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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and undergoes a bronchoscopy. The carina is...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with haemoptysis and undergoes a bronchoscopy. The carina is noted to be widened. Where does the trachea bifurcate?

      Your Answer: T5

      Explanation:

      The trachea divides into two branches at the fifth thoracic vertebrae, or sometimes the sixth in individuals who are tall.

      Anatomy of the Trachea

      The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube-like structure that extends from the C6 vertebrae to the upper border of the T5 vertebrae where it bifurcates into the left and right bronchi. It is supplied by the inferior thyroid arteries and the thyroid venous plexus, and innervated by branches of the vagus, sympathetic, and recurrent nerves.

      In the neck, the trachea is anterior to the isthmus of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid veins, and anastomosing branches between the anterior jugular veins. It is also surrounded by the sternothyroid, sternohyoid, and cervical fascia. Posteriorly, it is related to the esophagus, while laterally, it is in close proximity to the common carotid arteries, right and left lobes of the thyroid gland, inferior thyroid arteries, and recurrent laryngeal nerves.

      In the thorax, the trachea is anterior to the manubrium, the remains of the thymus, the aortic arch, left common carotid arteries, and the deep cardiac plexus. Laterally, it is related to the pleura and right vagus on the right side, and the left recurrent nerve, aortic arch, and left common carotid and subclavian arteries on the left side.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the trachea is important for various medical procedures and interventions, such as intubation and tracheostomy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 2 - A 49-year-old woman of African descent visits her primary care physician with concerns...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman of African descent visits her primary care physician with concerns about a lump in her neck that has been present for a week. She reports no significant increase in size and denies any pain or difficulty swallowing. The patient has no notable medical history, except for a visit to the eye doctor last year for a red-eye that required treatment with topical steroid drops. During the examination, the doctor observes some red, tender nodules on the patient's shin, which the patient says come and go and do not cause much discomfort. A chest x-ray reveals bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy with no other significant findings. What is typically linked to this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Pain in the small joints of the hand

      Correct Answer: Elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is likely in this patient based on their symptoms and examination findings, including a neck lump, tender nodules on the shin, and a history of red-eye. Bilateral lymphadenopathy on chest X-ray further supports the diagnosis, as does the presence of elevated angiotensin-converting enzyme levels, which are commonly seen in sarcoidosis. Hypercalcemia, fatigue, and uveitis are also associated with sarcoidosis, while exposure to silica is not supported by this patient’s presentation.

      Investigating Sarcoidosis

      Sarcoidosis is a disease that does not have a single diagnostic test, and therefore, diagnosis is mainly based on clinical observations. Although ACE levels may be used to monitor disease activity, they are not reliable in diagnosing sarcoidosis due to their low sensitivity and specificity. Routine blood tests may show hypercalcemia and a raised ESR.

      A chest x-ray is a common investigation for sarcoidosis and may reveal different stages of the disease. Stage 0 is normal, stage 1 shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy (BHL), stage 2 shows BHL and interstitial infiltrates, stage 3 shows diffuse interstitial infiltrates only, and stage 4 shows diffuse fibrosis. Other investigations, such as spirometry, may show a restrictive defect, while a tissue biopsy may reveal non-caseating granulomas. However, the Kveim test, which involves injecting part of the spleen from a patient with known sarcoidosis under the skin, is no longer performed due to concerns about cross-infection.

      In addition, a gallium-67 scan is not routinely used to investigate sarcoidosis. CT scans may also be used to investigate sarcoidosis, and they may show diffuse areas of nodularity predominantly in a peribronchial distribution with patchy areas of consolidation, particularly in the upper lobes. Ground glass opacities may also be present, but there are no gross reticular changes to suggest fibrosis.

      Overall, investigating sarcoidosis involves a combination of clinical observations, blood tests, chest x-rays, and other investigations such as spirometry and tissue biopsy. CT scans may also be used to provide more detailed information about the disease.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 3 - Sophie is a 15-year-old girl who has been brought to your GP clinic...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 15-year-old girl who has been brought to your GP clinic by her father. She has not yet started to develop breasts or have her first period. She does not seem worried, but her father is concerned. Sophie has a history of eczema and has been using topical steroids for several years. When her father leaves the room, she also admits to occasionally using tanning beds.

      What could be a possible cause of delayed puberty in Sophie?

      Your Answer: Cow's milk protein allergy

      Correct Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Delayed puberty can be caused by various factors, with constitutional delay being the most common cause. However, other causes must be ruled out before diagnosing constitutional delay. Some of these causes include chronic illnesses like kidney disease and Crohn’s disease, malnutrition from conditions such as anorexia nervosa, cystic fibrosis, and coeliac disease, excessive physical exercise, psychosocial deprivation, steroid therapy, hypothyroidism, tumours near the hypothalamo-pituitary axis, congenital anomalies like septo-optic dysplasia and congenital panhypopituitarism, irradiation treatment, and trauma such as surgery or head injury.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Other Features

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but some common presenting features include recurrent chest infections, malabsorption, and liver disease. In some cases, infants may experience meconium ileus or prolonged jaundice. It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed during newborn screening or early childhood, some may not be diagnosed until adulthood.

      Aside from the presenting features, there are other symptoms and features associated with cystic fibrosis. These include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse, nasal polyps, and infertility. It is important for individuals with cystic fibrosis to receive proper medical care and management to address these symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old girl with a known diagnosis of cystic fibrosis presents to her...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl with a known diagnosis of cystic fibrosis presents to her pediatrician with a 2-day history of left-ear pain. Her mother reports that she has been frequently tugging at her left ear and had a fever this morning. Apart from this, she has been healthy. On examination, a red, bulging eardrum is observed. The pediatrician suspects bacterial otitis media. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis are common bacterial organisms that can cause bacterial otitis media. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can also be a common cause in patients with cystic fibrosis.

      The patient’s symptoms are typical of acute otitis media (AOM), which can cause ear pain, fever, and temporary hearing loss. AOM is more common in children due to their short, horizontal eustachian tubes that allow for easier movement of organisms from the upper respiratory tract to the middle ear.

      AOM can be caused by either bacteria or viruses, and it can be difficult to distinguish between the two. However, features that may suggest a bacterial cause include the absence of upper respiratory tract infection symptoms and conditions that predispose to bacterial infections. In some cases, viral AOM can increase the risk of bacterial superinfection. Antibiotics may be prescribed for prolonged cases of AOM that do not appear to be resolving within a few days or in patients with immunosuppression.

      Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis are not the correct answers as they are not commonly associated with AOM. Haemophilus influenzae is more likely due to the proximity of the middle ear to the upper respiratory tract. Staphylococcus aureus is also an unlikely cause of bacterial AOM.

      Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 5 - A 36-year-old male patient complains of fever, malaise, weight loss, dyspnoea, and shoulder...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old male patient complains of fever, malaise, weight loss, dyspnoea, and shoulder & hip joint pain. He has raised erythematous lesions on both legs. His blood tests reveal elevated calcium levels and serum ACE levels. A chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tuberculosis

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with raised serum ACE levels, sarcoidosis should be considered as a possible diagnosis. The combination of erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on a chest x-ray is pathognomonic of sarcoidosis. Lung cancer is unlikely in a young patient without a significant smoking history, and tuberculosis would require recent foreign travel to a TB endemic country. Multiple myeloma would not cause the same symptoms as sarcoidosis. Exposure to organic material would not be a likely cause of raised serum ACE levels.

      Understanding Sarcoidosis: A Multisystem Disorder

      Sarcoidosis is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by the presence of non-caseating granulomas. The exact cause of this disorder is unknown, but it is more commonly seen in young adults and individuals of African descent.

      The symptoms of sarcoidosis can vary depending on the severity of the condition. Acute symptoms may include erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, swinging fever, and polyarthralgia. On the other hand, insidious symptoms may include dyspnea, non-productive cough, malaise, and weight loss. Additionally, some individuals may develop skin symptoms such as lupus pernio, while others may experience hypercalcemia due to increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form.

      Sarcoidosis is also associated with several syndromes, including Lofgren’s syndrome, Mikulicz syndrome, and Heerfordt’s syndrome. Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form of the disease that typically presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, fever, and polyarthralgia. Mikulicz syndrome is characterized by enlargement of the parotid and lacrimal glands due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or lymphoma. Finally, Heerfordt’s syndrome, also known as uveoparotid fever, presents with parotid enlargement, fever, and uveitis secondary to sarcoidosis.

      In conclusion, sarcoidosis is a complex disorder that can affect multiple systems in the body. While the exact cause is unknown, early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and improve outcomes.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 6 - A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male is admitted with acute asthma. He has been treated with steroid, bronchodilators and 15 l/min of oxygen.

      His pulse rate is 125/min, oxygen saturation 89%, respiratory rate 24/min, blood pressure 140/88 mmHg and he has a peak flow rate of 150 l/min. On auscultation of his chest, he has bilateral wheezes.

      Arterial blood gas (ABG) result taken on 15 l/min oxygen shows:

      pH 7.42 (7.36-7.44)
      PaO2 8.4 kPa (11.3-12.6)
      PaCO2 5.3 kPa (4.7-6.0)
      Standard HCO3 19 mmol/L (20-28)
      Base excess −4 (+/-2)
      Oxygen saturation 89%

      What is the most appropriate action for this man?

      Your Answer: Continue treatment and repeat ABG in 30 minutes

      Correct Answer: Call ITU to consider intubation

      Explanation:

      Urgent Need for Ventilation in Life-Threatening Asthma

      This patient is experiencing life-threatening asthma with a dangerously low oxygen saturation level of less than 92%. Despite having a normal PaCO2 level, the degree of hypoxia is inappropriate and requires immediate consideration for ventilation. The arterial blood gas (ABG) result is consistent with the clinical presentation, making a venous blood sample unnecessary. Additionally, the ABG and bedside oxygen saturation readings are identical, indicating an arterialised sample.

      It is crucial to note that in cases of acute asthma, reducing the amount of oxygen below the maximum available is not recommended. Hypoxia can be fatal and must be addressed promptly. Therefore, urgent intervention is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the COPD clinic complaining of increasing breathlessness over...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the COPD clinic complaining of increasing breathlessness over the past 3 months. She is currently receiving long-term oxygen therapy at home.

      During the examination, the patient's face appears plethoric, but there is no evidence of dyspnea at rest.

      The patient's FEV1/FVC ratio remains unchanged at 0.4, and her peak flow is 50% of the predicted value. However, her transfer factor is unexpectedly elevated.

      What could be the possible cause of this unexpected finding?

      Your Answer: Pneumonia

      Correct Answer: Polycythaemia

      Explanation:

      The transfer factor is typically low in most conditions that impair alveolar diffusion, except for polycythaemia, asthma, haemorrhage, and left-to-right shunts, which can cause an increased transfer of carbon monoxide. In this case, the patient’s plethoric facies suggest polycythaemia as the cause of their increased transfer factor. It’s important to note that exacerbations of COPD, pneumonia, and pulmonary fibrosis typically result in a low transfer factor, not an increased one.

      Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing

      The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.

      KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 8 - During a clinical trial examining oxygen consumption during exercise, participants aged 50 and...

    Incorrect

    • During a clinical trial examining oxygen consumption during exercise, participants aged 50 and above engage in high-intensity interval training exercises for 20 minutes while physiological measurements are recorded. What is the primary factor that is likely to restrict oxygen supply to tissues after the training session?

      Your Answer: Raised 2,3-DPG

      Correct Answer: Low pCO2

      Explanation:

      When the pCO2 is low, the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left, which increases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. This can limit the amount of oxygen available to tissues. On the other hand, high levels of pCO2 (hypercarbia) shift the curve to the right, decreasing the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen and increasing oxygen availability to tissues.

      In acidosis, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG) increases, which binds to deoxyhaemoglobin and shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right. This results in increased oxygen release from the blood into tissues.

      Hyperthermia also shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, while the performance-enhancing substance myo-inositol trispyrophosphate (ITPP) has a similar effect.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 9 - A 36-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of vertigo. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man presents to his GP with symptoms of vertigo. He reports that he has been experiencing constant dizziness for the past 2 days, which has prevented him from going to work. He also reports hearing difficulties and tinnitus in his right ear, as well as nausea and difficulty with balance. He notes that these symptoms are not related to changes in position. He has no significant medical history, except for a recent bout of flu that resolved on its own.

      During the examination, the man is observed to sway to the right while attempting to walk in a straight line. He also has a positive head thrust test to the right side. A complete neurological examination is performed, and aside from mild sensorineural hearing loss in the right ear, his neurological function is normal.

      Which structures are most likely involved in this man's condition?

      Your Answer: Vestibular nerve and labyrinth

      Explanation:

      The patient is displaying symptoms of labyrinthitis, which affects both the vestibular nerve and labyrinth, resulting in vertigo and hearing impairment. In contrast, pure vestibular neuritis only causes vestibular symptoms without affecting hearing. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) involves otolith displacement and is triggered by head position changes, which is not the case for this patient’s constant vertigo. Facial nerve palsy primarily causes facial drooping and does not affect hearing or vestibular function, making it an unlikely diagnosis for this patient.

      Understanding Viral Labyrinthitis

      Labyrinthitis is a condition that affects the membranous labyrinth, which includes the vestibular and cochlear end organs. It can be caused by a viral or bacterial infection, or it may be associated with systemic diseases. Viral labyrinthitis is the most common form of the condition.

      It’s important to distinguish labyrinthitis from vestibular neuritis, which only affects the vestibular nerve and doesn’t cause hearing impairment. Labyrinthitis, on the other hand, affects both the vestibular nerve and the labyrinth, resulting in both vertigo and hearing loss.

      The condition typically affects people between the ages of 40 and 70 and is characterized by an acute onset of symptoms, including vertigo, nausea and vomiting, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Patients may also experience gait disturbance and fall towards the affected side.

      Diagnosis is based on a patient’s history and examination, which may reveal spontaneous unidirectional horizontal nystagmus towards the unaffected side, sensorineural hearing loss, and an abnormal head impulse test.

      While episodes of labyrinthitis are usually self-limiting, medications like prochlorperazine or antihistamines may help reduce the sensation of dizziness. Understanding the symptoms and management of viral labyrinthitis can help patients seek appropriate treatment and manage their condition effectively.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 10 - A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 40kg/m² presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 40kg/m² presents to the GP describing apnoeic episodes during sleep. He is referred to the hospital's respiratory team where he receives an initial spirometry test which is shown below.

      Forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV1) 2.00 48% of predicted
      Vital capacity (VC) 2.35 43% of predicted
      Total lung capacity (TLC) 4.09 51% of predicted
      Residual volume (RV) 1.74 75% of predicted
      Total lung coefficient (TLCO) 5.37 47% of predicted
      Transfer coefficient (KCO) 1.83 120% of predicted

      What type of lung disease pattern is shown in a patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 30kg/m² who presents to the GP with similar symptoms?

      Your Answer: Obstructive

      Correct Answer: Extrapulmonary

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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Respiratory System (2/10) 20%
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