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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are called to attend a 35-year-old man who is in cardiac arrest on one of the wards. On arrival, the patient has defibrillator pads attached and someone is performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). A rhythm strip displays ventricular fibrillation during a CPR pause.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Give one further round of CPR, followed by safe direct current (DC) shock
Correct Answer: Safely DC shock immediately
Explanation:Proper Steps for Responding to a Shockable Rhythm
When responding to a shockable rhythm, such as ventricular fibrillation, it is important to follow the proper steps to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the resuscitation efforts. The first step is to immediately deliver a safe direct current (DC) shock, followed by one round of CPR and another safe DC shock. It is not appropriate to give drugs at this stage.
After the second shock, continue CPR at a rate of 30 compressions to 2 breaths with interval checks. It is important to note that CPR is appropriate on both sides of the Advanced Life Support (ALS) algorithm initially, but once the pads are attached and the rhythm has been observed, the appropriate pathway should be followed.
Under no circumstances should resuscitation be stopped if a shockable rhythm is observed. Instead, adrenaline 1:1000 IV should be administered only after the appropriate steps have been taken and the patient’s condition has been reassessed. By following these steps, responders can increase the chances of a successful resuscitation and potentially save a life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man is brought in by ambulance as a trauma call following a road traffic collision. On admission, he has a GCS score of 10 and a primary survey reveals asymmetric pupils, an open right forearm fracture, absent breath sounds on the right side, extensive RUQ pain, a painful abdomen, and a systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg. When prioritizing intervention and stabilization of the patient, which injury should be given priority?
Your Answer: RUQ pain and potential abdominal bleeding
Correct Answer: Absent breath sounds on the right side
Explanation:Prioritizing Management in a Trauma Patient: An ABCDE Approach
When managing a trauma patient, it is important to prioritize interventions based on the severity of their injuries. Using an ABCDE approach, we can assess and address each issue in order of priority.
In the case of absent breath sounds on the right side, the priority would be to assess for a potential tension pneumothorax and treat it with needle decompression and chest drain insertion if necessary. Asymmetric pupils suggest an intracranial pathology, which would require confirmation via a CT head, but addressing the potential tension pneumothorax would still take priority.
RUQ pain and abdominal tenderness would fall under ‘E’, but if there is suspicion of abdominal bleeding, then this would be elevated into the ‘C’ category. Regardless, addressing the breathing abnormality would be the priority here.
An open forearm fracture would also fall under ‘E’, with the breathing issue needing to be addressed beforehand.
Finally, the underlying hypotension, potentially caused by abdominal bleeding, falls under ‘C’, and therefore the breathing abnormality should be prioritized.
In summary, using an ABCDE approach allows for a systematic and prioritized management of trauma patients, ensuring that the most life-threatening issues are addressed first.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 3
Correct
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A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support for the last two weeks after a significant traumatic brain injury. A decision has to be made about whether they are taken off life support and whether or not the patient has irreversible brain damage.
In which of the following circumstances can brain death be diagnosed?Your Answer: A ventilator-supported patient
Explanation:Understanding the Factors that Affect Brain Death Diagnosis
Brain death diagnosis is a critical process that determines the cessation of brain function, which is irreversible and leads to the death of an individual. However, several factors can affect the accuracy of this diagnosis, and they must be excluded before confirming brain death.
One of the primary conditions for brain death diagnosis is the patient’s inability to maintain their own heartbeat and ventilation, requiring the support of a ventilator. However, this condition alone is not sufficient, and two other factors must be present, including unconsciousness and clear evidence of irreversible brain damage.
Hypothermia is one of the factors that can confound the examination of cortical and brainstem function, making it difficult to diagnose brain death accurately. Similarly, encephalopathy secondary to hepatic failure and severe hypophosphataemia can also impact cortical and brainstem function, leading to inaccurate brain death diagnosis.
Finally, sedation by anaesthetic or neuroparalytic agents can depress the neurological system, making it appear as if the patient is brain dead when they are not. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all these factors and exclude them before confirming brain death diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 4
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman is admitted unresponsive to the Emergency Department. She is not breathing and has no pulse. The ambulance crew had initiated cardiopulmonary resuscitation before arrival. She is known to have hypertension and takes ramipril.
She had routine bloods at the General Practice surgery three days ago:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 134 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 3.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 9.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 83 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) > 60
The Ambulance Crew hand you an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip which shows ventricular fibrillation (VF).
What is the most likely cause of her cardiac arrest?Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Cardiac Arrest: Hyperkalaemia as the Most Likely Cause
The patient’s rhythm strip shows ventricular fibrillation (VF), which suggests hyperkalaemia as the most likely cause of cardiac arrest. The blood results from three days ago and the patient’s medication (ramipril) support this diagnosis. Ramipril can increase potassium levels, and the patient’s K+ level was already high. Therefore, it is recommended to suspend ramipril until the K+ level comes down.
Other potential causes of cardiac arrest were considered and ruled out. There is no evidence of hypernatraemia, hypovolaemia, or hypoxia in the patient’s history or blood results. While pulmonary thrombus cannot be excluded, it is unlikely to result in VF arrest and usually presents as pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
In summary, hyperkalaemia is the most likely cause of the patient’s cardiac arrest, and appropriate measures should be taken to manage potassium levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 5
Correct
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A 28 year old patient is brought in by ambulance to the emergency department. He is a known intravenous drug user and is currently presenting with mild respiratory depression, reduced level of consciousness, and pinpoint pupils. What would be the most appropriate medication for initial management?
Your Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Medication Antidotes: Understanding the Role of Naloxone, Flumazenil, N-acetyl-L-cysteine, Adrenaline, and Atropine
Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. Pinpoint pupils, reduced level of consciousness, and respiratory depression are common symptoms of opioid toxicity. Naloxone should be administered in incremental doses to avoid full reversal, which can cause withdrawal symptoms and agitation.
Flumazenil is a specific antidote for benzodiazepine sedation. However, it would not be effective in cases of pupillary constriction.
N-acetyl-L-cysteine is the antidote for paracetamol overdose, which can cause liver damage and acute liver failure.
Adrenaline is used in cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis, but it has no role in the treatment of opiate toxicity.
Atropine is a muscarinic antagonist used to treat symptomatic bradycardia. However, it can cause agitation in the hours following administration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 6
Correct
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A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with fever, rigors, breathlessness and a cough. He is producing a frothy pink/green sputum spotted with blood. On examination, you find that he is very confused, with a respiratory rate (RR) of 33 breaths per minute and blood pressure (BP) of 100/70 mmHg. Bloods reveal his urea is 3.2 mmol/l. On auscultation of the chest, you hear a pleural rub. Chest X-ray reveals multilobar consolidation.
Which one of the following statements regarding his management is most appropriate?Your Answer: He needs an ABC approach with fluid resuscitation
Explanation:Managing Severe Pneumonia: Key Considerations and Treatment Approaches
Severe pneumonia requires prompt and effective management to prevent complications and improve outcomes. The following points highlight important considerations and treatment approaches for managing patients with severe pneumonia:
– ABC approach with fluid resuscitation: The initial step in managing severe pneumonia involves assessing and addressing the patient’s airway, breathing, and circulation. This may include providing oxygen therapy, administering fluids to correct hypovolemia or dehydration, and monitoring vital signs.
– CURB 65 score: This scoring system helps to assess the severity of pneumonia and guide treatment decisions. Patients with a score of 3 or higher may require ICU referral.
– Oxygen saturation: Low oxygen saturation levels (<95%) at presentation increase the risk of death and should be promptly addressed with oxygen therapy.
– Analgesia for pleuritic chest pain: While analgesia may be offered to manage pleuritic chest pain, it may not be effective in all cases. Paracetamol or NSAIDs are recommended as first-line options.
– Antibiotic therapy: Empirical antibiotics should be started promptly after appropriate resuscitation. Culture results should be obtained to confirm the causative organism and guide further treatment.In summary, managing severe pneumonia requires a comprehensive approach that addresses the patient’s clinical status, severity of illness, and potential complications. By following these key considerations and treatment approaches, healthcare providers can improve outcomes and reduce the risk of adverse events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-week history of productive cough and fever. She has had no sick contacts or foreign travel. She has a background history of mild intermittent asthma and is a non-smoker. She has been taking paracetamol and salbutamol. On clinical examination, her respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% (on room air), blood pressure 136/82 mmHg and temperature 38.2 °C. On chest auscultation, there is mild expiratory wheeze and coarse crackles in the right lung base.
What is the most appropriate management of this woman?Your Answer: Arrange a chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days
Explanation:Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia in a Woman with a CRB-65 Score of 0
When managing a woman with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and a CRB-65 score of 0, the recommended treatment is amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days. If there is no improvement after three days, the duration of treatment should be extended to seven to ten days.
If the CRB-65 score is 1 or 2, dual therapy with amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily and clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for 7-10 days, or monotherapy with doxycycline for 7-10 days, should be considered. However, in this case, the CRB-65 score is 0, so this is not necessary.
Admission for intravenous (IV) antibiotics and steroids is not required for this woman, as she is relatively well with mild wheeze and a CRB-65 score of 0. A chest X-ray is also not necessary, as she is younger and a non-smoker.
Symptomatic management should be continued, and the woman should be advised to return in three days if there is no improvement. It is important to prescribe antibiotics for people with suspected CAP, unless this is not appropriate, such as in end-of-life care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home on the floor by her daughter. Her daughter tried to rouse her but had no response. She has a laceration to her head and her daughter believes she may have had a fall. You notice she has a sudden decrease in consciousness in the department. You are unable to get the patient to make any vocalisation. When you apply supraorbital pressure, she briefly opens her eyes and withdraws from the pain.
Which one of the following is the best immediate management option for this patient?Your Answer: Urgent CT brain scan
Correct Answer: Insert Guedel airway
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Low Glasgow Coma Scale Score
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in patients. A patient with a GCS score below 8 requires urgent referral to critical care or the anaesthetist on-call for appropriate management. In this case, the patient has a GCS score of 7 (E2, V1, M4) and needs immediate attention.
Airway management is the top priority in patients with a low GCS score. The patient may need invasive ventilation if they lose the capacity to maintain their own airway. Once the airway is secured, a referral to the neurosurgical registrar may be necessary, and investigations such as a CT brain scan should be carried out to determine the cause of the low GCS score.
A neurological observation chart is also needed to detect any deteriorating central nervous system function. A medication review can be done once the patient is stabilised and an intracranial bleed has been ruled out. This will help identify medications that could cause a fall and stop unnecessary medication.
In summary, a patient with a low GCS score requires urgent attention to secure their airway, determine the cause of the low score, and monitor for any neurological deterioration. A medication review can be done once the patient is stable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is brought to the Intensive Care Unit after accidental drowning in a lake. He was a swimmer who got into trouble and was underwater for approximately 10 minutes before being rescued. He was found unresponsive and not breathing, and bystanders immediately started performing CPR while waiting for emergency services. Upon arrival at the ICU, he is intubated and ventilated, and his vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, pulse 130 bpm, oxygen saturations 85%, and temperature 33.2 °C.
Under what circumstances is extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) considered as a treatment option for drowning patients?Your Answer: Altered level of consciousness
Correct Answer: Persistent hypothermia from cold water drowning
Explanation:When to Consider Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation (ECMO) for Drowning Patients
Drowning can lead to respiratory compromise and persistent hypothermia, which may require advanced medical intervention. Extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) is a treatment option that can be considered for selected patients who have drowned. However, it is important to understand the indications for ECMO and when it may not be appropriate.
ECMO may be considered in cases where conventional mechanical ventilation or high-frequency ventilation have failed to improve respiratory function. Additionally, there should be a reasonable probability of the patient recovering neurological function. Persistent hypothermia from cold water drowning is another indication for ECMO.
On the other hand, altered level of consciousness alone is not an indication for ECMO. Patients who respond well to conventional mechanical ventilation or high-frequency ventilation may not require ECMO. Similarly, haemodynamic instability can be managed with inotropes and fluids, and ECMO should only be considered for patients who are resistant to conventional organ support.
It is important to note that ECMO has a high complication rate, with a 15% risk of bleeding. Therefore, it should only be used in selected cases where the potential benefits outweigh the risks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with a 4-day history of fever and lethargy. He has a background history of chronic urinary catheterisation for benign prostatic hyperplasia. On clinical examination, he is noted to be acutely confused. His temperature is 38.5 °C, and he has a heart rate of 97 bpm, blood pressure of 133/70 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
Investigation Result Normal value
White cell count 13 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Blood glucose 6 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
Urinalysis
2+ blood
2+ leukocytes
1+ nitrites
NAD
What is the diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Urinary tract infection
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Explanation:Understanding Sepsis, SIRS, Urinary Tract Infection, and Septic Shock
Sepsis is a serious medical condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. One way to diagnose sepsis is by using the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria, which include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever or hypo/hyperthermia, and leukocytosis, leukopenia, or bandemia. If a patient meets two or more of these criteria, with or without evidence of infection, they may be diagnosed with SIRS.
A urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common type of infection that can occur in patients with a long-term catheter. However, if a patient with a UTI also meets the SIRS criteria and has a source of infection, they should be treated as sepsis.
Septic shock is a severe complication of sepsis that occurs when blood pressure drops to dangerously low levels. In this case, there is no evidence of septic shock as the patient’s blood pressure is normal.
In summary, this patient meets the SIRS criteria for sepsis and has a source of infection, making it a case of high-risk sepsis. It is important to understand the differences between sepsis, SIRS, UTI, and septic shock to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 11
Correct
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A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after near-drowning. This occurred after he fell from a boat into a lake, while intoxicated with alcohol. He has no medical history. He is drowsy, with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9; his oxygen saturations are 80% on an inspired fraction of oxygen (FiO2) of 1.0 via a non-rebreather face mask.
Which of the following is part of the treatment algorithm for drowning?Your Answer: Warming strategies for hypothermia
Explanation:Warming and Treatment Strategies for Hypothermia and Drowning
Hypothermia and drowning are serious medical emergencies that require prompt intervention to prevent further complications. In cases of hypothermia, the severity of the condition will determine the appropriate intervention. For mild cases, passive rewarming through heated blankets and warm fluids may be sufficient. However, for more severe cases, blood rewarming through the use of a haemodialysis machine or warm intravenous fluids may be necessary. Airway rewarming using humidified oxygen may also be used.
In cases of drowning, support for shock is crucial, and patients should be managed with warming, IV fluids, and airway support. Diuresis should be avoided in shocked patients. Oxygenation is critical in treating post-drowning patients, and intubation and mechanical ventilation may be required in cases of moderate to severe hypoxia. Prophylactic antibiotics are unproven, but may be given if fever develops or there is grossly contaminated aspirated water. Treatment should be targeted towards likely pathogens, with route of administration depending on the patient’s condition. Pneumonia can be a major complication, and atypical organisms should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 12
Correct
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A 68 year old homeless man is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion. The patient is unable to provide a history and is shivering profusely. Physical examination reveals a body temperature of 34.5oC.
Regarding thermoregulation, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: Acclimatisation of the sweating mechanism occurs in response to heat
Explanation:Understanding Heat Adaptation and Thermoregulation in Humans
Humans have the unique ability to actively acclimatize to heat stress through adaptations in the sweating mechanism. This process involves an increase in the sweating capability of the glands, which helps to lower body core temperatures. Heat adaptation begins on the first day of exposure and typically takes 4-7 days to develop in most individuals, with complete adaptation taking around 14 days.
While brown fat plays a significant role in non-shivering thermogenesis in newborns and infants, there are very few remnants of brown fat in adults. Instead, thermoregulation is mainly controlled by the hypothalamus, which is responsible for regulating body temperature and other vital functions.
Although apocrine sweat glands have little role in thermoregulation, they still play an important role in heat loss by evaporation. Overall, understanding heat adaptation and thermoregulation in humans is crucial for maintaining optimal health and preventing heat-related illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 13
Correct
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A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face and lips, accompanied by wheeze after being stung by a bee. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and has a blood pressure reading of 83/45 mmHg from a manual reading. What is the next course of action?
Your Answer: Give 1 : 1000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline and repeat after 5 min if no improvement
Explanation:Treatment for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The following are the appropriate steps to take when dealing with anaphylaxis:
Administer 1 : 1000 intramuscular (IM) adrenaline and repeat after 5 minutes if there is no improvement. Adrenaline should not be given intravenously unless the person administering it is skilled and experienced in its use. Routine use of IV adrenaline is not recommended.
Administer IV fluids if anaphylactic shock occurs to maintain the circulatory volume. Salbutamol nebulizers may help manage associated wheezing.
Do not give IV hydrocortisone as it takes several hours to work and anaphylaxis is rapidly life-threatening.
Do not observe the person as anaphylaxis may progress quickly.
Do not give 1 : 10 000 IV adrenaline as this concentration is only given during a cardiac arrest.
In summary, the immediate administration of 1 : 1000 IM adrenaline is the most critical step in treating anaphylaxis. IV adrenaline and hydrocortisone should only be given by skilled and experienced individuals. IV fluids and salbutamol nebulizers may also be used to manage symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You see a 92-year-old gentleman who has been admitted following a fall. He had been discovered lying on the floor of his home by a neighbour. He has a diagnosis of dementia and cannot recall how long ago he had fallen. His observations are normal and he is apyrexial. A pelvic X-ray, including both hips, shows no evidence of bony injury. A full blood count is normal.
His biochemistry results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Creatinine 210 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Urea 22.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Sodium 133 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 8 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
What is the most appropriate investigation to request next?Your Answer: Liver function tests
Correct Answer: Creatine kinase
Explanation:Investigating the Cause of Renal Failure: Importance of Creatine Kinase
Renal failure can have various causes, including dehydration, sepsis, and rhabdomyolysis. In this case, the patient’s normal observations and inflammatory markers suggest rhabdomyolysis as the most serious potential cause. A raised creatine kinase would confirm the diagnosis. Elderly patients are particularly at risk of rhabdomyolysis following a prolonged period of immobility. A falls screen, including routine bloods, blood glucose, resting electrocardiogram, urinalysis, and lying-standing blood pressure, would be appropriate. While a catheter urine specimen may be helpful in diagnosing sepsis, it is less likely in this case. Liver function tests and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy are unlikely to provide useful information. A plain chest X-ray is also not necessary for investigating the cause of renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with a history of eczema and asthma suddenly experiences breathlessness, nausea, and facial swelling after eating a chicken skewer at a party. Her friends report raised red bumps all over her skin and her lips are turning blue. What is the most appropriate immediate management for this patient?
Your Answer: IV adrenaline 0.5 ml of 1 : 10 000
Correct Answer: Intramuscular (IM) adrenaline 0.5 mg (1 : 1000)
Explanation:For a patient experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, immediate treatment with intramuscular (IM) adrenaline 0.5 mg (1 : 1000) is necessary. This can be repeated every 5 minutes as needed, based on vital signs, until the patient stabilizes. Intravenous (IV) chlorphenamine in 0.9% saline (500 ml) may also be given, but only after adrenaline. Salbutamol may be considered after initial resuscitation, but oxygen administration, IM adrenaline, IV chlorphenamine, and hydrocortisone are the most important treatments. IV adrenaline 0.5 ml of 1 : 10 000 is only used in severe cases that do not respond to initial treatment and should be administered by experienced specialists. Reassurance and breathing exercises are not appropriate for a patient with a history of severe anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 16
Correct
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A 34-year-old surgical patient develops wheeze, lip swelling, and pallor while receiving antibiotics. Her blood pressure is 70/38 mmHg. What urgent treatment is required?
Your Answer: 1:1000 IM adrenaline
Explanation:Understanding the Correct Treatment for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline via the intramuscular (IM) route is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Adrenaline’s inotropic action provides an immediate response, making it a lifesaving treatment. Once the patient is stabilized, intravenous hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine can also be administered. However, adrenaline remains the primary treatment.
It is crucial to conduct a full ABCDE assessment and involve an anaesthetist if there are concerns about the airway. Using 1:10,000 IM adrenaline is sub-therapeutic in the setting of anaphylaxis. This dose is only used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Similarly, 1:10,000 IM noradrenaline is the wrong choice of drug and dose for anaphylaxis treatment.
Intramuscular glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia when the patient is unconscious or too drowsy to administer glucose replacement therapy orally. Intravenous noradrenaline is not the correct drug or route for anaphylaxis treatment. Understanding the correct treatment for anaphylaxis is crucial in saving lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 17
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department (ED) with a fever of 40 °C, vomiting and diarrhea, and is extremely restless. He has hyperthyroidism but is known to not take his medication regularly. The ED registrar suspects that he is experiencing a thyroid storm.
What is the most probable statement about a thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)?Your Answer: Fluid resuscitation, propranolol and carbimazole are used in the management of a thyroid storm
Explanation:When managing a patient with a thyroid storm, it is important to first stabilize them by addressing their presenting symptoms. This may involve fluid resuscitation, a nasogastric tube if vomiting, and sedation if necessary. Beta-blockers are often used to reduce the effects of excessive thyroid hormones on end-organs, and high-dose digoxin may be used with close cardiac monitoring. Antithyroid drugs, such as carbimazole, are then used. Tepid sponging is used to manage excessive hyperthermia, and active warming may be used in cases of myxoedema coma. Men are actually more commonly affected by thyroid storms than women. Precipitants of a thyroid storm include recent thyroid surgery, radioiodine, infection, myocardial infarction, and trauma. Levothyroxine is given to replace low thyroxine levels in cases of hypothyroidism, while hydrocortisone or dexamethasone may be given to prevent peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 in managing a patient with a thyroid storm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman, who is a nursing home resident, presents to the Emergency Department, complaining of a one-week history of a red swollen calf, nausea and ‘ants on her arm’. She is noted to be unsteady on her feet and cannot remember what medications she is on. Observations find her temperature is 38.6 °C, oxygen saturation 98%, blood pressure 90/60 mmHg, heart rate 90 bpm and respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute.
What is the most likely cause of her hypotension?Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Red Swollen Calf and Signs of Infection
This patient is presenting with a red swollen calf, which is most likely caused by cellulitis. However, there are other possible diagnoses to consider based on the patient’s symptoms.
One possible diagnosis is sepsis, which is a life-threatening condition. The patient should be treated immediately using the Sepsis Six protocol.
Another possible diagnosis is pulmonary embolus with an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT), but this should be considered after ruling out sepsis and starting antibiotics.
Hypovolaemia is also a consideration due to the patient’s hypotension, but there is no history of blood or fluid loss.
Myocardial infarction is unlikely as the patient has no history of cardiac disease and did not present with any chest symptoms.
Anaphylaxis is not a possible cause given the lack of a causative agent and other features associated with anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 19
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and sluggishness for the past three weeks, along with discomfort in the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. She had a UTI not long ago, which was treated with amoxicillin. However, she ceased taking the medication due to a rash that spread throughout her body. What is the probable cause of her exhaustion?
Your Answer: Glandular fever
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Glandular Fever, Chronic Fatigue Syndrome, Chronic Renal Failure, Chronic Depression, Iron Deficiency
Glandular Fever: A Possible Diagnosis
The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis. This condition is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which is transmitted through saliva. Symptoms typically include a sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. However, other symptoms such as fatigue, arthritis, and hepatitis may also occur. The patient’s left upper quadrant pain and tiredness are consistent with this diagnosis. A characteristic rash may also develop following treatment with certain antibiotics.Other Possible Diagnoses
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a chronic condition characterized by extreme fatigue and functional impairment. However, given the short time frame of the symptoms and association with amoxicillin, this diagnosis is unlikely. Chronic renal failure is associated with fatigue and anaemia, but there is no evidence of a history of this condition. Chronic depression may cause fatigue, but the duration of symptoms would be longer than three weeks and not associated with an infection or abdominal pain. Iron deficiency is a common cause of fatigue in women of reproductive age and should also be considered. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 20
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with fever and a non-healing infected ulcer in his leg. He has a history of obesity and type 2 diabetes. He reports that his leg was extremely painful but now is no longer painful. On clinical examination, his temperature is 38.6 °C, heart rate 110 bpm and blood pressure 104/69 mmHg. Peripheral pulses are palpable on examining his legs. There is tense oedema, dusky blue/purple plaques and haemorrhagic bullae on his right leg, with an underlying venous ulcer. Palpation reveals crepitus. After taking blood cultures, treatment is commenced with intravenous (IV) antibiotics and fluids.
What is the next and most important step in management?Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the affected limb
Correct Answer: Surgical debridement in theatre
Explanation:Treatment Options for Necrotising Fasciitis
Necrotising fasciitis (NF) is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. Antimicrobial therapy and support alone have shown to have a mortality rate of almost 100%. The primary goal of surgical intervention is to remove all necrotic tissue until healthy, viable tissue is reached. This can be done through surgical debridement in theatre or bedside wound debridement by a plastic surgeon in an aseptic environment.
Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) treatment is believed to increase the bactericidal effects of neutrophils and can be useful in treating synergistic infections. However, access to HBO units with appropriate staffing and chambers large enough for intensive care patients is limited.
IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) has shown potential benefits in group A streptococcal (GAS) infections, but further studies are needed to determine its exact benefits in NF.
While X-ray, MRI, and CT scans can aid in the diagnosis of NF, surgical treatment should never be delayed for these tests. Immediate surgical intervention is crucial in treating this life-threatening condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 21
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A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with acute pancreatitis caused by excessive alcohol consumption. His abdominal sepsis is complicated by multi-organ failure. He is currently receiving mechanical ventilation, inotropic support, and continuous haemodialysis in the ICU. What evidence-based strategies have been shown to decrease mortality in cases of sepsis?
Your Answer: Maintenance of the patient’s blood sugar level between 4.4 and 6 mmol/l
Explanation:Critical Care Management Strategies
Maintaining the patient’s blood sugar level between 4.4 and 6 mmol/l is crucial in critical care management. Stress and severe illness can reduce insulin secretion, leading to hyperglycemia. Intravenous infusion of short-acting insulin is recommended to achieve this goal. However, in some cases, a range of 5-9 mmol/l may be necessary.
Blood transfusion to maintain a haemoglobin level above 100 g/l is not recommended in critically ill patients. Studies show that it does not improve patient outcomes and may lead to potential complications. A haemoglobin level of 70-90 g/l is considered acceptable in the absence of ischaemic heart disease.
High-dose steroids are not routinely recommended in septic shock management. However, they may be considered in patients with increasing vasopressor requirements and failure of other therapeutic strategies. Low-dose steroids have also not shown significant reduction in mortality rates.
Nursing the patient semi-recumbent (sitting at 30-45 degrees) instead of completely flat is recommended to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia. This position helps to prevent aspiration and promotes better lung function.
Critical Care Management Strategies for Patients in ICU
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He was wearing a helmet at the time of the crash; the helmet cracked on impact. At presentation, he is haemodynamically stable and examination is unremarkable, aside from superficial abrasions on the arms and legs. Specifically, he is neurologically intact. He is nevertheless offered admission for head injury charting and observation. Two hours after admission, nurses find him unresponsive, with a unilateral fixed, dilated pupil. An emergency computed tomography (CT) scan is performed.
What is the likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)
Correct Answer: Extradural haemorrhage
Explanation:Extradural Haemorrhage: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Extradural haemorrhage is a type of head injury that can lead to neurological compromise and coma if left untreated. It is typically caused by trauma to the middle meningeal artery, meningeal veins, or a dural venous sinus. The condition is most prevalent in young men involved in road traffic accidents and is characterized by a lucid interval followed by a decrease in consciousness.
CT scans typically show a high-density, lens-shaped collection of peripheral blood in the extradural space between the inner table of the skull bones and the dural surface. As the blood collects, patients may experience severe headache, vomiting, confusion, fits, hemiparesis, and ipsilateral pupil dilation.
Treatment for extradural haemorrhage involves urgent decompression by creating a borehole above the site of the clot. Prognosis is poor if the patient is comatose or decerebrate or has a fixed pupil, but otherwise, it is excellent.
It is important to differentiate extradural haemorrhage from other types of head injuries, such as subdural haemorrhage, subarachnoid haemorrhage, and Intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Subdural haemorrhage is not limited by cranial sutures, while subarachnoid haemorrhage is characterized by blood lining the sulci of the brain. Intraparenchymal haemorrhage, on the other hand, refers to blood within the brain parenchyma.
In conclusion, extradural haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is admitted after being found lying on the street with a reduced conscious level.
On examination, he has pinpoint pupils and needle-track marks on his arms.
What would be the most likely pattern on the arterial blood gas in this case?Your Answer: Hypocapnia and respiratory acidosis
Correct Answer: Hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis
Explanation:Understanding the Relationship between Hypercapnia and Acid-Base Imbalances
Opiate overdose can cause respiratory depression, leading to hypoventilation and subsequent hypercapnia. This results in respiratory acidosis, which can lead to coma and pinpoint pupils. The treatment for this condition is intravenous naloxone, with repeat dosing and infusion as necessary. It is important to note that hypercapnia always leads to an acidosis, not an alkalosis, and that hypocapnia would not cause a respiratory acidosis. Understanding the relationship between hypercapnia and acid-base imbalances is crucial in managing respiratory depression and related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 24
Correct
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A 49-year-old man with severe acute pancreatitis is transferred from the surgical ward to the Intensive Care Unit with rapidly worsening shortness of breath. He has a history of heavy smoking and alcohol use.
On examination, in the Intensive Care Unit, he is maintaining saturations of 91% only on the ‘non-rebreather’ mask. There is cyanosis around the lips; bilateral crackles are present on auscultation of the lungs.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.32 7.35–7.45
pO2 8.1 kPa (on oxygen) 10.5–13.5 kPa
pCO2 4.8 kPa 4.6–6.0 kPa
Chest X-ray Bilateral pulmonary infiltrates
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Explanation:Understanding Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) and Differential Diagnoses
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a severe condition that can be caused by various factors, including trauma, acute sepsis, and severe medical illnesses. It is characterized by a diffuse, acute inflammatory response that leads to increased vascular permeability of the lung parenchyma and loss of aerated tissue. Symptoms typically occur within 6-72 hours of the initiating event and progress rapidly, requiring high-level care. Hypoxia is difficult to manage, and pulmonary infiltrates are seen on chest X-ray. Careful fluid management and ventilation are necessary, as mortality rates can be as high as 30%. Corticosteroids may reduce late-phase damage and fibrosis.
While secondary pneumonia may be included in the differential diagnosis, the acute deterioration and bilateral infiltrates suggest ARDS. Unilateral radiographic changes are more commonly associated with pneumonia. Viral pneumonitis is another possible diagnosis, but the rapid onset of ARDS distinguishes it from viral pneumonitis. Fibrosing alveolitis, a chronic interstitial lung disease, is unlikely to present acutely. Cardiac failure is also unlikely, as there are no cardiac abnormalities described on examination and the chest radiograph does not demonstrate cardiomegaly, pulmonary venous congestion, Kerley B lines, or pulmonary effusions that are suggestive of a cardiac cause. Echocardiography may be helpful in assessing cardiac functionality.
In summary, ARDS is a serious condition that requires prompt and careful management. Differential diagnoses should be considered, but the acute onset and bilateral infiltrates seen on chest X-ray are suggestive of ARDS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man received a two unit blood transfusion 1 hour ago. He reports feeling a strange sensation in his chest, like his heart is skipping a beat. You conduct an ECG which reveals tall tented T waves in multiple leads.
An arterial blood gas (ABG) test shows:
Na+: 136 mmol/l (normal 135–145 mmol/l)
K+: 7.1 mmol/l (normal 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
Cl–: 96 mmol/l (normal 95–105 mmol/l).
What immediate treatment should be administered based on these findings?Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia: Calcium Gluconate, Normal Saline Bolus, Calcium Resonium, Insulin and Dextrose, Dexamethasone
Understanding Treatment Options for Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where the potassium levels in the blood are higher than normal. This can lead to ECG changes, palpitations, and a high risk of arrhythmias. There are several treatment options available for hyperkalaemia, each with its own mechanism of action and benefits.
One of the most effective treatments for hyperkalaemia is calcium gluconate. This medication works by reducing the excitability of cardiomyocytes, which stabilizes the myocardium and protects the heart from arrhythmias. However, calcium gluconate does not reduce the potassium level in the blood, so additional treatments are necessary.
A normal saline bolus is not an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia. Similarly, calcium resonium, which removes potassium from the body via the gastrointestinal tract, is slow-acting and will not protect the patient from arrhythmias acutely.
Insulin and dextrose are commonly used to treat hyperkalaemia. Insulin shifts potassium intracellularly, which decreases serum potassium levels. Dextrose is needed to prevent hypoglycaemia. This treatment reduces potassium levels by 0.6-1.0 mmol/L every 15 minutes and is effective in treating hyperkalaemia. However, it does not acutely protect the heart from arrhythmias and should be given following the administration of calcium gluconate.
Dexamethasone is not a treatment for hyperkalaemia and should not be used for this purpose.
In conclusion, calcium gluconate is an effective treatment for hyperkalaemia and should be administered first to protect the heart from arrhythmias. Additional treatments such as insulin and dextrose can be used to reduce potassium levels, but they should be given after calcium gluconate. Understanding the different treatment options for hyperkalaemia is essential for providing appropriate care to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman has been brought to Accident and Emergency from her residential home due to increasing concern from staff there. She has been experiencing increasing confusion over the past few days, which staff initially attributed to her Alzheimer's dementia. She has a known history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), but no other long-term medical conditions. During the ambulance ride to the hospital, she was given intravenous (IV) paracetamol. Unfortunately, you are unable to obtain any useful medical history from her. However, she is responding to voice only, with some minor abdominal tenderness found on examination and little else. She appears to be in shock, and her vital signs are as follows:
Temperature 37.6 °C
Blood pressure 88/52 mmHg
Heart rate 112 bpm
Saturations 92% on room air
An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, which shows first-degree heart block and nothing else.
What type of shock is this woman likely experiencing?Your Answer: Neurogenic
Correct Answer: Septic
Explanation:Differentiating Shock Types: A Case Vignette
An elderly woman presents with a change in mental state, indicating delirium. Abdominal tenderness suggests a urinary tract infection (UTI), which may have progressed to sepsis. Although there is no pyrexia, the patient has received IV paracetamol, which could mask a fever. Anaphylactic shock is unlikely as there is no mention of new medication administration. Hypovolaemic shock is also unlikely as there is no evidence of blood loss or volume depletion. Cardiogenic shock is improbable due to the absence of cardiac symptoms. Neurogenic shock is not a consideration as there is no indication of spinal pathology. Urgent intervention is necessary to treat the sepsis according to sepsis guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 27
Correct
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A 35-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after smoking excessive amounts of heroin. He is unresponsive and exhibits pinpoint pupils and symptoms of respiratory depression.
What is the most suitable antidote for this patient?Your Answer: Naloxone
Explanation:Antidotes for Overdose: Understanding the Correct Treatment for Different Types of Overdose
Overdose can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate medical attention. Different types of overdose require different antidotes for effective treatment. Here is a breakdown of some common antidotes and their uses:
Naloxone: This is the first-line treatment for opioid overdose. It works by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and reversing the effects of opioids. Naloxone can be given intravenously, intramuscularly, subcutaneously, or intranasally.
Vitamin K: This antidote is used for patients with severe bleeding on anticoagulation therapy or those who are vitamin K-deficient. Vitamin K takes time to take effect, with the maximum effect occurring 6-24 hours after administration.
Lithium: This medication is not used as an antidote for overdose. It is commonly used for mania and bipolar disorder.
Flumazenil: This is the first-line treatment for benzodiazepine overdose. It works by competing with benzodiazepines for receptor binding sites. Flumazenil should only be given in cases of known benzodiazepine overdose.
N-acetylcysteine (NAC): This is the first-line antidote for paracetamol overdose. It works by replenishing depleted glutathione reserves in the liver and enhancing non-toxic metabolism of acetaminophen.
In conclusion, understanding the correct antidote for different types of overdose is crucial for effective treatment. Naloxone for opioid overdose, vitamin K for severe bleeding, flumazenil for benzodiazepine overdose, and NAC for paracetamol overdose are some common examples of antidotes used in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl was brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. Her lips were swollen; she had stridor and was short of breath, and she was sweaty and clammy. She has a known allergy to shellfish and had eaten some seafood at a family gathering.
What is the appropriate course of action?Your Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline intramuscularly (im)
Correct Answer: 300 mcg of 1 : 1000 adrenaline im
Explanation:Correct Doses and Administration of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis
Adrenaline is a crucial medication for treating anaphylaxis, and it is always administered intramuscularly (im) at a concentration of 1:1000. However, it is essential to know the correct doses and volumes for different age groups, as vials can vary.
For adults and children over 12 years old, the appropriate dose is 500 mcg or 0.5 ml. For children aged 6-12 years, the correct dose is 300 mcg or 0.3 ml. For children under 6 years old, the recommended dose is 150 mcg or 0.15 ml.
It is crucial to administer the correct dose for the patient’s age and weight to avoid adverse effects. Additionally, it is essential to administer adrenaline im and not intravenously (iv) to prevent complications. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective treatment of anaphylaxis with adrenaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 29
Correct
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An 80-year-old man with a history of recurrent falls attends the Elderly Care Clinic with his daughter. He also has a history of mild dementia, congestive heart failure, coronary artery disease, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He takes furosemide, lisinopril, amitriptyline, aspirin, metoprolol, olanzapine and simvastatin. He lives by himself in a house in which he has lived for 30 years and has help with all activities of daily living. On examination, he appears frail, has mild bruising over both knees from recent falls and has reduced proximal lower-extremity muscle strength.
Which of the following interventions will decrease his risk of falling in the future?Your Answer: Balance and gait training physical exercises
Explanation:The Most Appropriate Interventions to Reduce Falls in the Elderly
Balance and gait training exercises are effective interventions to reduce falls in the elderly. On the other hand, continuing olanzapine and commencing donepezil have not been proven to reduce the risk of falls. Diuretics, such as furosemide, can increase the likelihood of falls, so stopping them is recommended. Additionally, amitriptyline has anticholinergic side-effects that can lead to confusion and falls, so discontinuing it is a quick and potentially effective intervention. Overall, a multifactorial approach that includes balance and gait training, medication review, and fall risk assessment is the most appropriate strategy to reduce falls in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male inpatient with an infective exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has suddenly become very unwell in the space of 10–15 minutes and is struggling to breathe. The nurse tells you he is on intravenous (IV) antibiotics for this exacerbation and has been on the ward for a few days.
Which one of the following would be the most concerning observation after assessing this patient?Your Answer: Heart rate 82 bpm and respiratory rate 19 breaths/minute
Correct Answer: Left-sided pleuritic chest pain
Explanation:Assessing Symptoms and Vital Signs in a Patient with COPD Exacerbation
When evaluating a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing an infective exacerbation, it is important to consider their symptoms and vital signs. Left-sided pleuritic chest pain is a concerning symptom that may indicate pneumothorax, which requires urgent attention. However, it is common for COPD patients with exacerbations to be on non-invasive ventilation (NIV), which is not necessarily alarming. A slightly elevated heart rate and respiratory rate may also be expected in this context. An increased antero-posterior (AP) diameter on X-ray is a typical finding in COPD patients due to hyperinflated lungs. A borderline fever is also common in patients with infective exacerbations of COPD. Overall, a comprehensive assessment of symptoms and vital signs is crucial in managing COPD exacerbations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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