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  • Question 1 - A 78-year-old man with diabetes mellitus came in with abrupt onset of uncontrolled...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man with diabetes mellitus came in with abrupt onset of uncontrolled flinging movements of the right arm that ceased during sleep. What could be the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Contralateral subthalamic nucleus infarction

      Explanation:

      Hemiballismus and its Causes

      Hemiballismus is a medical condition characterized by involuntary flinging motions of the extremities, which can be violent and continuous. It usually affects only one side of the body and can involve proximal, distal, or facial muscles. The movements worsen with activity and decrease with relaxation. This condition is caused by a decrease in activity of the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia, which results in decreased suppression of involuntary movements.

      Hemiballismus can be caused by a variety of factors, including strokes, traumatic brain activity, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, hyperglycemia, malignancy, vascular malformations, tuberculomas, and demyelinating plaques. In patients with diabetes, it is likely due to a vascular event in the contralateral subthalamic nucleus.

      Treatment for hemiballismus should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause. If pharmacological treatment is necessary, an antidopaminergic such as haloperidol or chlorpromazine may be used. Other options include topiramate, intrathecal baclofen, botulinum toxin, and tetrabenazine. In cases where other treatments have failed, functional neurosurgery may be an option.

      In summary, hemiballismus is a condition that causes involuntary flinging motions of the extremities and can be caused by various factors. Treatment should begin with identifying and treating the underlying cause, and pharmacological and surgical options may be necessary in some cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 2 - A 31-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea and periodic breast discharge. She has never been pregnant and has not been sexually active for the past 2 years. She is not on any regular medications and has had regular menstrual cycles in the past. On breast examination, there are no abnormalities and she has normal secondary sexual characteristics.
      What is the most suitable initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prolactin level

      Explanation:

      Investigating Hyperprolactinaemia: Tests and Imaging

      Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin, commonly caused by a microadenoma in the pituitary gland. While no single test can determine the cause of hyperprolactinaemia, a prolactinoma is likely if the prolactin level is above 250 ng/ml. FSH levels may be low due to the inhibitory effect of raised prolactin, but this is not diagnostic. A skull X-ray may show an enlarged pituitary fossa, but only with large adenomas, making it an inappropriate investigation. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferable to CT for further investigation into the cause of hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, thyroid function tests may be necessary to investigate mildly raised prolactin levels in the absence of pituitary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      54.8
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea for the past six months. She recently experienced moderate vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. Additionally, she has gained around 14 pounds in weight during this time. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Secondary Amenorrhea and Miscarriage: A Possible Sign of Pregnancy

      Secondary amenorrhea, or the absence of menstrual periods for at least three consecutive months in women who have previously had regular cycles, can be a sign of pregnancy. In cases where a patient with secondary amenorrhea experiences a miscarriage, it is important to consider the possibility of pregnancy. This information is highlighted in the book Williams Gynecology, 4th edition, authored by Barbara L. Hoffman, John O. Schorge, Lisa M. Halvorson, Cherine A. Hamid, Marlene M. Corton, and Joseph I. Schaffer.

      The authors emphasize the importance of considering pregnancy as a possible cause of secondary amenorrhea, especially in cases where a miscarriage has occurred. This highlights the need for healthcare providers to be vigilant in their assessment of patients with secondary amenorrhea and to consider pregnancy as a possible diagnosis. Early detection of pregnancy can help ensure appropriate prenatal care and management, which can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

      In conclusion, secondary amenorrhea followed by a miscarriage should raise suspicion of pregnancy. Healthcare providers should be aware of this possibility and consider pregnancy as a potential diagnosis in patients with secondary amenorrhea. Early detection and appropriate management of pregnancy can improve outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      53.5
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  • Question 4 - What is the probable diagnosis for a 15-year-old girl who experiences recurring pelvic...

    Incorrect

    • What is the probable diagnosis for a 15-year-old girl who experiences recurring pelvic pain but has not yet begun menstruating?

      Your Answer: Anovulatory cycles

      Correct Answer: Haematocolpos

      Explanation:

      Haematocolpos: A Condition of Blood Accumulation in the Vagina

      Haematocolpos is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of blood in the vagina. This condition is usually caused by an imperforate hymen, which prevents menstrual blood from flowing out of the body. As a result, the blood accumulates in the vagina, leading to discomfort and pain. Haematocolpos is a rare condition that affects mostly young girls who have not yet started menstruating. It can also occur in women who have undergone surgery to remove the cervix or uterus. Treatment for haematocolpos usually involves surgical intervention to remove the blockage and allow the blood to flow out of the body. With prompt diagnosis and treatment, most women with haematocolpos can recover fully and resume their normal activities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 5 - What is a common clinical feature of hyperthyroidism? ...

    Correct

    • What is a common clinical feature of hyperthyroidism?

      Your Answer: Heat intolerance

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Disorders

      Thyroid disorders are characterized by the dysfunction of the thyroid gland, which can lead to a variety of symptoms. Hypothyroidism, for example, is marked by weight gain, bradycardia, and dry skin. On the other hand, hyperthyroidism is the excess secretion of thyroid hormones, which can stimulate basal metabolic rate and heighten catecholamine sensitivity. The three most common causes of primary hyperthyroidism are Graves’ disease, toxic adenoma, and toxic multinodular goitre. Other causes include de Quervain’s (post-viral) thyroiditis and drugs such as amiodarone.

      One of the key symptoms of thyroid disorders is polydipsia, which refers to excessive thirst. Excess levothyroxine ingestion can also cause a biochemical picture similar to primary thyroid disease, with a suppression of thyroid-stimulating hormone and an elevated free thyroxine (T4) in plasma. It is important to understand the different types of thyroid disorders and their causes in order to properly diagnose and treat them. By doing so, individuals can manage their symptoms and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      11.5
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  • Question 6 - What is the most frequent organic cause of anxiety symptoms? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent organic cause of anxiety symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phaeochromocytoma

      Correct Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Organic Causes of Anxiety

      Anxiety can be caused by various factors, including organic causes. One of the more common organic causes of anxiety is hypoglycaemia. However, there are other organic causes that can also lead to anxiety. These include alcohol withdrawal, drug intoxication or withdrawal, thyroxine, and paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardias. While phaeochromocytoma is a rare cause of anxiety, carcinoid does not cause anxiety at all. It is important to note that carcinoma of the bronchus and hyperparathyroidism are more likely to present with depression rather than anxiety.

      It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of anxiety to provide appropriate treatment. If an organic cause is suspected, further evaluation and testing may be necessary to determine the root cause of the anxiety. By addressing the underlying cause, it may be possible to alleviate or even eliminate the symptoms of anxiety. Therefore, it is important to consider all possible causes of anxiety, including organic causes, to provide the best possible care for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      19.4
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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old female presents with symptoms of weight loss and irritability. Upon conducting...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female presents with symptoms of weight loss and irritability. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, the results reveal a Free T4 level of 32.9 pmol/L (9.8-23.1), TSH level of <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.50), and Free T3 level of 11.1 pmol/L (3.5-6.5). During examination, the patient exhibits a fine tremor, pulse of 95 beats per minute, a smooth goitre with a bruit, and lid lag without any other eye signs. What is the most likely cause for these thyroid function test results?

      Your Answer: Graves' disease

      Explanation:

      TFTs and Hyperthyroidism

      Thyroid function tests (TFTs) can help diagnose hyperthyroidism, which can be caused by Graves’ disease, Hashitoxicosis, or Multinodular goitre. However, the presence of a thyroid bruit, which suggests increased vascularity due to stimulation by a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibody, is a distinguishing feature of Graves’ disease. This condition is the only one where a thyroid bruit is expected. While eye signs such as proptosis, chemosis, and exophthalmos are common in Graves’ disease, they are not always present.

      Overall, TFTs are a useful tool in identifying hyperthyroidism, and the presence of a thyroid bruit can help differentiate between the different causes. However, other symptoms and signs, such as eye changes, may also be present and should be taken into consideration when making a diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male with a diagnosis of lung cancer presents with fatigue and lightheadedness. Upon examination, the following results are obtained:

      Plasma sodium concentration 115 mmol/L (137-144)
      Potassium 3.5 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      Urea 3.2 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 67 µmol/L (60-110)

      What is the probable reason for his symptoms based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion

      Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) is a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is caused by the overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) by the posterior pituitary gland. Tumors such as bronchial carcinoma can cause the ectopic elaboration of ADH, leading to dilutional hyponatremia. The diagnosis of SIADH is one of exclusion, but it can be supported by a high urine sodium concentration with high urine osmolality.

      Hypoadrenalism is less likely to cause hyponatremia, as it is usually associated with hyperkalemia and mild hyperuricemia. On the other hand, diabetes insipidus is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb water, leading to excessive thirst and urination.

      It is important to diagnose and treat SIADH promptly to prevent complications such as seizures, coma, and even death. Treatment options include fluid restriction, medications to block the effects of ADH, and addressing the underlying cause of the condition.

      In conclusion, SIADH is a condition that can cause low levels of sodium in the blood due to the overproduction of ADH. It is important to differentiate it from other conditions that can cause hyponatremia and to treat it promptly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      64
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  • Question 9 - A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall over...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department following a fall over the curb. She tells you that she is a refugee from Afghanistan. Imaging reveals a fracture of the pubic rami.
      What is the most probable reason for this injury?

      Your Answer: Osteomalacia

      Explanation:

      Common Musculoskeletal Conditions: Osteomalacia, Tuberculosis, Osteoporosis, Osteogenesis Imperfecta, and Osteosarcoma

      Osteomalacia is a condition that occurs due to vitamin D deficiency or defects in phosphate metabolism, resulting in soft bones. Patients may experience bone and joint pain, muscle weakness, or fractures. Treatment involves vitamin D or calcium supplementation, braces, or surgery.

      Tuberculosis can affect the musculoskeletal system, particularly the spine and weightbearing joints. Extrapulmonary tuberculosis can cause a pathological fracture, but osteomalacia is more likely in this case.

      Osteoporosis is a metabolic bone disease that commonly affects patients over 50 years old. It results from an imbalance in bone formation and resorption, leading to osteoporotic fractures from low energy trauma.

      Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital disease characterized by easily fractured bones, bone deformities, and bowed legs and arms. It is caused by mutations in collagen type 1.

      Osteosarcoma is a primary bone tumor that frequently presents in children and young adults. Symptoms include bone pain and tissue swelling or mass, most commonly affecting the knee joint.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      42.8
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  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old patient presents with decompensated liver disease due to hepatocellular carcinoma. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with decompensated liver disease due to hepatocellular carcinoma. She is currently encephalopathic and has an INR of 6. What low-dose medication can be safely administered?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Correct Answer: Codeine

      Explanation:

      Adjusting Drug Dosages for Patients with Hepatic Impairment

      Patients with hepatic impairment may require adjustments to their medication regimen to prevent further liver damage or reduced drug metabolism. Certain drugs should be avoided altogether, including paracetamol, carbamazepine, oral contraceptive pills, ergometrine, and anticoagulants or antiplatelets like aspirin or warfarin due to the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Other medications, such as opiates, methotrexate, theophylline, and phenytoin, may still be prescribed but at a reduced dose to minimize potential harm to the liver. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of each medication and adjust dosages accordingly for patients with hepatic impairment. Proper medication management can help improve patient outcomes and prevent further liver damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      68.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (7/10) 70%
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