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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman is in the labour ward and ready to deliver...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman is in the labour ward and ready to deliver her second child. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated thus far. However, her first child had to stay in neonatal intensive care shortly after birth due to an infection but is now healthy. The latest vaginal swabs indicate the presence of Streptococcus agalactiae. She has no other medical conditions and is in good health.
      What is the best course of action for managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Intrapartum IV benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis during childbirth. It is important to recognize that Streptococcus agalactiae is the same as group B streptococcus (GBS). According to the guidelines of the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, mothers who have had a previous pregnancy complicated by neonatal sepsis should receive intravenous benzylpenicillin antibiotic prophylaxis during delivery. Administering IV benzylpenicillin to the neonate after birth is not recommended unless the neonate shows signs and symptoms of sepsis. Intrapartum IV benzathine benzylpenicillin is not used for GBS prophylaxis and is instead used to manage syphilis.

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old first-time mother gave birth to a healthy baby girl with an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old first-time mother gave birth to a healthy baby girl with an APGAR score of 10 at 1, 5, and 10 minutes. However, during delivery, the mother experienced a perineal tear, and the midwife has called the doctor to suture it. Upon examination, it was found that the injury affected the superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles, but the anal sphincter remained intact. What is the degree of injury?

      Your Answer: Third degree

      Correct Answer: Second degree

      Explanation:

      The patient in this case had a second degree perineal tear, which is a tear in the skin and soft tissue structures between the vagina and anus that occurs during childbirth due to excessive strain. This type of tear involves the perineal muscle but does not include the anal sphincter. Fifth degree tears do not exist, and first degree tears only involve superficial damage without muscle involvement. Fourth degree tears are severe and involve injury to the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa, but in this case, the anal sphincter was spared.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old teacher with type II diabetes is 5-months pregnant with her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old teacher with type II diabetes is 5-months pregnant with her first child. Following reviewing the patient in prenatal clinic, you are interested to find out more about stages of fetal development.
      During the fifth (gestational) month of human development, which organ is the most active site of formation of formed elements of the blood?

      Your Answer: Liver

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      The Sites of Haematopoiesis in the Fetus and Adult

      Haematopoiesis, the process of blood cell formation, occurs in various sites throughout fetal development and in adults. The dominant site of haematopoiesis changes as the fetus develops and bones are formed. Here are the different sites of haematopoiesis and their significance:

      Bone Marrow: From four months into childhood and adulthood, bone marrow becomes the primary source of hematopoiesis. Red blood cells and immune effector cells are derived from pluripotent haematopoietic cells, which are first noted in blood islands of the yolk sac. By 20 weeks, almost all of these cells are produced by the bone marrow.

      Yolk Sac: Haematopoiesis begins in the yolk sac and in angiogenic cell clusters throughout the embryonic body. This involves the formation of nucleated red blood cells, which differentiate from endothelial cells in the walls of blood vessels. Yolk sac haematopoiesis peaks at about one month and becomes insignificant by three months.

      Liver: By the sixth week, the fetal liver performs haematopoiesis. This peaks at 12-16 weeks and continues until approximately 36 weeks. Haematopoietic stem cells differentiate in the walls of liver sinusoids. In adults, there is a reserve haematopoietic capacity, especially in the liver.

      Spleen: The spleen is a minor site of haematopoiesis, being active between the third and sixth months.

      Lymph Nodes: Lymph nodes are not a significant site of haematopoiesis.

      In patients with certain conditions, such as haemolytic anaemia or myeloproliferative disease, hepatic haematopoiesis may be reactivated, leading to hepatomegaly. Understanding the different sites of haematopoiesis is important for understanding blood cell formation and certain medical conditions.

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  • Question 4 - A 29-year-old woman on day one postpartum who is breastfeeding is concerned about...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman on day one postpartum who is breastfeeding is concerned about the safety of her pain medication. When you arrive, you find that the patient was prescribed acetaminophen for pain relief, but when she was offered this, she told the midwife it cannot be used as it can have detrimental effects for her baby. She wants to know if there are any other options. You explain that acetaminophen is safe to use while breastfeeding. Which of the following analgesics is another safe first line treatment to use in women who are breastfeeding?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Safe Pain Relief Options for Breastfeeding Mothers: A Guide to Medications

      Breastfeeding mothers often experience pain and discomfort, and it is important to know which pain relief options are safe to use while nursing. Paracetamol and ibuprofen are considered safe and can be used as first-line medication for analgesia. Codeine and other opiates can be used sparingly as third-line medication, but caution must be taken as some women may be slow metabolizers and it can cause drowsiness and respiratory depression in the infant. Aspirin is contraindicated due to the risk of Reye’s disease and other side-effects. Naproxen is generally safe, but paracetamol and ibuprofen should be the mainstay of analgesia. Tramadol can be used with caution and should be prescribed by a specialist. It is important to advise the woman on the safe use of medication and to monitor for any signs of toxicity in the infant.

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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman is 32 weeks pregnant and meets with her midwife to...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is 32 weeks pregnant and meets with her midwife to discuss her birth plan. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated with a fundal placenta seen on ultrasound scans. She has no pre-existing medical conditions. The patient had one previous pregnancy three years ago and delivered a healthy baby via low transverse caesarean section. She is eager to plan for a vaginal delivery this time around if feasible. What advice should the midwife provide to the patient?

      Your Answer: Induced vaginal delivery at 36-37 weeks is recommended

      Correct Answer: Planned vaginal delivery is an option from 37 weeks

      Explanation:

      Having had one previous caesarean section, the majority of women can have a successful vaginal delivery. A fundal placenta, which is attached at the top of the uterus away from the cervical os, is a favorable location for a placenta and does not require a caesarean section. However, a previous caesarean section does increase the risk of placenta praevia, where the placenta covers the cervical os, which may require a caesarean section. Inducing vaginal delivery at 36-37 weeks is not recommended in this case, as it is not a suitable option. While maternal age of 37 may pose some risks during pregnancy and birth, it is not a determining factor for a caesarean section unless there are other concerns.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman 25 weeks into her first pregnancy comes in with vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman 25 weeks into her first pregnancy comes in with vaginal bleeding. What distinguishing characteristic would suggest a diagnosis of placenta praevia instead of placenta abruption?

      Your Answer: Tender, tense uterus

      Correct Answer: No pain

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Placental Abruption from Placenta Praevia in Antepartum Haemorrhage

      Antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding from the genital tract after 24 weeks of pregnancy but before delivery of the fetus. It is important to determine the cause of the bleeding to provide appropriate management. Two common causes of antepartum haemorrhage are placental abruption and placenta praevia.

      Placental abruption is characterized by shock that is not proportional to the visible loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, a normal lie and presentation, and an absent or distressed fetal heart. Coagulation problems may also be present, and healthcare providers should be cautious of pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      On the other hand, placenta praevia is characterized by shock that is proportional to the visible loss, no pain, a uterus that is not tender, an abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before a large one. It is important to note that vaginal examination should not be performed in primary care for suspected antepartum haemorrhage, as women with placenta praevia may experience bleeding.

      In summary, distinguishing between placental abruption and placenta praevia is crucial in managing antepartum haemorrhage. Healthcare providers should carefully assess the patient’s symptoms and perform appropriate diagnostic tests to determine the cause of the bleeding.

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  • Question 7 - A 30-year-old asymptomatic woman comes to the hospital for an oral glucose tolerance...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old asymptomatic woman comes to the hospital for an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). She is currently 16 weeks pregnant with her second child. During her first pregnancy, she had gestational diabetes and foetal macrosomia. Despite having a body mass index of 34 kg/m2, she is in good health.

      Her test results are as follows:
      - Fasting glucose: 8.5 mmol/L (<5.6 mmol/L)
      - 2 hour glucose: 12.8 mmol/L (<7.8 mmol/L)

      What is the recommended course of action for managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Insulin plus or minus metformin

      Explanation:

      If a woman is diagnosed with gestational diabetes and her fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l, immediate treatment with insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated. For women with a fasting glucose level below 7 mmol/l at diagnosis, lifestyle modifications such as diet and exercise should be recommended. If blood glucose targets are not achieved within 1-2 weeks using lifestyle modifications, metformin may be prescribed. Glibenclamide can be considered for women who do not reach their blood glucose targets with metformin or who refuse insulin therapy. Pioglitazone should be avoided during pregnancy as animal studies have shown it to be harmful.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s birth weight was 2 100 g. She wanted to breastfeed but is wondering whether she should supplement feeds with formula to help the baby’s growth.
      Which of the following best applies to the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations for feeding in low-birthweight infants?

      Your Answer: Low-birthweight infants who cannot be fed their mother’s breast milk should be fed donor human milk

      Explanation:

      Recommendations for Feeding Low-Birthweight Infants

      Low-birthweight infants, those with a birthweight of less than 2,500 g, should be exclusively breastfed for the first six months of life, according to WHO recommendations. If the mother’s milk is not available, donor human milk should be sought. If that is not possible, standard formula milk can be used. There is no difference in the duration of exclusive breastfeeding between low-birthweight and normal-weight infants. Daily vitamin A supplementation is not currently recommended for low-birthweight infants, but very low-birthweight infants should receive daily supplementation of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus. Low-birthweight infants who are able to breastfeed should start as soon as possible after birth, once they are clinically stable.

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  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture of the membranes. Following the procedure, a vaginal examination reveals a palpable umbilical cord. What position should she be advised to assume?

      Your Answer: Legs hyperflexed tightly to abdomen

      Correct Answer: On all fours, on the knees and elbows

      Explanation:

      When a woman experiences cord prolapse, the correct position for her is on all fours, with her knees and elbows on the ground. This condition can be caused by artificial rupture of the membranes, and it is important to keep the cord warm and moist while preparing for a caesarian section. The Trendelenburg position, which involves tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in abdominal surgery to shift abdominal contents upwards. The Lloyd Davis position, which involves separating the legs and tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in rectal and pelvic surgery. The McRoberts manoeuvre, which involves hyperflexing the legs tightly to the abdomen, is used in cases of shoulder dystocia during delivery, but not for cord prolapse. The lithotomy position, which involves raising the legs in stirrups and separating them, is used in obstetrics and gynaecology for various procedures, but not for cord prolapse.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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  • Question 10 - Sarah is a 26-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 26-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first child. She has not felt the baby move for 2 hours. Her pregnancy has been normal, but her baby is slightly underweight for its gestational age. She visits the obstetric emergency walk-in unit at her nearby hospital.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform cardiotocography (CTG)

      Correct Answer: Use a handheld doppler to auscultate the fetal heart rate

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements, the first step should be to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the fetal heartbeat. Most women start feeling the baby move around 20 weeks of gestation, and reduced movements at 30 weeks could indicate fetal distress. The Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology recommends that doctors attempt to listen to the fetal heart rate in any woman with reduced fetal movements. Checking a urine sample for a UTI is not a priority in this situation, and performing an ultrasound should only be done after confirming fetal viability with a handheld Doppler. Reassuring the woman that reduced movements are normal is incorrect, as it is abnormal at this stage of pregnancy. CTG is also not necessary until fetal viability has been confirmed with a Doppler.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

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  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old woman presents with significant vaginal bleeding and is diagnosed with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with significant vaginal bleeding and is diagnosed with a hydatidiform mole. The uterus is evacuated, but she continues to feel unwell and her β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-HCG) levels continue to increase in the following weeks.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Choriocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a rare condition that includes hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma, and placental site trophoblastic tumor. GTD occurs when abnormal trophoblastic tissue forms instead of a fetus after fertilization. Hydatidiform moles are the most common form of GTD and are found in about 1 in every 1000 births. They often present with signs of early pregnancy failure, such as heavy vaginal bleeding. Treatment involves removing the abnormal tissue, and close monitoring of beta-HCG levels is necessary post-evacuation. If levels fail to drop, it may indicate an invasive mole or choriocarcinoma, which requires referral to a specialist center for further treatment. Pituitary and adrenal adenomas are other types of tumors that can produce hormones and cause various symptoms. In contrast, ectopic pregnancy is a separate condition that occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus.

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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old primiparous woman attends her booking visit where she is given an appointment for her first scan at 12+4 weeks’ gestation. She wants to know what the appointment will involve.
      Regarding the 11–13 week appointment, which of the following is correct?

      Your Answer: All pregnant women need to have a Down Syndrome screening appointment

      Correct Answer: It can also include the ‘combined test’

      Explanation:

      Understanding Down Syndrome Screening Tests

      Down syndrome screening tests are important for pregnant women to determine the likelihood of their baby having the condition. One of the most common tests is the combined test, which is performed between 11+0 and 13+6 weeks’ gestation. This test involves a blood test and an ultrasound scan to measure serum pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A) and β-hCG, as well as nuchal translucency. The results are combined to give an individual risk of having a baby with Down syndrome.

      If a woman misses the window for the combined test, she can opt for the quadruple test, which is performed between weeks 15 and 16 of gestation. This test measures four serum markers: inhibin, aFP, unconjugated oestriol, and total serum hCG. Low aFP and unconjugated oestriol, as well as raised inhibin and hCG, are associated with Down syndrome.

      It is important to note that these tests are not diagnostic, but rather provide a risk assessment. Women who are classified as high risk may opt for a diagnostic test, such as amniocentesis or chorionic villous sampling, to confirm the presence of an extra chromosome. All pregnant women in the UK should be offered Down syndrome screening and given the opportunity to make an informed decision about participating in the test.

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  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old woman who is 20-weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 20-weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department after noticing a vesicular rash on her torso this morning. Upon further questioning, you discover that her 5-year-old daughter developed chickenpox last week and the patient cannot recall if she has had the condition before. She seems at ease while resting.

      Serological testing for varicella zoster virus reveals the following results:
      Varicella IgM Positive
      Varicella IgG Negative

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster vaccination

      Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman is 38 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the hospital...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is 38 weeks pregnant and has arrived at the hospital due to experiencing contractions. She has expressed her desire for a vaginal birth. Despite being in good health, alert, and stable, her cardiotocography indicates that the baby's heart rate has increased from 164/min to 170/min after 10 minutes. As the woman is at full term, the obstetrician has decided to perform a caesarean section. What classification of caesarean section is this considered to be?

      Your Answer: Category 2

      Explanation:

      Category 2 caesarean sections are performed when there is a non-immediate life-threatening emergency concerning the mother or the baby. This may include an abnormality detected by cardiotocography that requires an emergency caesarean section within 75 minutes of the decision being made. It is not immediately life-threatening to either the mother or the baby.

      Category 1 caesarean sections are performed in immediately life-threatening situations, such as haemodynamic instability of the mother.

      Category 3 caesarean sections are not immediately life-threatening to the mother but are necessary for the non-immediate life-threatening condition of the baby, such as distress.

      Category 4 caesarean sections are elective and may be chosen by the mother or recommended based on past medical history.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman is being seen on the postnatal ward 3 days after an uncomplicated, elective lower-segment caesarean section. This is her first child and she is eager to exclusively breastfeed. Her lochia is normal and she is able to move around independently. She is scheduled to be discharged later in the day and is interested in starting contraception right away. She has previously used both the combined oral contraceptive pill and an intrauterine device, both of which worked well for her. What options should be presented to her?

      Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill to start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women who have recently given birth, whether they are breastfeeding or not, can begin taking the progesterone-only pill at any time. However, for this patient who is only 2 days postpartum, it is recommended to prescribe the progesterone-only pill as it does not contain estrogen and is less likely to affect milk production. Additionally, it does not increase the risk of venous thromboembolism, which is a concern for postpartum women until 21-28 days after giving birth. The combined oral contraceptive pill should be avoided until 21 days postpartum due to the risk of thrombosis and reduced breast milk production. The patient cannot resume her previous contraceptives at this time. While an intrauterine device can be inserted during a caesarean section, it is advisable to wait 4-6 weeks postpartum before having it inserted vaginally. It is incorrect to tell the patient that she cannot use any contraception if she wishes to breastfeed, as the progesterone-only pill has been shown to have minimal effect on milk production in breastfeeding women.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 16 - You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining the blood test results of a middle-aged pregnant woman. What result would suggest the requirement for regular antenatal administration of anti-D prophylaxis at 28 weeks?

      Your Answer: Rhesus positive mothers who are not sensitised

      Correct Answer: Rhesus negative mothers who are not sensitised

      Explanation:

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with vaginal bleeding and acute...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with vaginal bleeding and acute abdominal pain. She appears to be in distress and a pregnancy test comes back positive. During a vaginal examination, there are indications of tissue being expelled from the uterus. The patient is diagnosed with a miscarriage.
      What type of miscarriage is she experiencing?

      Your Answer: Missed miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Inevitable miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Types of Miscarriage: Understanding the Differences

      Miscarriage is a devastating experience for any woman. It is important to understand the different types of miscarriage to help manage the situation and provide appropriate care. Here are the different types of miscarriage and their characteristics:

      Inevitable Miscarriage: This occurs when the products of conception are being passed vaginally, and the cervical os is open. It is an inevitable event.

      Complete Miscarriage: This occurs when all the products of conception have been passed, and the cervical os is closed.

      Threatened Miscarriage: This is characterised by vaginal bleeding and cramps, but the patient is not passing tissue vaginally. The uterus is of the right size for dates, and the cervical os is closed.

      Septic Miscarriage: This occurs when there are retained products of conception in the uterus or cervical canal, leading to infection. The cervical os is likely to be open.

      Missed Miscarriage: This is when the fetus dies in utero but is not expelled from the uterus. The uterus is small for dates, and the cervical os is closed.

      Understanding the different types of miscarriage can help healthcare providers provide appropriate care and support to women experiencing this difficult event.

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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of morning sickness. She is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of morning sickness. She is 10 weeks pregnant. She can keep down oral fluid but has vomited twice in the previous 24 hours. There are no acid reflux symptoms, abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding or urinary symptoms.

      She takes folic acid and is not on any other medications.

      On examination, her temperature is 36.8ºC. Blood pressure is 100/60 mmHg and heart rate is 80/min. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urine B-HCG is positive and urine dipstick shows 1+ ketone only. There is no weight loss.

      What is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Commence on oral cyclizine

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy or hyperemesis gravidarum is antihistamines, specifically oral cyclizine. Second-line options include ondansetron and domperidone. Hospital admission may be necessary if the patient cannot tolerate oral medications or fluids, or if symptoms are not controlled with primary care management. There is no indication for oral omeprazole in this case as the patient has not reported any dyspeptic symptoms.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with anaemia at 20 weeks gestation. Her full...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents with anaemia at 20 weeks gestation. Her full blood count reveals a serum Hb of 104 g/L and MCV of 104 fL. Hypersegmented neutrophils are observed on a blood film. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease. What is the probable reason for her anaemia?

      Your Answer: Iron deficiency

      Correct Answer: Folate deficiency

      Explanation:

      The macrocytic anaemia revealed by the full blood count is indicative of a megaloblastic anaemia, as per the blood films. This type of anaemia can be caused by a deficiency in folate or B12. Given that folic acid deficiency is prevalent during pregnancy, it is the most probable cause in this instance. Additionally, the likelihood of coeliac disease exacerbating malabsorption further supports this conclusion.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

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  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old nulliparous woman who is at 39 weeks gestation goes into spontaneous...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old nulliparous woman who is at 39 weeks gestation goes into spontaneous labour. You are summoned to aid in the vaginal delivery. During delivery, you observe the head retracting against the perineum. Downward traction is ineffective in delivering the anterior shoulder. What is a true statement about shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: Immediately after shoulder dystocia is recognised, additional help should be called

      Explanation:

      When managing shoulder dystocia, it is important to call for extra assistance immediately. Avoid using fundal pressure and note that an episiotomy may not always be required. Inducing labor at term can lower the occurrence of shoulder dystocia in women with gestational diabetes. The McRoberts manoeuvre is the preferred initial intervention due to its simplicity, speed, and effectiveness in most cases. These guidelines are based on the RCOG Green-top guideline no. 42 from March 2012 on Shoulder Dystocia.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

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  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department with a complaint of her 'waters breaking'. She reports experiencing a sudden release of clear fluid from her vagina, which has now reduced to a trickle, and she feels some pressure in her pelvis. What is the most suitable test to conduct next?

      Your Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Speculum examination

      Explanation:

      The initial investigation for preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes is a thorough speculum examination to check for the accumulation of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. It is recommended to avoid bimanual examination to minimize the risk of infection. While cardiotocography can be used to assess foetal wellbeing, it is not the preferred first-line investigation. Foetal blood sampling is not the recommended initial investigation due to the potential risks of infection and miscarriage.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old primigravida, who is 12 weeks pregnant, comes to your Antenatal clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravida, who is 12 weeks pregnant, comes to your Antenatal clinic for counselling about Down syndrome screening, as her sister has the genetic condition. After discussing the various tests with her, she decides to opt for the earliest possible diagnostic test that will tell her whether her baby has Down syndrome.
      What is the test that you are most likely to advise her to have?

      Your Answer: Nuchal translucency test

      Correct Answer: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

      Explanation:

      Prenatal Testing Options for Expecting Mothers

      Expecting mothers have several options for prenatal testing to ensure the health of their developing baby. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a diagnostic procedure that can be done from 11 weeks to detect chromosomal abnormalities. The risk of miscarriage is low, at 0.7% within 14 days and 1.3% within 30 days. Amniocentesis is another diagnostic option that can be done from 15 weeks, with a slightly lower risk of miscarriage at 0.6%.

      Anomaly scans are typically done at 18-21 weeks to check for any physical abnormalities in the baby, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. The nuchal translucency test, combined with blood tests, is a screening test that can determine the individual’s risk for certain chromosomal abnormalities. The quadruple blood test is another screening option that measures various hormones and proteins to assess the risk of certain conditions.

      Overall, expecting mothers have several options for prenatal testing to ensure the health of their baby. It is important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual pregnancy.

      Understanding Prenatal Testing Options for Expecting Mothers

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  • Question 23 - A 32-year-old female presents with intense pruritus during pregnancy, particularly in her hands...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presents with intense pruritus during pregnancy, particularly in her hands and feet, which worsens at night. She has no visible rash and has a history of a stillbirth at 36 weeks. What is the most efficient management for her condition?

      Your Answer: Ursodeoxycholic acid

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from obstetric cholestasis, which can increase the risk of premature birth and stillbirth. The main symptom is severe itching, and elevated serum bile acids are typically present. Liver function tests, including bilirubin levels, may not be reliable. The most effective treatment is ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA), which is now mostly synthetic. While antihistamines and topical menthol creams can provide some relief, UDCA is more likely to improve outcomes.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

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  • Question 24 - You are a Foundation Year 2 in general practice and a 32-year-old lady...

    Incorrect

    • You are a Foundation Year 2 in general practice and a 32-year-old lady comes in who is pregnant with her first child. She feels unwell, has upper abdominal pain near her epigastrium, and thinks that her ankle swelling has been much worse over the last few days. You assess her and your findings are as follows:
      Symphysis–fundal height (SFH): 39 cm
      Presentation: breech
      Lie: longitudinal
      Blood pressure (BP): 152/93
      Fetal movements: not palpable
      Which of these investigations is most likely to lead you to a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Doppler auscultation of the fetal heartbeat

      Correct Answer: Urine dipstick

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Pre-eclampsia in Pregnancy

      Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to various complications and is a leading cause of maternal death. Risk factors include nulliparity, previous history of pre-eclampsia, family history, and certain medical conditions. Diagnosis is made by testing for proteinuria and monitoring blood pressure. Treatment involves close monitoring, medication, and delivery of the baby. Complications can include HELLP syndrome and eclampsia. Testing for liver function and performing a CTG can aid in management, but will not lead to the diagnosis. Early identification and management are crucial in preventing adverse outcomes.

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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation to see the clinician. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents at 12 weeks’ gestation to see the clinician. Her risk of developing Down syndrome was calculated as 1 in 8, and she was offered a diagnostic test. Amniocentesis confirms Down syndrome. Following long discussions with her and her partner, she decides on termination of the pregnancy.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: No management required at present, reassess the patient in two weeks to allow her time to change her mind

      Correct Answer: Oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol as an inpatient

      Explanation:

      Medical and Surgical Management of Termination of Pregnancy

      Medical and surgical management are two options for termination of pregnancy. Medical management involves the use of oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol. This method is recommended for termination of pregnancy before 13 weeks’ gestation and can be performed in an inpatient setting. The patient is administered the medication in hospital and will stay in the clinic or hospital to pass the pregnancy. Appropriate analgesia and antiemetics are given to take home, as required. The patient should be advised that there is a possibility medical management will fail and surgical management will need to take place.

      Mifepristone is a competitive antagonist of progesterone for the progesterone receptor. It promotes degradation of the decidualised endometrium, cervical ripening and dilation, as well as increases the sensitivity of the myometrium to the effect of prostaglandins. Misoprostol, a synthetic prostaglandin E1, in turn, binds avidly to myometrial cells, promoting contraction of the uterus, and therefore expulsion of the products of conception. If this fails to empty the uterus, then a surgical procedure to manually evacuate the uterus is the next appropriate step in the patient’s management.

      Surgical termination of pregnancy is first line for women presenting after 14 weeks’ gestation, women who have a preference over medical management and patients where medical termination has failed.

      In cases where the patient has decided to proceed with termination of pregnancy, delaying the procedure is unethical and does not benefit the patient in any way. The patient should be fully informed of the risks associated with the procedure and given the necessary support.

      Vaginal misoprostol can also be used in conjunction with mifepristone for medical termination of pregnancy or as monotherapy in medical management of miscarriage or induction of labour.

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  • Question 26 - A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation is in the labour suite and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation is in the labour suite and undergoing a cardiotocography (CTG) review. Her waters broke 10 hours ago and she has been in labour for 6 hours. This is her first pregnancy and it has been uncomplicated so far. Her Bishop score is 6.

      The CTG findings are as follows:
      - Foetal heart rate 120 bpm (110 - 160)
      - Variability 10 bpm (5 - 25)
      - Decelerations Late, with 50% of contractions absent
      - Contractions 3 per 10 minutes (3 - 4)

      These findings have been consistent for the past 30 minutes. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Increase frequency of CTG checks

      Correct Answer: Prepare for category 2 caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Non-reassuring CTG findings during labour can indicate maternal or foetal compromise and require prompt action. Examples of abnormal findings include bradycardia, tachycardia, reduced variability, or prolonged deceleration. If these findings persist, the best course of action is to prepare for a category 2 caesarean section, which is for non-life-threatening maternal or foetal compromise. Augmenting contractions with syntocinon infusion is not recommended, as there is no evidence of its benefit. Increasing the frequency of CTG checks is not the best action, as the definitive action needed is to plan delivery. Tocolysis and a category 3 caesarean section are also not recommended, as they do not resolve the issue quickly enough. Foetal blood sampling is not routinely performed for non-reassuring CTG findings, but may be indicated for abnormal CTG findings to determine the health of the foetus.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 27 - A woman in her late twenties at 28 weeks gestation, complains of painless...

    Correct

    • A woman in her late twenties at 28 weeks gestation, complains of painless bright red vaginal bleeding. She mentions experiencing two previous instances of slight painless vaginal bleeding, but believes that this episode is much more severe. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placenta praevia

      Explanation:

      Placenta praevia is characterized by painless and bright red bleeding, while placental abruption is accompanied by dark red bleeding and pain. The history of previous bleeding also suggests placenta praevia. Vasa praevia may also cause painless vaginal bleeding, but fetal bradycardia and membrane rupture are expected symptoms.

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

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  • Question 28 - A woman experiences a significant post-partum haemorrhage leading to shock. Subsequently, she develops...

    Correct

    • A woman experiences a significant post-partum haemorrhage leading to shock. Subsequently, she develops a visual field defect and severe headache. What are the most probable complications that may arise?

      Your Answer: Sheehan’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Peripartum Complications: Sheehan’s Syndrome, Eclampsia, and Other Causes of Headache and Visual Disturbances

      Peripartum complications can present with a variety of symptoms, including headache and visual disturbances. Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results from pituitary infarction due to haemorrhagic shock during labour and the peripartum period. It typically affects the anterior pituitary, leading to hormonal deficiencies that may present acutely or more indolently. Hormone replacement is the mainstay of treatment.

      Eclampsia is another peripartum complication that can cause high blood pressure and seizures, sometimes leading to loss of consciousness. It requires urgent medical attention.

      Other causes of headache and visual disturbances in the peripartum period include subarachnoid haemorrhage, which may present with sudden onset headache and visual disturbances, and extradural haemorrhage, which is typically found in trauma adjacent to fractures of the temporal bone. Occipital haemorrhagic infarction can also cause these symptoms, but a visual field defect is more suggestive of Sheehan’s syndrome.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential complications and to promptly evaluate and manage them to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdominal pain that is not relieved by painkillers. She has no significant medical history. During the evaluation, her GP conducts a pregnancy test, which comes back positive. The patient is immediately referred to the hospital, where a transvaginal ultrasound confirms an ectopic pregnancy in the left tube. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Methotrexate

      Correct Answer: Salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an ectopic pregnancy, the treatment plan will depend on various factors such as the size and location of the pregnancy, the patient’s overall health, and the potential impact on their fertility. If the pregnancy is small and the patient’s health is stable, they may be able to receive medication to dissolve the pregnancy. However, if the pregnancy is larger or causing severe symptoms, surgery may be necessary.

      In cases where surgery is required, the surgeon may attempt to preserve the affected fallopian tube if possible. However, if the tube is severely damaged or the patient has other factors that may affect their fertility, such as age or previous fertility issues, the surgeon may opt to remove the tube completely. This decision will also depend on the patient’s desire for future fertility and the likelihood of requiring further treatment with methotrexate or a salpingectomy. If the patient’s contralateral tube is unaffected, complete removal of the affected tube may be the most appropriate course of action.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman who is 25 weeks pregnant with her second child is scheduled for a blood glucose check at the antenatal clinic due to her history of gestational diabetes during her first pregnancy. After undergoing the oral glucose tolerance test, her fasting glucose level is found to be 7.2mmol/L and her 2hr glucose level is 8 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Metformin

      Correct Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      The correct answer for the management of gestational diabetes is insulin. If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of diagnosis, insulin should be initiated. Diet and exercise/lifestyle advice alone is not sufficient for managing gestational diabetes and medication is necessary. Empagliflozin and glibenclamide are not appropriate treatments for gestational diabetes. Glibenclamide may only be considered if the patient has declined insulin.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (10/30) 33%
Passmed