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  • Question 1 - A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after near-drowning. This occurred...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after near-drowning. This occurred after he fell from a boat into a lake, while intoxicated with alcohol. He has no medical history. He is drowsy, with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9; his oxygen saturations are 80% on an inspired fraction of oxygen (FiO2) of 1.0 via a non-rebreather face mask.
      Which of the following is part of the treatment algorithm for drowning?

      Your Answer: Warming strategies for hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Warming and Treatment Strategies for Hypothermia and Drowning

      Hypothermia and drowning are serious medical emergencies that require prompt intervention to prevent further complications. In cases of hypothermia, the severity of the condition will determine the appropriate intervention. For mild cases, passive rewarming through heated blankets and warm fluids may be sufficient. However, for more severe cases, blood rewarming through the use of a haemodialysis machine or warm intravenous fluids may be necessary. Airway rewarming using humidified oxygen may also be used.

      In cases of drowning, support for shock is crucial, and patients should be managed with warming, IV fluids, and airway support. Diuresis should be avoided in shocked patients. Oxygenation is critical in treating post-drowning patients, and intubation and mechanical ventilation may be required in cases of moderate to severe hypoxia. Prophylactic antibiotics are unproven, but may be given if fever develops or there is grossly contaminated aspirated water. Treatment should be targeted towards likely pathogens, with route of administration depending on the patient’s condition. Pneumonia can be a major complication, and atypical organisms should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      25.4
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  • Question 2 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced level of consciousness, non-blanching rash, headache, neck stiffness and fever. Her mother accompanies her and states that this confusion started several hours previously. She also states that her daughter has not passed urine since the previous day, at least 16 hours ago. On clinical examination, she appears unwell and confused, and she has a purpuric rash over her lower limbs. Her observation results are as follows:
      Temperature 39.5 °C
      Blood pressure 82/50 mmHg
      Heart rate 120 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute
      Which of the following are high-risk criteria when diagnosing and risk-stratifying suspected sepsis?

      Your Answer: Not passing urine for the previous 16 hours

      Correct Answer: Systolic blood pressure of 82 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Understanding the High-Risk Criteria for Suspected Sepsis

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention. To help healthcare professionals identify and grade the severity of suspected sepsis, certain high-risk criteria are used. Here are some important points to keep in mind:

      – A systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or less, or a systolic blood pressure of > 40 mmHg below normal, is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. A moderate- to high-risk criterion is a systolic blood pressure of 91–100 mmHg.
      – Not passing urine for the previous 18 hours is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. For catheterised patients, passing < 0.5 ml/kg of urine per hour is also a high-risk criterion, as is a heart rate of > 130 bpm. Not passing urine for 12-18 hours is considered a ‘amber flag’ for sepsis.
      – Objective evidence of new altered mental state is a high-risk criteria for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. Moderate- to high-risk criteria would include: history from patient, friend or relative of new onset of altered behaviour or mental state and history of acute deterioration of functional ability.
      – Non-blanching rash of the skin, as well as a mottled or ashen appearance and cyanosis of the skin, lips or tongue, are high-risk criteria for severe sepsis.
      – A raised respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute or more is a high-risk criterion for sepsis, as is a new need for oxygen with 40% FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) or more to maintain saturation of > 92% (or > 88% in known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). A raised respiratory rate is 21–24 breaths per minute.

      By understanding these high-risk criteria, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and treat suspected sepsis, potentially saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      224.5
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  • Question 3 - A 71-year-old man attends the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old man attends the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of a warm, red, tender right lower leg. He thinks it is the result of banging his leg against a wooden stool at home. He has a past medical history of diabetes. He is unable to recall his drug history and is unsure of his allergies, although he recalls having ‘a serious reaction’ to an antibiotic as a child.
      You diagnose cellulitis and prescribe an initial dose of flucloxacillin, which is shortly administered. Several minutes later, the nurse asks for an urgent review of the patient since the patient has become very anxious and has developed a hoarse voice. You attend the patient and note swelling of the tongue and lips. As you take the patient’s wrist to feel the rapid pulse, you also note cool fingers. A wheeze is audible on auscultation of the chest and patchy erythema is visible. You ask the nurse for observations and she informs you the respiratory rate is 29 and systolic blood pressure 90 mmHg. You treat the patient for an anaphylactic reaction, administering high-flow oxygen, intravenous (iv) fluid, adrenaline, hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine.
      What is the dose of adrenaline you would use?

      Your Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 in 1000 iv

      Correct Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 in 1000 intramuscular (im)

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis and the ABCDE Approach

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate medical attention. It is characterized by respiratory and circulatory compromise, skin and mucosal changes, and can be triggered by various agents such as foods and drugs. In the case of anaphylaxis, the ABCDE approach should be used to assess the patient. Adrenaline is the most important drug in the treatment of anaphylaxis and should be administered at a dose of 0.5 mg (0.5 ml of 1 in 1000) intramuscularly. The response to adrenaline should be monitored, and further boluses may be required depending on the patient’s response. Other medications that should be given include chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone, as well as intravenous fluids. It is crucial to recognize and treat anaphylaxis promptly to prevent severe complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      49.9
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe bilateral pneumonia, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe bilateral pneumonia, which is found to be secondary to Legionella. She is hypoxic and drowsy and has an acute kidney injury. She is intubated and ventilated and transferred to the Intensive Care Unit. Despite optimal organ support, her respiratory system continues to deteriorate, requiring high fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) (0.8) to maintain oxygen saturations of 88–92%. A chest X-ray shows diffuse bilateral infiltrates. A diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is made.
      Which of the following is a recognised component of the management strategy for ARDS?

      Your Answer: Low positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP)

      Correct Answer: Lung-protective ventilation

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Mechanical Ventilation in ARDS Patients

      Mechanical ventilation is a crucial intervention for patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). However, there are specific strategies that should be employed to ensure the best outcomes for these patients.

      Lung-protective ventilation with lower tidal volume (≤ 6 ml/kg predicted body weight) and a plateau pressure of ≤ 30 cmH2O is associated with a reduced risk of hospital mortality and barotrauma. In contrast, mechanical ventilation with high tidal volume is associated with an increased incidence of ventilator-induced lung injury.

      In 2000, a large randomized controlled trial demonstrated the benefits of ventilation with low tidal volumes in patients with ARDS. Therefore, it is essential to use lower tidal volumes to prevent further lung damage.

      While low positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is not a recognized management strategy, higher levels of PEEP can benefit patients with more severe ARDS. High PEEP aims to keep the lung open during the entire respiratory cycle, improving alveolar recruitment, reducing lung stress and strain, and preventing atelectrauma. However, a combination of individual PEEP titration following an alveolar recruitment maneuver could lead to better outcomes in more severe ARDS patients.

      Finally, prone positioning for at least 12 hours per day can be used in patients with moderate/severe ARDS and is associated with a reduction in mortality when combined with lung-protective ventilation. Therefore, patients should be maintained supine or prone, and prone positioning should be considered in appropriate cases.

      In conclusion, the best practices for mechanical ventilation in ARDS patients include lung-protective ventilation with lower tidal volume, higher levels of PEEP in severe cases, and prone positioning when appropriate. These strategies can help improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old man is admitted after being found lying on the street with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man is admitted after being found lying on the street with a reduced conscious level.
      On examination, he has pinpoint pupils and needle-track marks on his arms.
      What would be the most likely pattern on the arterial blood gas in this case?

      Your Answer: Hypocapnia and respiratory acidosis

      Correct Answer: Hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Relationship between Hypercapnia and Acid-Base Imbalances

      Opiate overdose can cause respiratory depression, leading to hypoventilation and subsequent hypercapnia. This results in respiratory acidosis, which can lead to coma and pinpoint pupils. The treatment for this condition is intravenous naloxone, with repeat dosing and infusion as necessary. It is important to note that hypercapnia always leads to an acidosis, not an alkalosis, and that hypocapnia would not cause a respiratory acidosis. Understanding the relationship between hypercapnia and acid-base imbalances is crucial in managing respiratory depression and related conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      17.8
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  • Question 6 - A 34-year-old surgical patient develops wheeze, lip swelling, and pallor while receiving antibiotics....

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old surgical patient develops wheeze, lip swelling, and pallor while receiving antibiotics. Her blood pressure is 70/38 mmHg. What urgent treatment is required?

      Your Answer: 1:1000 IM adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Correct Treatment for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline via the intramuscular (IM) route is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Adrenaline’s inotropic action provides an immediate response, making it a lifesaving treatment. Once the patient is stabilized, intravenous hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine can also be administered. However, adrenaline remains the primary treatment.

      It is crucial to conduct a full ABCDE assessment and involve an anaesthetist if there are concerns about the airway. Using 1:10,000 IM adrenaline is sub-therapeutic in the setting of anaphylaxis. This dose is only used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Similarly, 1:10,000 IM noradrenaline is the wrong choice of drug and dose for anaphylaxis treatment.

      Intramuscular glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia when the patient is unconscious or too drowsy to administer glucose replacement therapy orally. Intravenous noradrenaline is not the correct drug or route for anaphylaxis treatment. Understanding the correct treatment for anaphylaxis is crucial in saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      8.9
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with confusion, fever and flank pain. Her temperature is 38.5 °C, blood pressure 82/48 mmHg, pulse rate 123 bpm and respiration rate 27 breaths per minute. Physical examination reveals dry mucous membranes and flank tenderness. Urinalysis shows 50–100 leukocytes and many bacteria per high-powered field.
      Which of the following is most likely to improve survival for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aggressive fluid resuscitation

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Timing in Fluid Resuscitation for Severe Sepsis: Debunking Myths about Haemodynamic Monitoring, Albumin Infusion, and Haemoglobin Levels

      When it comes to treating severe sepsis, timing is crucial. Aggressive fluid resuscitation within the first six hours can significantly improve a patient’s chances of survival. This was demonstrated in a landmark study by Rivers and colleagues, which found that early goal-directed therapy resulted in higher survival rates than delayed resuscitation attempts.

      However, not all interventions are equally effective. Haemodynamic monitoring with a pulmonary artery catheter, for example, has not been shown to increase survival in septic patients. Similarly, there is no evidence that albumin infusion reduces mortality, and in fact, some studies have shown increased mortality rates in patients who received albumin solutions.

      Maintaining a haemoglobin level above 120 g/l is also not supported by evidence. While giving blood may be part of resuscitation for anaemic patients in shock, aiming for a specific haemoglobin level is not necessary.

      Finally, there is no data to support the idea that maintaining a lower Pa(CO2) would increase survival in septic patients. In summary, aggressive fluid resuscitation within the first six hours is crucial for treating severe sepsis, but not all interventions are equally effective or supported by evidence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      27.7
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man is on the Orthopaedic Ward following a compound fracture of...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man is on the Orthopaedic Ward following a compound fracture of his femur. He is day three post-op and has had a relatively uncomplicated postoperative period despite a complex medical history. His past medical history includes remitting prostate cancer (responding to treatment), COPD and osteoarthritis.
      He has a body mass index (BMI) of > 30 kg/m2, hypertension and is currently using a salmeterol inhaler, enzalutamide, naproxen and the combined oral contraceptive pill. He smokes six cigarettes per day and drinks eight units of alcohol per week. He manages his activities of daily living independently.
      Blood results from yesterday:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 7.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Chloride (Cl) 108 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
      Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 85 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      You are crash-paged to his bedside in response to his having a cardiac arrest.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Initiate CPR, give a fibrinolytic and continue for at least 60 minutes

      Explanation:

      Management of Cardiac Arrest in a Post-Operative Patient with a History of Cancer and Oral Contraceptive Use

      In the management of a patient who experiences cardiac arrest, it is important to consider the underlying cause and initiate appropriate interventions. In the case of a post-operative patient with a history of cancer and oral contraceptive use, thrombosis is a likely cause of cardiac arrest. Therefore, CPR should be initiated and a fibrinolytic such as alteplase should be given. CPR should be continued for at least 60 minutes as per Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines.

      Giving adrenaline without initiating CPR would not be appropriate. It is important to rule out other potential causes such as hypovolemia, hypoxia, tamponade, tension pneumothorax, and toxins. However, in this scenario, thrombosis is the most likely cause.

      Calling cardiology for pericardiocentesis is not indicated as there is no history of thoracic trauma. Informing the family is important, but initiating CPR should take priority. Prolonged resuscitation of at least 60 minutes is warranted in the case of thrombosis. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in the event of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      36.2
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old patient is brought in by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient is brought in by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He is unresponsive, and therefore obtaining a medical history is not possible. He is breathing on his own, but his respiratory rate (RR) is low at 10 breaths per minute and his oxygen saturation is at 90% on room air. His arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals respiratory acidosis, and his pupils are constricted.
      What would be the most suitable medication for initial management in this case?

      Your Answer: N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NAC)

      Correct Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Antidote Medications: Uses and Dosages

      Naloxone:
      Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. It works by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain, which can cause respiratory depression and reduced consciousness. It is administered in incremental doses every 3-5 minutes until the desired effect is achieved. However, full reversal may cause withdrawal symptoms and agitation.

      N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NAC):
      NAC is an antidote medication used to treat paracetamol overdose. Paracetamol overdose can cause liver damage and acute liver failure. NAC is administered if the serum paracetamol levels fall to the treatment level on the nomogram or if the overdose is staggered.

      Flumazenil:
      Flumazenil is a specific reversal agent for the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. It works by competing with benzodiazepines for the same receptors in the brain. However, it is not effective in treating pupillary constriction caused by benzodiazepine toxicity.

      Adrenaline:
      Adrenaline is used in the treatment of cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis. It has no role in the treatment of opiate toxicity. The dosage of adrenaline varies depending on the indication, with a stronger concentration required for anaphylaxis compared to cardiac arrest.

      Atropine:
      Atropine is a medication used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, where the patient’s slow heart rate is causing hemodynamic compromise. However, it can cause agitation in the hours following administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with fever, rigors, breathlessness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with fever, rigors, breathlessness and a cough. He is producing a frothy pink/green sputum spotted with blood. On examination, you find that he is very confused, with a respiratory rate (RR) of 33 breaths per minute and blood pressure (BP) of 100/70 mmHg. Bloods reveal his urea is 3.2 mmol/l. On auscultation of the chest, you hear a pleural rub. Chest X-ray reveals multilobar consolidation.
      Which one of the following statements regarding his management is most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Antibiotics should be delayed until culture results are obtained

      Correct Answer: He needs an ABC approach with fluid resuscitation

      Explanation:

      Managing Severe Pneumonia: Key Considerations and Treatment Approaches

      Severe pneumonia requires prompt and effective management to prevent complications and improve outcomes. The following points highlight important considerations and treatment approaches for managing patients with severe pneumonia:

      – ABC approach with fluid resuscitation: The initial step in managing severe pneumonia involves assessing and addressing the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation. This may include providing oxygen therapy, administering fluids to correct hypovolemia or dehydration, and monitoring vital signs.
      – CURB 65 score: This scoring system helps to assess the severity of pneumonia and guide treatment decisions. Patients with a score of 3 or higher may require ICU referral.
      – Oxygen saturation: Low oxygen saturation levels (<95%) at presentation increase the risk of death and should be promptly addressed with oxygen therapy.
      – Analgesia for pleuritic chest pain: While analgesia may be offered to manage pleuritic chest pain, it may not be effective in all cases. Paracetamol or NSAIDs are recommended as first-line options.
      – Antibiotic therapy: Empirical antibiotics should be started promptly after appropriate resuscitation. Culture results should be obtained to confirm the causative organism and guide further treatment.

      In summary, managing severe pneumonia requires a comprehensive approach that addresses the patient’s clinical status, severity of illness, and potential complications. By following these key considerations and treatment approaches, healthcare providers can improve outcomes and reduce the risk of adverse events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      41
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  • Question 11 - A 68 year old homeless man is brought into the Emergency Department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 68 year old homeless man is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion. The patient is unable to provide a history and is shivering profusely. Physical examination reveals a body temperature of 34.5oC.
      Regarding thermoregulation, which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer: Thermoregulation is one of the principal functions of the thalamus

      Correct Answer: Acclimatisation of the sweating mechanism occurs in response to heat

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heat Adaptation and Thermoregulation in Humans

      Humans have the unique ability to actively acclimatize to heat stress through adaptations in the sweating mechanism. This process involves an increase in the sweating capability of the glands, which helps to lower body core temperatures. Heat adaptation begins on the first day of exposure and typically takes 4-7 days to develop in most individuals, with complete adaptation taking around 14 days.

      While brown fat plays a significant role in non-shivering thermogenesis in newborns and infants, there are very few remnants of brown fat in adults. Instead, thermoregulation is mainly controlled by the hypothalamus, which is responsible for regulating body temperature and other vital functions.

      Although apocrine sweat glands have little role in thermoregulation, they still play an important role in heat loss by evaporation. Overall, understanding heat adaptation and thermoregulation in humans is crucial for maintaining optimal health and preventing heat-related illnesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      79.5
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  • Question 12 - A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face and lips, accompanied by wheeze after being stung by a bee. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and has a blood pressure reading of 83/45 mmHg from a manual reading. What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Give 1 : 1000 intravenous (IV) adrenaline + IV hydrocortisone

      Correct Answer: Give 1 : 1000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline and repeat after 5 min if no improvement

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The following are the appropriate steps to take when dealing with anaphylaxis:

      Administer 1 : 1000 intramuscular (IM) adrenaline and repeat after 5 minutes if there is no improvement. Adrenaline should not be given intravenously unless the person administering it is skilled and experienced in its use. Routine use of IV adrenaline is not recommended.

      Administer IV fluids if anaphylactic shock occurs to maintain the circulatory volume. Salbutamol nebulizers may help manage associated wheezing.

      Do not give IV hydrocortisone as it takes several hours to work and anaphylaxis is rapidly life-threatening.

      Do not observe the person as anaphylaxis may progress quickly.

      Do not give 1 : 10 000 IV adrenaline as this concentration is only given during a cardiac arrest.

      In summary, the immediate administration of 1 : 1000 IM adrenaline is the most critical step in treating anaphylaxis. IV adrenaline and hydrocortisone should only be given by skilled and experienced individuals. IV fluids and salbutamol nebulizers may also be used to manage symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 13 - A 72-year-old hospitalised man with a urinary tract infection and an indwelling bladder...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old hospitalised man with a urinary tract infection and an indwelling bladder catheter (due to a bladder outlet obstruction) has developed episodic fever, chills and a fall in systemic blood pressure since yesterday. The episodes occur irregularly and last almost an hour, during which time he becomes delirious.
      Which of the following factors plays a key role in the pathogenesis of this condition?

      Your Answer: Lactic acid

      Correct Answer: Lipopolysaccharide

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Role of Lipopolysaccharide in Septic Shock

      Septic shock is a serious medical condition that can occur as a result of a systemic inflammatory response to an infection. In this state, the body’s immune system is activated, leading to the release of cytokines such as tumour necrosis factor and interleukins. However, the main inciting agent responsible for this activation is Gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

      LPS plays a key role in the induction of the monocyte-macrophage system, leading to the release of cytokines and subsequent shock. Nitric oxide, also released by LPS-activated macrophages, contributes to the hypotension associated with sepsis. Additionally, tissue hypoxia can lead to increased production of lactic acid, although lactic acidosis is not the main player in shock.

      Understanding the role of LPS in septic shock is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition. By targeting the underlying cause of the immune system activation, healthcare professionals can work to prevent the development of septic shock and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      130.5
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  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit after a coronary...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit after a coronary artery bypass graft for a period of ventilation. He has a 35-pack year smoking history but successfully gave up some 2 years earlier. Unfortunately, weaning does not go as anticipated, and he cannot be weaned off the ventilator and is still in need of it 4 days later. There is evidence of right-sided bronchial breathing on auscultation. He is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5 °C.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 12.5 × 109/l (10.0) 4–11 × 109/l
      Chest X-ray: bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, more marked on the right-hand side
      Bronchial aspirates: mixed anaerobes
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventilator acquired pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs

      A pyrexial patient with chest signs on the right-hand side may have ventilator-acquired pneumonia, which occurs due to contamination of the respiratory tract from oropharyngeal secretions. Diagnosis is based on clinical examination, X-ray, blood culture, and bronchial washings. Initial antibiotic therapy should cover anaerobes, MRSA, Pseudomonas, and Acinetobacter.

      If the patient has been in the hospital for more than 72 hours, any infection that develops is likely to be hospital-acquired.

      Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) presents more acutely and broncholavage samples commonly demonstrate inflammatory and necrotic cells.

      Infective pulmonary edema is unlikely if there are no indications of pleural effusions or edema on clinical examination and chest radiograph.

      Pulmonary hemorrhage is unlikely if there is no blood found in the bronchial aspirates.

      Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 15 - A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He was wearing a helmet at the time of the crash; the helmet cracked on impact. At presentation, he is haemodynamically stable and examination is unremarkable, aside from superficial abrasions on the arms and legs. Specifically, he is neurologically intact. He is nevertheless offered admission for head injury charting and observation. Two hours after admission, nurses find him unresponsive, with a unilateral fixed, dilated pupil. An emergency computed tomography (CT) scan is performed.
      What is the likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Extradural haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Extradural Haemorrhage: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Extradural haemorrhage is a type of head injury that can lead to neurological compromise and coma if left untreated. It is typically caused by trauma to the middle meningeal artery, meningeal veins, or a dural venous sinus. The condition is most prevalent in young men involved in road traffic accidents and is characterized by a lucid interval followed by a decrease in consciousness.

      CT scans typically show a high-density, lens-shaped collection of peripheral blood in the extradural space between the inner table of the skull bones and the dural surface. As the blood collects, patients may experience severe headache, vomiting, confusion, fits, hemiparesis, and ipsilateral pupil dilation.

      Treatment for extradural haemorrhage involves urgent decompression by creating a borehole above the site of the clot. Prognosis is poor if the patient is comatose or decerebrate or has a fixed pupil, but otherwise, it is excellent.

      It is important to differentiate extradural haemorrhage from other types of head injuries, such as subdural haemorrhage, subarachnoid haemorrhage, and Intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Subdural haemorrhage is not limited by cranial sutures, while subarachnoid haemorrhage is characterized by blood lining the sulci of the brain. Intraparenchymal haemorrhage, on the other hand, refers to blood within the brain parenchyma.

      In conclusion, extradural haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 16 - A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old previously healthy man with a 3-day history of feeling unwell, difficulty tolerating oral fluids and symptoms of a cold, is referred to the hospital by his primary care physician. The senior Accident and Emergency (A&E) nurse triages him and takes his vital signs, which are mostly normal except for a slightly elevated heart rate (102 bpm). She also performs a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) and draws blood for testing, but the results are pending. The nurse suspects that the ECG shows some abnormalities and consults with the A&E senior resident, who confirms that the QRS complexes are widened, P-waves are absent, and T-waves are abnormally large.
      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate

      Explanation:

      Managing Hyperkalaemia: The Importance of Calcium Gluconate as a Cardioprotectant

      Hyperkalaemia can lead to serious cardiac complications, including suppression of impulse generation and reduced conduction. Therefore, the priority in managing hyperkalaemia is to administer calcium gluconate as a cardioprotectant. This should be followed by the administration of salbutamol nebuliser and Actrapid® with 50% dextrose to shift potassium into the cells. If refractory hyperkalaemia occurs, senior support should be sought, potentially requiring bicarbonate or dialysis. It is important to prioritize the administration of calcium gluconate to prevent potential myocardial infarction. Once interventions have been administered, alerting senior support is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old man with a history of recurrent falls attends the Elderly Care...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of recurrent falls attends the Elderly Care Clinic with his daughter. He also has a history of mild dementia, congestive heart failure, coronary artery disease, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He takes furosemide, lisinopril, amitriptyline, aspirin, metoprolol, olanzapine and simvastatin. He lives by himself in a house in which he has lived for 30 years and has help with all activities of daily living. On examination, he appears frail, has mild bruising over both knees from recent falls and has reduced proximal lower-extremity muscle strength.
      Which of the following interventions will decrease his risk of falling in the future?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Balance and gait training physical exercises

      Explanation:

      The Most Appropriate Interventions to Reduce Falls in the Elderly

      Balance and gait training exercises are effective interventions to reduce falls in the elderly. On the other hand, continuing olanzapine and commencing donepezil have not been proven to reduce the risk of falls. Diuretics, such as furosemide, can increase the likelihood of falls, so stopping them is recommended. Additionally, amitriptyline has anticholinergic side-effects that can lead to confusion and falls, so discontinuing it is a quick and potentially effective intervention. Overall, a multifactorial approach that includes balance and gait training, medication review, and fall risk assessment is the most appropriate strategy to reduce falls in the elderly.

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  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of 40 °C, vomiting and diarrhea, and is extremely restless. He has hyperthyroidism but is known to not take his medication regularly. The ED registrar suspects that he is experiencing a thyroid storm.
      What is the most probable statement about a thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fluid resuscitation, propranolol and carbimazole are used in the management of a thyroid storm

      Explanation:

      When managing a patient with a thyroid storm, it is important to first stabilize them by addressing their presenting symptoms. This may involve fluid resuscitation, a nasogastric tube if vomiting, and sedation if necessary. Beta-blockers are often used to reduce the effects of excessive thyroid hormones on end-organs, and high-dose digoxin may be used with close cardiac monitoring. Antithyroid drugs, such as carbimazole, are then used. Tepid sponging is used to manage excessive hyperthermia, and active warming may be used in cases of myxoedema coma. Men are actually more commonly affected by thyroid storms than women. Precipitants of a thyroid storm include recent thyroid surgery, radioiodine, infection, myocardial infarction, and trauma. Levothyroxine is given to replace low thyroxine levels in cases of hypothyroidism, while hydrocortisone or dexamethasone may be given to prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in managing a patient with a thyroid storm.

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  • Question 19 - You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in...

    Incorrect

    • You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in front of you. There is nobody else around. You look, listen and feel, ensuring his airway is open. He is not breathing and is unresponsive. You phone for an ambulance.
      What is the next step that you would take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute, giving two rescue breaths after every 30 compressions

      Explanation:

      How to Perform Chest Compressions and Rescue Breaths in Basic Life Support

      When faced with a non-responsive person who is not breathing, it is important to act quickly and perform basic life support. Begin by confirming that the person is not breathing and calling for an ambulance. Then, kneel by the person’s side and place the heel of one hand in the centre of their chest, with the other hand on top, interlocking fingers. Apply pressure to the sternum to a depth of 5-6 cm at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. After 30 compressions, open the airway and give two rescue breaths. Pinch the nose closed and blow steadily into the mouth, watching for the chest to rise. Repeat chest compressions and rescue breaths until help arrives.

      Note: The previous recommendation of two rescue breaths before chest compressions has been replaced with immediate chest compressions. Do not delay potentially life saving resuscitation.

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  • Question 20 - A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past 8 hours. He is becoming dehydrated and confused. Shortly after admission, he develops increasing shortness of breath. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 128/75 mmHg, a pulse of 92 bpm, and bilateral crackles on chest auscultation. The jugular venous pressure is not elevated. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 118 g/l, a WCC of 14.8 × 109/l, a platelet count of 162 × 109/l, a sodium level of 140 mmol/l, a potassium level of 4.8 mmol/l, a creatinine level of 195 μmol/l, and an amylase level of 1330 U/l. Arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.31, a pO2 of 8.2 kPa, and a pCO2 of 5.5 kPa. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute (adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

      Explanation:

      Mucopolysacchirodosis

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  • Question 21 - A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after consuming a peanut butter sandwich. During the examination, she displays symptoms of anaphylaxis.
      What is the initial sign that is likely to appear first in a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Runny nose, skin rash, swelling of the lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs of Anaphylaxis: From Early Symptoms to Late Indicators of Shock

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. The first signs of anaphylaxis may look like normal symptoms of an allergy, such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips. However, if left untreated, more serious signs can appear within 30 minutes, indicating compromise of circulation and end-organs.

      One of the later and more severe indicators of respiratory compromise in patients with anaphylaxis is stridor. This is a prominent wheezing sound caused by the obstruction of the airway due to swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat. If the swelling continues, complete blockage can occur, resulting in asphyxiation.

      Hypotension is another late sign of anaphylaxis when the patient goes into shock. During anaphylaxis, the body reacts and releases chemicals such as histamine, causing blood vessels to vasodilate and leading to a drop in blood pressure. This can result in episodes of syncope, or fainting, as well as other symptoms of end-organ dysfunction such as hypotonia and incontinence.

      A weak pulse is also a late sign of anaphylaxis, indicating compromised circulation. However, it is not one of the first signs to present, as the body goes through a series of reactions before reaching this stage.

      In summary, understanding the signs of anaphylaxis is crucial for prompt treatment and prevention of life-threatening complications. Early symptoms such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips should not be ignored, as they can progress to more severe indicators of respiratory and circulatory compromise.

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  • Question 22 - A 65-year-old man, with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation being treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation being treated with warfarin, experiences a catastrophic intracranial hemorrhage. Despite receiving the highest level of organ support in the ICU, he fails to show any signs of improvement. Before deciding to withdraw organ support, he is evaluated for brain death.
      What healthcare professionals are necessary to diagnose brain death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Two doctors, one of whom must be a consultant, both fully registered for at least five years and both competent in the assessment, conduct and interpretation of brainstem examinations

      Explanation:

      Requirements for Diagnosis of Death by Neurological Criteria

      To diagnose death by neurological criteria, at least two medical practitioners must be involved. They should be fully registered for at least five years and competent in the assessment, conduct, and interpretation of brainstem examinations. At least one of the doctors must be a consultant, but not both.

      It is important to note that a nurse cannot be one of the medical practitioners involved in the diagnosis. Additionally, the number of doctors required for the diagnosis does not need to be three, as two competent doctors are sufficient.

      Overall, the diagnosis of death by neurological criteria should be taken seriously and conducted by qualified medical professionals to ensure accuracy and ethical considerations.

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  • Question 23 - A 28 year old patient is brought in by ambulance to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old patient is brought in by ambulance to the emergency department. He is a known intravenous drug user and is currently presenting with mild respiratory depression, reduced level of consciousness, and pinpoint pupils. What would be the most appropriate medication for initial management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Medication Antidotes: Understanding the Role of Naloxone, Flumazenil, N-acetyl-L-cysteine, Adrenaline, and Atropine

      Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Pinpoint pupils, reduced level of consciousness, and respiratory depression are common symptoms of opioid toxicity. Naloxone should be administered in incremental doses to avoid full reversal, which can cause withdrawal symptoms and agitation.

      Flumazenil is a specific antidote for benzodiazepine sedation. However, it would not be effective in cases of pupillary constriction.

      N-acetyl-L-cysteine is the antidote for paracetamol overdose, which can cause liver damage and acute liver failure.

      Adrenaline is used in cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis, but it has no role in the treatment of opiate toxicity.

      Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist used to treat symptomatic bradycardia. However, it can cause agitation in the hours following administration.

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  • Question 24 - A 21-year-old woman is referred to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old woman is referred to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-day history of right flank pain, dysuria and fever. Urosepsis is suspected, and the Sepsis Six Pathway is implemented in the Emergency Department.
      Which of the following is part of the ‘Sepsis Six’, the six key components to managing sepsis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) fluids

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Sepsis: IV Fluids, Corticosteroids, Antipyretics, and More

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate treatment. The following are some of the treatment options available for sepsis:

      IV Fluids: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends giving an IV fluid bolus without delay for suspected sepsis. Reassess the patient after completion of the IV fluid bolus, and if no improvement is observed, give a second bolus.

      Corticosteroids: In patients with septic shock, corticosteroid therapy appears to be safe but does not reduce 28-day all-cause mortality rates. It does, however, significantly reduce the incidence of vasopressor-dependent shock. Low-quality evidence indicates that steroids reduce mortality among patients with sepsis.

      Antipyretics: Treating sepsis is the most important immediate treatment plan. This will also reduce fever, although Antipyretics can be given in conjunction with this treatment, it will not reduce mortality.

      Maintain Blood Glucose 8–12 mmol/l: Measuring blood glucose on venous blood gas is important, as sepsis may cause hypo- or hyperglycaemia, which may require treatment. However, maintaining blood glucose between 8 and 12 mmol/l is not an evidence-based intervention and could cause iatrogenic hypo- and hyperglycaemia.

      Avoid Oxygen Therapy Unless Severe Hypoxia: Give oxygen to achieve a target saturation of 94−98% for adult patients or 88−92% for those at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure.

      Treatment Options for Sepsis: What You Need to Know

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  • Question 25 - A 38-year-old man is brought in by ambulance as a trauma call following...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man is brought in by ambulance as a trauma call following a road traffic collision. On admission, he has a GCS score of 10 and a primary survey reveals asymmetric pupils, an open right forearm fracture, absent breath sounds on the right side, extensive RUQ pain, a painful abdomen, and a systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg. When prioritizing intervention and stabilization of the patient, which injury should be given priority?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Absent breath sounds on the right side

      Explanation:

      Prioritizing Management in a Trauma Patient: An ABCDE Approach

      When managing a trauma patient, it is important to prioritize interventions based on the severity of their injuries. Using an ABCDE approach, we can assess and address each issue in order of priority.

      In the case of absent breath sounds on the right side, the priority would be to assess for a potential tension pneumothorax and treat it with needle decompression and chest drain insertion if necessary. Asymmetric pupils suggest an intracranial pathology, which would require confirmation via a CT head, but addressing the potential tension pneumothorax would still take priority.

      RUQ pain and abdominal tenderness would fall under ‘E’, but if there is suspicion of abdominal bleeding, then this would be elevated into the ‘C’ category. Regardless, addressing the breathing abnormality would be the priority here.

      An open forearm fracture would also fall under ‘E’, with the breathing issue needing to be addressed beforehand.

      Finally, the underlying hypotension, potentially caused by abdominal bleeding, falls under ‘C’, and therefore the breathing abnormality should be prioritized.

      In summary, using an ABCDE approach allows for a systematic and prioritized management of trauma patients, ensuring that the most life-threatening issues are addressed first.

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  • Question 26 - You are with the on-call anaesthetist who has been asked to see a...

    Incorrect

    • You are with the on-call anaesthetist who has been asked to see a 30-year-old man blue-lighted into the Emergency Department. The patient complains of being stung by a wasp while running and reports his arm becoming immediately swollen and red. He kept running but, within a few minutes, began to feel very light-headed and had difficulty breathing. On examination, the patient looks flushed and has a widespread wheeze on auscultation. Blood pressure 76/55 mmHg, heart rate 150 bpm, respiratory rate 32 breaths/minute.
      Which of the following is the best initial treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular (IM) 1 : 1000 adrenaline 500 micrograms

      Explanation:

      Management of Anaphylaxis: Initial Treatment and Beyond

      Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt and appropriate management. The Resuscitation Council has established three criteria for diagnosing anaphylaxis: sudden onset and rapid progression of symptoms, life-threatening airway, breathing, and circulatory problems, and skin changes. The initial management for anaphylaxis is IM 1 : 1000 adrenaline 500 micrograms, even before equipment or IV access is available. Once expertise and equipment are available, the airway should be stabilized, high-flow oxygen given, the patient fluid-challenged, and IV hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine given. Ephedrine has no role in anaphylaxis, and IV adrenaline is not the first-line management. Prompt intubation may be necessary, but IM adrenaline must be given before a full ABCDE assessment is made. Nebulized adrenaline may help with airway swelling, but it will not treat the underlying immunological phenomenon. Proper management of anaphylaxis requires a comprehensive approach that addresses both the immediate and long-term needs of the patient.

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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support for the last two weeks after a significant traumatic brain injury. A decision has to be made about whether they are taken off life support and whether or not the patient has irreversible brain damage.
      In which of the following circumstances can brain death be diagnosed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A ventilator-supported patient

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Factors that Affect Brain Death Diagnosis

      Brain death diagnosis is a critical process that determines the cessation of brain function, which is irreversible and leads to the death of an individual. However, several factors can affect the accuracy of this diagnosis, and they must be excluded before confirming brain death.

      One of the primary conditions for brain death diagnosis is the patient’s inability to maintain their own heartbeat and ventilation, requiring the support of a ventilator. However, this condition alone is not sufficient, and two other factors must be present, including unconsciousness and clear evidence of irreversible brain damage.

      Hypothermia is one of the factors that can confound the examination of cortical and brainstem function, making it difficult to diagnose brain death accurately. Similarly, encephalopathy secondary to hepatic failure and severe hypophosphataemia can also impact cortical and brainstem function, leading to inaccurate brain death diagnosis.

      Finally, sedation by anaesthetic or neuroparalytic agents can depress the neurological system, making it appear as if the patient is brain dead when they are not. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all these factors and exclude them before confirming brain death diagnosis.

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  • Question 28 - A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Incorrect

    • A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with a 4-day history of fever and lethargy. He has a background history of chronic urinary catheterisation for benign prostatic hyperplasia. On clinical examination, he is noted to be acutely confused. His temperature is 38.5 °C, and he has a heart rate of 97 bpm, blood pressure of 133/70 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count 13 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Blood glucose 6 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
      Urinalysis
      2+ blood
      2+ leukocytes
      1+ nitrites
      NAD
      What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sepsis, SIRS, Urinary Tract Infection, and Septic Shock

      Sepsis is a serious medical condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. One way to diagnose sepsis is by using the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria, which include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever or hypo/hyperthermia, and leukocytosis, leukopenia, or bandemia. If a patient meets two or more of these criteria, with or without evidence of infection, they may be diagnosed with SIRS.

      A urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common type of infection that can occur in patients with a long-term catheter. However, if a patient with a UTI also meets the SIRS criteria and has a source of infection, they should be treated as sepsis.

      Septic shock is a severe complication of sepsis that occurs when blood pressure drops to dangerously low levels. In this case, there is no evidence of septic shock as the patient’s blood pressure is normal.

      In summary, this patient meets the SIRS criteria for sepsis and has a source of infection, making it a case of high-risk sepsis. It is important to understand the differences between sepsis, SIRS, UTI, and septic shock to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 29 - A 42-year-old woman arrives at Accident and Emergency with severe cellulitis in her...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman arrives at Accident and Emergency with severe cellulitis in her left lower limb. She has no known allergies, is in good health, and is not currently experiencing fever or rapid heart rate. The medical team accepts her and starts her on IV antibiotics. However, she soon becomes hypoxic, experiencing difficulty breathing, with loud upper airway sounds and a widespread rash.
      What is the preferred treatment option in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg, 1 in 1000 intramuscularly (IM)

      Explanation:

      Correct Dosages of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis and Cardiac Arrest

      In cases of anaphylaxis, the recommended treatment is 1 : 1000 adrenaline 0.5 ml (0.5 mg) administered intramuscularly (IM). This dose should be given even if the patient has no known drug allergies but exhibits signs of anaphylaxis such as stridor and a rash.

      It is important to note that the correct dose of IM adrenaline for anaphylaxis is 0.5 mg, 1 in 1000. Administering a higher dose, such as 1 mg, 1 in 1000, can be dangerous and potentially harmful to the patient.

      On the other hand, during a cardiac arrest, the recommended dose of adrenaline is 1 mg, 1 in 10 000, administered intravenously (IV). This is not the recommended dose for anaphylaxis, and administering it through the wrong route can also be harmful to the patient.

      In summary, it is crucial to follow the correct dosages and routes of administration for adrenaline in different medical situations to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old woman, whose children called for an ambulance due to concerns about...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman, whose children called for an ambulance due to concerns about her breathing, has an arterial blood gas (ABG) test done. She is a frequent visitor to the Accident and Emergency department and has been experiencing a cough and producing green sputum for the past 6 days. She is currently receiving long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) at home. While on controlled oxygen therapy through a Venturi system, her ABG results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.232 7.35–7.45
      CO2 8.9 kPa 3.5–4.5 kPa
      O2 9.4 kPa 8.0–10.0 kPa
      HCO3– 33 mmol/l 22.0–28.0 mmol/l
      SaO2 89%
      Lactate 2.1 0.1–2.2
      Which of the following statements best describes this ABG?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation

      Explanation:

      Interpreting ABGs: Examples of Acid-Base Imbalances

      Acid-base imbalances can be identified through arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. Here are some examples of ABGs and their corresponding acid-base imbalances:

      Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation
      This ABG indicates a patient with long-term chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has chronic carbon dioxide (CO2) retention and partial metabolic compensation (elevated bicarbonate (HCO3)). However, during an infective exacerbation of COPD, the patient’s hypoxia and hypercapnia worsened, resulting in a more severe acidaemia. The metabolic compensation is therefore only partial.

      Respiratory acidosis with complete metabolic compensation
      This ABG shows respiratory acidosis with a low pH due to CO2 retention. Despite some metabolic compensation, this is an acute-on-chronic change that has led to a worsening of the acidaemia.

      Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
      In this ABG, a patient with chronic COPD who has presented with an infective exacerbation shows respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation.

      Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
      This ABG indicates acidaemia due to a chronic respiratory disease.

      Respiratory acidosis without compensation
      Although this ABG shows respiratory acidosis, there is an element of metabolic compensation, as evidenced by the rise in HCO3.

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