti-inflammatories and the combined oral contraceptive pill, they may be prescribed gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonists (GnRH agonists) as a second-line medical management option. progesterone-only contraception may also be offered in this stage of treatment. GnRH agonists work by down-regulating GnRH receptors, which reduces the production of oestrogen and androgen. This reduction in hormones can alleviate the symptoms of endometriosis, as oestrogen thickens the uterine lining. The copper intrauterine device is not an appropriate treatment option, as it does not contain hormones and may actually worsen symptoms. NICE does not recommend the use of opioids in the management of endometriosis, as there is a high risk of adverse effects and addiction. Amitriptyline may be considered as a treatment option for chronic pain, but it is important to explore other medical and surgical options for endometriosis before prescribing it, as it comes with potential side effects and risks.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 50 - Linda is a 32-year-old woman who presents to you with a 6 month...

    Incorrect

    • Linda is a 32-year-old woman who presents to you with a 6 month history of chronic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea that is beginning to impact her daily life, especially at work. During further inquiry, she also reports experiencing painful bowel movements that begin just before her period and persist throughout it. You suspect endometriosis and Linda inquires about the definitive test to confirm this diagnosis.

      What is the gold-standard investigation that can be performed to confirm endometriosis for Linda?

      Your Answer: Pelvic MRI scan

      Correct Answer: Laparoscopic visualisation of the pelvis

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, laparoscopy is the most reliable method of diagnosing endometriosis in patients who are suspected to have the condition. Even if a transvaginal or transabdominal ultrasound appears normal, laparoscopy should still be considered. If a thorough laparoscopy is conducted and no signs of endometriosis are found, the patient should be informed that they do not have the condition and offered alternative treatment options.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (12/50) 24%
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