00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 0 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department via ambulance with reduced level of consciousness, non-blanching rash, headache, neck stiffness and fever. Her mother accompanies her and states that this confusion started several hours previously. She also states that her daughter has not passed urine since the previous day, at least 16 hours ago. On clinical examination, she appears unwell and confused, and she has a purpuric rash over her lower limbs. Her observation results are as follows:
      Temperature 39.5 °C
      Blood pressure 82/50 mmHg
      Heart rate 120 bpm
      Respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute
      Which of the following are high-risk criteria when diagnosing and risk-stratifying suspected sepsis?

      Your Answer: Blanching rash of the skin

      Correct Answer: Systolic blood pressure of 82 mmHg

      Explanation:

      Understanding the High-Risk Criteria for Suspected Sepsis

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt medical attention. To help healthcare professionals identify and grade the severity of suspected sepsis, certain high-risk criteria are used. Here are some important points to keep in mind:

      – A systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or less, or a systolic blood pressure of > 40 mmHg below normal, is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. A moderate- to high-risk criterion is a systolic blood pressure of 91–100 mmHg.
      – Not passing urine for the previous 18 hours is a high-risk criterion for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. For catheterised patients, passing < 0.5 ml/kg of urine per hour is also a high-risk criterion, as is a heart rate of > 130 bpm. Not passing urine for 12-18 hours is considered a ‘amber flag’ for sepsis.
      – Objective evidence of new altered mental state is a high-risk criteria for grading the severity of suspected sepsis. Moderate- to high-risk criteria would include: history from patient, friend or relative of new onset of altered behaviour or mental state and history of acute deterioration of functional ability.
      – Non-blanching rash of the skin, as well as a mottled or ashen appearance and cyanosis of the skin, lips or tongue, are high-risk criteria for severe sepsis.
      – A raised respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute or more is a high-risk criterion for sepsis, as is a new need for oxygen with 40% FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen) or more to maintain saturation of > 92% (or > 88% in known chronic obstructive pulmonary disease). A raised respiratory rate is 21–24 breaths per minute.

      By understanding these high-risk criteria, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and treat suspected sepsis, potentially saving lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You see a 92-year-old gentleman who has been admitted following a fall. He...

    Correct

    • You see a 92-year-old gentleman who has been admitted following a fall. He had been discovered lying on the floor of his home by a neighbour. He has a diagnosis of dementia and cannot recall how long ago he had fallen. His observations are normal and he is apyrexial. A pelvic X-ray, including both hips, shows no evidence of bony injury. A full blood count is normal.
      His biochemistry results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Creatinine 210 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urea 22.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Sodium 133 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      C-reactive protein (CRP) 8 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      What is the most appropriate investigation to request next?

      Your Answer: Creatine kinase

      Explanation:

      Investigating the Cause of Renal Failure: Importance of Creatine Kinase

      Renal failure can have various causes, including dehydration, sepsis, and rhabdomyolysis. In this case, the patient’s normal observations and inflammatory markers suggest rhabdomyolysis as the most serious potential cause. A raised creatine kinase would confirm the diagnosis. Elderly patients are particularly at risk of rhabdomyolysis following a prolonged period of immobility. A falls screen, including routine bloods, blood glucose, resting electrocardiogram, urinalysis, and lying-standing blood pressure, would be appropriate. While a catheter urine specimen may be helpful in diagnosing sepsis, it is less likely in this case. Liver function tests and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy are unlikely to provide useful information. A plain chest X-ray is also not necessary for investigating the cause of renal failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      15.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 81-year-old man, who is confused and aggressive, is admitted to the Medical...

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old man, who is confused and aggressive, is admitted to the Medical Admission Unit. He is unable to give any history due to confusion. His wife had taken him to the general practice surgery yesterday due to increased confusion, and trimethoprim was prescribed to treat a urinary tract infection. From a previous discharge letter, you ascertain that he has a background of Alzheimer’s dementia, atrial fibrillation (AF), ischaemic heart disease and osteoarthritis. His wife reports that he is normally forgetful but is much more confused than usual.
      On examination, his pulse is 124 bpm (irregularly irregular), blood pressure 134/74 mmHg, oxygen saturation (SaO2) 95% (on 28% oxygen), respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute and temperature 38.4 °C. He has crepitations and increased vocal resonance at the right lung base, with an area of bronchial breathing above this. Neurological examination of the upper and lower limbs is normal.
      Chest X-ray (CXR): focal consolidation, right base
      Electrocardiogram (ECG): AF with rapid ventricular response
      Urine dip: protein ++, otherwise NAD
      Blood results are pending.
      What is the most likely cause of this patient's acute deterioration?

      Your Answer: Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response

      Correct Answer: Community-acquired pneumonia

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Acute Deterioration in Elderly Patients: Community-Acquired Pneumonia as the Likely Cause

      Elderly patients with underlying dementia often present with non-specific symptoms, making it challenging to diagnose the cause of acute deterioration. In this case, the patient presented with acute confusion, and potential causes included community-acquired pneumonia, urinary tract infection, atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response, and progression of Alzheimer’s disease. However, clinically and radiologically, the patient showed evidence of community-acquired pneumonia, making it the most likely diagnosis.

      Urinary tract infection and Alzheimer’s disease were ruled out based on urinalysis findings and chest findings, respectively. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response could have been a cause of the patient’s confusion, but the clinical findings suggested pneumonia as the primary cause. Myocardial infarction was also a possibility, but the chest findings made it less likely.

      In conclusion, diagnosing acute deterioration in elderly patients with underlying dementia requires a thorough evaluation of potential causes. In this case, community-acquired pneumonia was the most likely diagnosis, highlighting the importance of considering multiple pathologies that can coexist in elderly patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      142.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 55-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department following a high-speed road traffic incident. He was ejected from the vehicle and sustained a severe head injury. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is E1 V1 M2. Other injuries include an unstable pelvic fracture (secured with a binder) and bruising to his anterior chest wall. His heart rate is 100 bpm with a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. Additional history from a family member includes:
      Allergy – penicillin
      Past medical history – hypertension, high cholesterol
      Drug history – bisoprolol.
      Which one of the following would be the fluid of choice for supporting his blood pressure?

      Your Answer: 1 l of 5% dextrose

      Correct Answer: Packed red blood cells (through a fluid warmer)

      Explanation:

      In cases of severe high-impact trauma, the patient may experience hypotension and tachycardia due to blood loss. The most common causes of mortality following trauma are neurological injury and blood loss. In such cases, the DCR approach is used, which involves permissive hypotension and blood product-based resuscitation. Crystalloids should be avoided as they can increase haemodilution and impair coagulation and tissue perfusion. Instead, packed red blood cells should be used along with fresh frozen plasma to avoid dilutional coagulopathy. Tranexamic acid may also be used to aid haemostasis. Fluids should be warmed prior to infusion to prevent hypothermia, which is associated with worse patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      41.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department with a swollen face and lips, accompanied by wheeze after being stung by a bee. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and has a blood pressure reading of 83/45 mmHg from a manual reading. What is the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Give 1 : 1000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline and repeat after 5 min if no improvement

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Anaphylaxis

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The following are the appropriate steps to take when dealing with anaphylaxis:

      Administer 1 : 1000 intramuscular (IM) adrenaline and repeat after 5 minutes if there is no improvement. Adrenaline should not be given intravenously unless the person administering it is skilled and experienced in its use. Routine use of IV adrenaline is not recommended.

      Administer IV fluids if anaphylactic shock occurs to maintain the circulatory volume. Salbutamol nebulizers may help manage associated wheezing.

      Do not give IV hydrocortisone as it takes several hours to work and anaphylaxis is rapidly life-threatening.

      Do not observe the person as anaphylaxis may progress quickly.

      Do not give 1 : 10 000 IV adrenaline as this concentration is only given during a cardiac arrest.

      In summary, the immediate administration of 1 : 1000 IM adrenaline is the most critical step in treating anaphylaxis. IV adrenaline and hydrocortisone should only be given by skilled and experienced individuals. IV fluids and salbutamol nebulizers may also be used to manage symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in...

    Correct

    • You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in front of you. There is nobody else around. You look, listen and feel, ensuring his airway is open. He is not breathing and is unresponsive. You phone for an ambulance.
      What is the next step that you would take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?

      Your Answer: Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute, giving two rescue breaths after every 30 compressions

      Explanation:

      How to Perform Chest Compressions and Rescue Breaths in Basic Life Support

      When faced with a non-responsive person who is not breathing, it is important to act quickly and perform basic life support. Begin by confirming that the person is not breathing and calling for an ambulance. Then, kneel by the person’s side and place the heel of one hand in the centre of their chest, with the other hand on top, interlocking fingers. Apply pressure to the sternum to a depth of 5-6 cm at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. After 30 compressions, open the airway and give two rescue breaths. Pinch the nose closed and blow steadily into the mouth, watching for the chest to rise. Repeat chest compressions and rescue breaths until help arrives.

      Note: The previous recommendation of two rescue breaths before chest compressions has been replaced with immediate chest compressions. Do not delay potentially life saving resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      20.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe bilateral pneumonia, which...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe bilateral pneumonia, which is found to be secondary to Legionella. She is hypoxic and drowsy and has an acute kidney injury. She is intubated and ventilated and transferred to the Intensive Care Unit. Despite optimal organ support, her respiratory system continues to deteriorate, requiring high fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2) (0.8) to maintain oxygen saturations of 88–92%. A chest X-ray shows diffuse bilateral infiltrates. A diagnosis of acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is made.
      Which of the following is a recognised component of the management strategy for ARDS?

      Your Answer: Lung-protective ventilation

      Explanation:

      Best Practices for Mechanical Ventilation in ARDS Patients

      Mechanical ventilation is a crucial intervention for patients with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). However, there are specific strategies that should be employed to ensure the best outcomes for these patients.

      Lung-protective ventilation with lower tidal volume (≤ 6 ml/kg predicted body weight) and a plateau pressure of ≤ 30 cmH2O is associated with a reduced risk of hospital mortality and barotrauma. In contrast, mechanical ventilation with high tidal volume is associated with an increased incidence of ventilator-induced lung injury.

      In 2000, a large randomized controlled trial demonstrated the benefits of ventilation with low tidal volumes in patients with ARDS. Therefore, it is essential to use lower tidal volumes to prevent further lung damage.

      While low positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is not a recognized management strategy, higher levels of PEEP can benefit patients with more severe ARDS. High PEEP aims to keep the lung open during the entire respiratory cycle, improving alveolar recruitment, reducing lung stress and strain, and preventing atelectrauma. However, a combination of individual PEEP titration following an alveolar recruitment maneuver could lead to better outcomes in more severe ARDS patients.

      Finally, prone positioning for at least 12 hours per day can be used in patients with moderate/severe ARDS and is associated with a reduction in mortality when combined with lung-protective ventilation. Therefore, patients should be maintained supine or prone, and prone positioning should be considered in appropriate cases.

      In conclusion, the best practices for mechanical ventilation in ARDS patients include lung-protective ventilation with lower tidal volume, higher levels of PEEP in severe cases, and prone positioning when appropriate. These strategies can help improve outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      21.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - When requesting an investigation, it is important to consider the potential benefits and...

    Incorrect

    • When requesting an investigation, it is important to consider the potential benefits and harms to the patient. Among radiographic investigations, which ones are associated with the highest radiation exposure?

      Your Answer: Chest X-ray

      Correct Answer: Abdominal X-ray

      Explanation:

      Radiation Doses from Medical X-Rays: A Comparison

      Medical X-rays are a common diagnostic tool used to detect and diagnose various medical conditions. However, they also expose patients to ionizing radiation, which can increase the risk of cancer and other health problems. Here is a comparison of the radiation doses from different types of X-rays:

      Abdominal X-ray: The radiation dose from an abdominal X-ray is equivalent to 5 months of natural background radiation.

      Chest X-ray: The radiation dose from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 10 days of natural background radiation.

      Abdomen-Pelvis CT: The radiation dose from an abdomen-pelvis CT is equivalent to 3 years of natural background radiation.

      DEXA Scan: The radiation dose from a DEXA scan is equivalent to only a few hours of natural background radiation.

      Extremity X-rays: The radiation dose from X-rays of extremities, such as knees and ankles, is similar to that of a DEXA scan, equivalent to only a few hours of natural background radiation.

      It is important to note that while the radiation doses from medical X-rays are relatively low, they can still add up over time and increase the risk of cancer. Patients should always discuss the risks and benefits of any medical imaging procedure with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support for the last two weeks after a significant traumatic brain injury. A decision has to be made about whether they are taken off life support and whether or not the patient has irreversible brain damage.
      In which of the following circumstances can brain death be diagnosed?

      Your Answer: A ventilator-supported patient

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Factors that Affect Brain Death Diagnosis

      Brain death diagnosis is a critical process that determines the cessation of brain function, which is irreversible and leads to the death of an individual. However, several factors can affect the accuracy of this diagnosis, and they must be excluded before confirming brain death.

      One of the primary conditions for brain death diagnosis is the patient’s inability to maintain their own heartbeat and ventilation, requiring the support of a ventilator. However, this condition alone is not sufficient, and two other factors must be present, including unconsciousness and clear evidence of irreversible brain damage.

      Hypothermia is one of the factors that can confound the examination of cortical and brainstem function, making it difficult to diagnose brain death accurately. Similarly, encephalopathy secondary to hepatic failure and severe hypophosphataemia can also impact cortical and brainstem function, leading to inaccurate brain death diagnosis.

      Finally, sedation by anaesthetic or neuroparalytic agents can depress the neurological system, making it appear as if the patient is brain dead when they are not. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all these factors and exclude them before confirming brain death diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 65-year-old patient presents with acute severe abdominal pain and the following blood...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient presents with acute severe abdominal pain and the following blood results:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 130 g/l
      Female: 115–155 g/l
      Male: 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 18 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 22 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Calcium 1.9 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
      Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) 800 IU/l 50–120 IU/l
      Albumin 30 g/l 35–50 g/l
      Amylase 1600 U/l < 200 U/l
      What is the most appropriate transfer location for ongoing care?

      Your Answer: Intensive care as an inpatient

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Management of Acute Pancreatitis: A Case Study

      A patient presents with acutely raised amylase, high white cell count (WCC), and high lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), indicating acute pancreatitis or organ rupture. The Glasgow system suggests severe pancreatitis with a poor outcome. In this case study, we explore the appropriate management options for this patient.

      Intensive care as an inpatient is the most appropriate response, as the patient is at high risk for developing multi-organ failure. The modified Glasgow score is used to assess the severity of acute pancreatitis, and this patient meets the criteria for severe pancreatitis. Aggressive support in an intensive care environment is necessary.

      Discharge into the community and general practitioner review in 1 week would be a dangerous response, as the patient needs inpatient treatment and acute assessment and treatment. The same applies to general surgical outpatient review in 1 week.

      Operating theatre would be inappropriate, as no operable problem has been identified. Supportive management is the most likely course of action. If organ rupture is suspected, stabilisation of shock and imaging would likely be done first.

      General medical ward as an inpatient is not the best option, as acute pancreatitis is a surgical problem and should be admitted under a surgical team. Additionally, the patient’s deranged blood tests, especially the low calcium and high WCC, indicate a high risk of developing multi-organ failure, requiring intensive monitoring.

      In conclusion, appropriate management of acute pancreatitis requires prompt and aggressive support in an intensive care environment, with close monitoring of the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      236.2
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 72-year-old hospitalised man with a urinary tract infection and an indwelling bladder...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old hospitalised man with a urinary tract infection and an indwelling bladder catheter (due to a bladder outlet obstruction) has developed episodic fever, chills and a fall in systemic blood pressure since yesterday. The episodes occur irregularly and last almost an hour, during which time he becomes delirious.
      Which of the following factors plays a key role in the pathogenesis of this condition?

      Your Answer: Lipopolysaccharide

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Role of Lipopolysaccharide in Septic Shock

      Septic shock is a serious medical condition that can occur as a result of a systemic inflammatory response to an infection. In this state, the body’s immune system is activated, leading to the release of cytokines such as tumour necrosis factor and interleukins. However, the main inciting agent responsible for this activation is Gram-negative bacterial lipopolysaccharide (LPS).

      LPS plays a key role in the induction of the monocyte-macrophage system, leading to the release of cytokines and subsequent shock. Nitric oxide, also released by LPS-activated macrophages, contributes to the hypotension associated with sepsis. Additionally, tissue hypoxia can lead to increased production of lactic acid, although lactic acidosis is not the main player in shock.

      Understanding the role of LPS in septic shock is crucial for effective treatment and management of this condition. By targeting the underlying cause of the immune system activation, healthcare professionals can work to prevent the development of septic shock and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      9.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with fever and a non-healing infected ulcer in his leg. He has a history of obesity and type 2 diabetes. He reports that his leg was extremely painful but now is no longer painful. On clinical examination, his temperature is 38.6 °C, heart rate 110 bpm and blood pressure 104/69 mmHg. Peripheral pulses are palpable on examining his legs. There is tense oedema, dusky blue/purple plaques and haemorrhagic bullae on his right leg, with an underlying venous ulcer. Palpation reveals crepitus. After taking blood cultures, treatment is commenced with intravenous (IV) antibiotics and fluids.
      What is the next and most important step in management?

      Your Answer: Surgical debridement in theatre

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Necrotising Fasciitis

      Necrotising fasciitis (NF) is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate surgical intervention. Antimicrobial therapy and support alone have shown to have a mortality rate of almost 100%. The primary goal of surgical intervention is to remove all necrotic tissue until healthy, viable tissue is reached. This can be done through surgical debridement in theatre or bedside wound debridement by a plastic surgeon in an aseptic environment.

      Hyperbaric oxygen (HBO) treatment is believed to increase the bactericidal effects of neutrophils and can be useful in treating synergistic infections. However, access to HBO units with appropriate staffing and chambers large enough for intensive care patients is limited.

      IV immunoglobulin (IVIG) has shown potential benefits in group A streptococcal (GAS) infections, but further studies are needed to determine its exact benefits in NF.

      While X-ray, MRI, and CT scans can aid in the diagnosis of NF, surgical treatment should never be delayed for these tests. Immediate surgical intervention is crucial in treating this life-threatening condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      34.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old woman, whose children called for an ambulance due to concerns about...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman, whose children called for an ambulance due to concerns about her breathing, has an arterial blood gas (ABG) test done. She is a frequent visitor to the Accident and Emergency department and has been experiencing a cough and producing green sputum for the past 6 days. She is currently receiving long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) at home. While on controlled oxygen therapy through a Venturi system, her ABG results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      pH 7.232 7.35–7.45
      CO2 8.9 kPa 3.5–4.5 kPa
      O2 9.4 kPa 8.0–10.0 kPa
      HCO3– 33 mmol/l 22.0–28.0 mmol/l
      SaO2 89%
      Lactate 2.1 0.1–2.2
      Which of the following statements best describes this ABG?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation

      Explanation:

      Interpreting ABGs: Examples of Acid-Base Imbalances

      Acid-base imbalances can be identified through arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis. Here are some examples of ABGs and their corresponding acid-base imbalances:

      Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation
      This ABG indicates a patient with long-term chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has chronic carbon dioxide (CO2) retention and partial metabolic compensation (elevated bicarbonate (HCO3)). However, during an infective exacerbation of COPD, the patient’s hypoxia and hypercapnia worsened, resulting in a more severe acidaemia. The metabolic compensation is therefore only partial.

      Respiratory acidosis with complete metabolic compensation
      This ABG shows respiratory acidosis with a low pH due to CO2 retention. Despite some metabolic compensation, this is an acute-on-chronic change that has led to a worsening of the acidaemia.

      Metabolic acidosis with partial respiratory compensation
      In this ABG, a patient with chronic COPD who has presented with an infective exacerbation shows respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation.

      Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation
      This ABG indicates acidaemia due to a chronic respiratory disease.

      Respiratory acidosis without compensation
      Although this ABG shows respiratory acidosis, there is an element of metabolic compensation, as evidenced by the rise in HCO3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old man, with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation being treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man, with a history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation being treated with warfarin, experiences a catastrophic intracranial hemorrhage. Despite receiving the highest level of organ support in the ICU, he fails to show any signs of improvement. Before deciding to withdraw organ support, he is evaluated for brain death.
      What healthcare professionals are necessary to diagnose brain death?

      Your Answer: Three doctors, all fully registered for at least two years, all competent in the assessment, conduct and interpretation of brainstem examinations

      Correct Answer: Two doctors, one of whom must be a consultant, both fully registered for at least five years and both competent in the assessment, conduct and interpretation of brainstem examinations

      Explanation:

      Requirements for Diagnosis of Death by Neurological Criteria

      To diagnose death by neurological criteria, at least two medical practitioners must be involved. They should be fully registered for at least five years and competent in the assessment, conduct, and interpretation of brainstem examinations. At least one of the doctors must be a consultant, but not both.

      It is important to note that a nurse cannot be one of the medical practitioners involved in the diagnosis. Additionally, the number of doctors required for the diagnosis does not need to be three, as two competent doctors are sufficient.

      Overall, the diagnosis of death by neurological criteria should be taken seriously and conducted by qualified medical professionals to ensure accuracy and ethical considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with vomiting. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with vomiting. She has vague abdominal pain, and a particularly keen junior surgeon takes her to theatre for an appendectomy; the appendix is removed and is normal. In recovery, she becomes hypotensive and tachycardic and does not respond as expected to fluid replacement. On examination, she is very well tanned and slim; her blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, with a pulse rate of 100 bpm.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 127 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Urea 9.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 165 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 98 g/l (normochromic normocytic) 115–155 g/l
      Free T4 6.2 pmol/l (low) 11–22 pmol/l
      Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Her deranged renal function is likely to be the result of sepsis

      Correct Answer: iv hydrocortisone is the initial treatment of choice

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for patients experiencing an adrenal crisis is intravenous hydrocortisone. This is because the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, which can lead to severe adrenal insufficiency. The most common causes of an adrenal crisis include undiagnosed adrenal insufficiency with associated major stress, abrupt cessation of glucocorticoid therapy, and bilateral infarction of the adrenal glands. Symptoms of an adrenal crisis can include hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, renal impairment, and normochromic normocytic anemia, as well as non-specific symptoms such as vomiting, abdominal pain, weakness, fever, and lethargy. The patient’s tan may be due to increased melanocyte activity caused by raised levels of adrenocorticotrophic hormone. Intravenous T3 replacement may be effective in treating the patient’s low free T4 levels, which are likely a result of adrenal insufficiency. Fluid replacement alone will not be sufficient to treat the patient’s shock, which is the main manifestation of an adrenal crisis. Normochromic normocytic anemia can be treated with corticosteroid replacement, and the patient’s deranged renal function is likely a result of sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      45.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home on the floor by her daughter. Her daughter tried to rouse her but had no response. She has a laceration to her head and her daughter believes she may have had a fall. You notice she has a sudden decrease in consciousness in the department. You are unable to get the patient to make any vocalisation. When you apply supraorbital pressure, she briefly opens her eyes and withdraws from the pain.
      Which one of the following is the best immediate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Insert Guedel airway

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with Low Glasgow Coma Scale Score

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in patients. A patient with a GCS score below 8 requires urgent referral to critical care or the anaesthetist on-call for appropriate management. In this case, the patient has a GCS score of 7 (E2, V1, M4) and needs immediate attention.

      Airway management is the top priority in patients with a low GCS score. The patient may need invasive ventilation if they lose the capacity to maintain their own airway. Once the airway is secured, a referral to the neurosurgical registrar may be necessary, and investigations such as a CT brain scan should be carried out to determine the cause of the low GCS score.

      A neurological observation chart is also needed to detect any deteriorating central nervous system function. A medication review can be done once the patient is stabilised and an intracranial bleed has been ruled out. This will help identify medications that could cause a fall and stop unnecessary medication.

      In summary, a patient with a low GCS score requires urgent attention to secure their airway, determine the cause of the low score, and monitor for any neurological deterioration. A medication review can be done once the patient is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - You have just received a 70-year-old woman into the resus room who had...

    Incorrect

    • You have just received a 70-year-old woman into the resus room who had a witnessed collapse after complaining of chest pain. There was no pulse and CPR was performed at the scene. CPR is ongoing upon patient arrival in the Emergency Department. Pulse check demonstrates no palpable central pulse and there is no respiratory effort. A 3-lead ECG demonstrates no coordinated electrical activity or recognisable complexes, looking very much like a wandering flat line.
      What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate direct current (DC) shock at 300 J, then continue CPR

      Correct Answer: 1 mg of adrenaline 1 : 10 000 intravenously (iv), and continue CPR

      Explanation:

      Correct Management of Cardiac Arrest: Understanding the Appropriate Interventions

      When faced with a patient in cardiac arrest, it is crucial to understand the appropriate interventions for the specific situation. In the case of a patient in asystole, the non-shockable side of the Advanced Life Support algorithm should be followed, with CPR 30 : 2 and 1 mg of adrenaline 10 ml of 1 : 10 000 iv every other cycle of CPR. It is important to note that a shock is not indicated for asystole.

      Adrenaline 1 : 1000 im should not be given in cardiac arrest situations, as it is used for anaphylaxis. External pacing is unlikely to be successful in the absence of P-wave asystole. Atropine is no longer recommended for use in Advanced Life Support.

      By understanding the appropriate interventions for different cardiac arrest situations, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He was wearing a helmet at the time of the crash; the helmet cracked on impact. At presentation, he is haemodynamically stable and examination is unremarkable, aside from superficial abrasions on the arms and legs. Specifically, he is neurologically intact. He is nevertheless offered admission for head injury charting and observation. Two hours after admission, nurses find him unresponsive, with a unilateral fixed, dilated pupil. An emergency computed tomography (CT) scan is performed.
      What is the likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Extradural haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Extradural Haemorrhage: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Extradural haemorrhage is a type of head injury that can lead to neurological compromise and coma if left untreated. It is typically caused by trauma to the middle meningeal artery, meningeal veins, or a dural venous sinus. The condition is most prevalent in young men involved in road traffic accidents and is characterized by a lucid interval followed by a decrease in consciousness.

      CT scans typically show a high-density, lens-shaped collection of peripheral blood in the extradural space between the inner table of the skull bones and the dural surface. As the blood collects, patients may experience severe headache, vomiting, confusion, fits, hemiparesis, and ipsilateral pupil dilation.

      Treatment for extradural haemorrhage involves urgent decompression by creating a borehole above the site of the clot. Prognosis is poor if the patient is comatose or decerebrate or has a fixed pupil, but otherwise, it is excellent.

      It is important to differentiate extradural haemorrhage from other types of head injuries, such as subdural haemorrhage, subarachnoid haemorrhage, and Intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Subdural haemorrhage is not limited by cranial sutures, while subarachnoid haemorrhage is characterized by blood lining the sulci of the brain. Intraparenchymal haemorrhage, on the other hand, refers to blood within the brain parenchyma.

      In conclusion, extradural haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      42.2
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at home. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at home. He is brought to Accident and Emergency where he is found to have superficial abrasions to the right side of his chest and upper abdomen, together with an obvious deformity of the right humerus. Radiograph of the right arm shows a displaced midshaft humerus fracture. Neurovascular examination reveals radial nerve palsy, together with absent peripheral pulses and a cool, clammy distal arm. He was given oral paracetamol at home, while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. Pain score remains 9/10. Parameters are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Temperature 36.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
      Pulse 110 bpm 60–100 bpm
      Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
      Oxygen saturations 98% on room air 94–98%
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate form of pain relief?

      Your Answer: Oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

      Correct Answer: IV morphine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Analgesic for Acute Pain: A Case-by-Case Basis

      Analgesia is typically administered in a stepwise manner, but emergency medicine requires a more individualized approach. In cases of acute pain from long bone fractures, non-opioid analgesia may not be sufficient. The two most viable options are oral and IV morphine, with IV morphine being preferred due to its rapid onset and safe side-effect profile. However, caution must be exercised due to the risk of respiratory depression and dependency. Oral NSAIDs and morphine are contraindicated as the patient must be kept nil by mouth before urgent surgical intervention. Oxycodone prolonged release is too weak for severe pain. Choosing the right analgesic for acute pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      48.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after consuming a peanut butter sandwich. During the examination, she displays symptoms of anaphylaxis.
      What is the initial sign that is likely to appear first in a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer: Runny nose, skin rash, swelling of the lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs of Anaphylaxis: From Early Symptoms to Late Indicators of Shock

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. The first signs of anaphylaxis may look like normal symptoms of an allergy, such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips. However, if left untreated, more serious signs can appear within 30 minutes, indicating compromise of circulation and end-organs.

      One of the later and more severe indicators of respiratory compromise in patients with anaphylaxis is stridor. This is a prominent wheezing sound caused by the obstruction of the airway due to swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat. If the swelling continues, complete blockage can occur, resulting in asphyxiation.

      Hypotension is another late sign of anaphylaxis when the patient goes into shock. During anaphylaxis, the body reacts and releases chemicals such as histamine, causing blood vessels to vasodilate and leading to a drop in blood pressure. This can result in episodes of syncope, or fainting, as well as other symptoms of end-organ dysfunction such as hypotonia and incontinence.

      A weak pulse is also a late sign of anaphylaxis, indicating compromised circulation. However, it is not one of the first signs to present, as the body goes through a series of reactions before reaching this stage.

      In summary, understanding the signs of anaphylaxis is crucial for prompt treatment and prevention of life-threatening complications. Early symptoms such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips should not be ignored, as they can progress to more severe indicators of respiratory and circulatory compromise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Incorrect

    • A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with a 4-day history of fever and lethargy. He has a background history of chronic urinary catheterisation for benign prostatic hyperplasia. On clinical examination, he is noted to be acutely confused. His temperature is 38.5 °C, and he has a heart rate of 97 bpm, blood pressure of 133/70 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count 13 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Blood glucose 6 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
      Urinalysis
      2+ blood
      2+ leukocytes
      1+ nitrites
      NAD
      What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Septic shock

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sepsis, SIRS, Urinary Tract Infection, and Septic Shock

      Sepsis is a serious medical condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. One way to diagnose sepsis is by using the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria, which include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever or hypo/hyperthermia, and leukocytosis, leukopenia, or bandemia. If a patient meets two or more of these criteria, with or without evidence of infection, they may be diagnosed with SIRS.

      A urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common type of infection that can occur in patients with a long-term catheter. However, if a patient with a UTI also meets the SIRS criteria and has a source of infection, they should be treated as sepsis.

      Septic shock is a severe complication of sepsis that occurs when blood pressure drops to dangerously low levels. In this case, there is no evidence of septic shock as the patient’s blood pressure is normal.

      In summary, this patient meets the SIRS criteria for sepsis and has a source of infection, making it a case of high-risk sepsis. It is important to understand the differences between sepsis, SIRS, UTI, and septic shock to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease and depression...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of hypertension, coronary artery disease and depression underwent bypass surgery last night. His depression has responded well to selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and there is no past history of psychosis. His blood pressure is also well controlled with medications. The following morning, he develops confusion, agitation and irritability, tries to remove his intravenous (iv) lines and wants to run away from hospital. His level of consciousness fluctuates, and at times he forgets who he is. He is given a neuroleptic drug and appears much improved.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Delirium

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Delirium from Other Psychiatric Disorders in Postoperative Patients

      Delirium is a common complication that can occur after surgery and general anesthesia. It is characterized by acute changes in mental status, including waxing and waning levels of consciousness, agitation, irritability, and psychosis. While delirium is self-limited and can be managed with low-dose neuroleptics, it is important to differentiate it from other psychiatric disorders that may present with similar symptoms.

      Schizophrenia, for example, typically presents with delusions, hallucinations, and bizarre behavior, and tends to start at a younger age than the acute symptoms seen in postoperative patients. It is also characterized by a progressive deterioration in functioning. Adjustment disorder, on the other hand, can result from any psychosocial or biological stressor, and may present with anxiety, irritability, and depressive mood. However, fluctuating levels of consciousness are not typically seen in this disorder.

      Dementia can also present with irritability, confusion, and agitation, but it follows an insidious course and does not have a fluctuating course like delirium. Finally, severe depression can present with psychotic features, suicidal ideation, and irritability, but the patient’s history of good response to SSRIs and lack of prior history of psychosis can help differentiate it from delirium.

      In summary, while delirium is a common complication of surgery and anesthesia, it is important to consider other psychiatric disorders that may present with similar symptoms in order to provide appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      40
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 83-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being discovered in...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after being discovered in an acute state of confusion. He was lethargic and combative, attempting to strike his caregiver when she visited his home earlier that day. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and continues to smoke 20 cigarettes per day, and is currently undergoing testing for prostatism. Upon examination, he has a fever of 38.2 °C and exhibits coarse crackles and wheezing in both lungs upon auscultation.

      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 231 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 128 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 120 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urine Blood +

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lower respiratory tract infection

      Explanation:

      Possible Infections and Conditions in an Elderly Man: Symptoms and Management

      An elderly man is showing signs of confusion and has a fever, which could indicate an infection. Upon chest examination, crackles are heard, suggesting a lower respiratory tract infection. A high white blood cell count also supports an immune response to an infection. A chest X-ray may confirm the diagnosis. Antibiotic therapy is the main treatment, and fluid restriction may be necessary if the patient has low sodium levels.

      If an elderly man’s dementia worsens, a fever and high white blood cell count may suggest an infection as the cause. Diabetes insipidus, characterized by excessive thirst and urination, typically leads to high sodium levels due to dehydration. A urinary tract infection may cause confusion, but it often presents with urinary symptoms. Viral encephalitis may cause confusion and fever, but the presence of crackles and wheezing suggests a respiratory infection.

      In summary, an elderly man with confusion and fever may have a lower respiratory tract infection, which requires antibiotic therapy and fluid management. Other conditions, such as worsening dementia, diabetes insipidus, urinary tract infection, or viral encephalitis, may have similar symptoms but different diagnostic features and treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      19.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old patient is brought in by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old patient is brought in by ambulance to Accident and Emergency. He is unresponsive, and therefore obtaining a medical history is not possible. He is breathing on his own, but his respiratory rate (RR) is low at 10 breaths per minute and his oxygen saturation is at 90% on room air. His arterial blood gas (ABG) reveals respiratory acidosis, and his pupils are constricted.
      What would be the most suitable medication for initial management in this case?

      Your Answer: Naloxone

      Explanation:

      Antidote Medications: Uses and Dosages

      Naloxone:
      Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. It works by blocking the opioid receptors in the brain, which can cause respiratory depression and reduced consciousness. It is administered in incremental doses every 3-5 minutes until the desired effect is achieved. However, full reversal may cause withdrawal symptoms and agitation.

      N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NAC):
      NAC is an antidote medication used to treat paracetamol overdose. Paracetamol overdose can cause liver damage and acute liver failure. NAC is administered if the serum paracetamol levels fall to the treatment level on the nomogram or if the overdose is staggered.

      Flumazenil:
      Flumazenil is a specific reversal agent for the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. It works by competing with benzodiazepines for the same receptors in the brain. However, it is not effective in treating pupillary constriction caused by benzodiazepine toxicity.

      Adrenaline:
      Adrenaline is used in the treatment of cardiac arrest and anaphylaxis. It has no role in the treatment of opiate toxicity. The dosage of adrenaline varies depending on the indication, with a stronger concentration required for anaphylaxis compared to cardiac arrest.

      Atropine:
      Atropine is a medication used to treat symptomatic bradycardia, where the patient’s slow heart rate is causing hemodynamic compromise. However, it can cause agitation in the hours following administration.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      23.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 71-year-old man attends the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 71-year-old man attends the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of a warm, red, tender right lower leg. He thinks it is the result of banging his leg against a wooden stool at home. He has a past medical history of diabetes. He is unable to recall his drug history and is unsure of his allergies, although he recalls having ‘a serious reaction’ to an antibiotic as a child.
      You diagnose cellulitis and prescribe an initial dose of flucloxacillin, which is shortly administered. Several minutes later, the nurse asks for an urgent review of the patient since the patient has become very anxious and has developed a hoarse voice. You attend the patient and note swelling of the tongue and lips. As you take the patient’s wrist to feel the rapid pulse, you also note cool fingers. A wheeze is audible on auscultation of the chest and patchy erythema is visible. You ask the nurse for observations and she informs you the respiratory rate is 29 and systolic blood pressure 90 mmHg. You treat the patient for an anaphylactic reaction, administering high-flow oxygen, intravenous (iv) fluid, adrenaline, hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine.
      What is the dose of adrenaline you would use?

      Your Answer: 1 ml of 1 in 10 000 im

      Correct Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 in 1000 intramuscular (im)

      Explanation:

      Anaphylaxis and the ABCDE Approach

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate medical attention. It is characterized by respiratory and circulatory compromise, skin and mucosal changes, and can be triggered by various agents such as foods and drugs. In the case of anaphylaxis, the ABCDE approach should be used to assess the patient. Adrenaline is the most important drug in the treatment of anaphylaxis and should be administered at a dose of 0.5 mg (0.5 ml of 1 in 1000) intramuscularly. The response to adrenaline should be monitored, and further boluses may be required depending on the patient’s response. Other medications that should be given include chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone, as well as intravenous fluids. It is crucial to recognize and treat anaphylaxis promptly to prevent severe complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. Her...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. Her lips were swollen; she had stridor and was short of breath, and she was sweaty and clammy. She has a known allergy to shellfish and had eaten some seafood at a family gathering.
      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: 300 mcg of 1 : 1000 adrenaline im

      Explanation:

      Correct Doses and Administration of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis

      Adrenaline is a crucial medication for treating anaphylaxis, and it is always administered intramuscularly (im) at a concentration of 1:1000. However, it is essential to know the correct doses and volumes for different age groups, as vials can vary.

      For adults and children over 12 years old, the appropriate dose is 500 mcg or 0.5 ml. For children aged 6-12 years, the correct dose is 300 mcg or 0.3 ml. For children under 6 years old, the recommended dose is 150 mcg or 0.15 ml.

      It is crucial to administer the correct dose for the patient’s age and weight to avoid adverse effects. Additionally, it is essential to administer adrenaline im and not intravenously (iv) to prevent complications. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective treatment of anaphylaxis with adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 42-year-old woman arrives at Accident and Emergency with severe cellulitis in her...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman arrives at Accident and Emergency with severe cellulitis in her left lower limb. She has no known allergies, is in good health, and is not currently experiencing fever or rapid heart rate. The medical team accepts her and starts her on IV antibiotics. However, she soon becomes hypoxic, experiencing difficulty breathing, with loud upper airway sounds and a widespread rash.
      What is the preferred treatment option in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg, 1 in 1000 intramuscularly (IM)

      Explanation:

      Correct Dosages of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis and Cardiac Arrest

      In cases of anaphylaxis, the recommended treatment is 1 : 1000 adrenaline 0.5 ml (0.5 mg) administered intramuscularly (IM). This dose should be given even if the patient has no known drug allergies but exhibits signs of anaphylaxis such as stridor and a rash.

      It is important to note that the correct dose of IM adrenaline for anaphylaxis is 0.5 mg, 1 in 1000. Administering a higher dose, such as 1 mg, 1 in 1000, can be dangerous and potentially harmful to the patient.

      On the other hand, during a cardiac arrest, the recommended dose of adrenaline is 1 mg, 1 in 10 000, administered intravenously (IV). This is not the recommended dose for anaphylaxis, and administering it through the wrong route can also be harmful to the patient.

      In summary, it is crucial to follow the correct dosages and routes of administration for adrenaline in different medical situations to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      17.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past 8 hours. He is becoming dehydrated and confused. Shortly after admission, he develops increasing shortness of breath. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 128/75 mmHg, a pulse of 92 bpm, and bilateral crackles on chest auscultation. The jugular venous pressure is not elevated. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 118 g/l, a WCC of 14.8 × 109/l, a platelet count of 162 × 109/l, a sodium level of 140 mmol/l, a potassium level of 4.8 mmol/l, a creatinine level of 195 μmol/l, and an amylase level of 1330 U/l. Arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.31, a pO2 of 8.2 kPa, and a pCO2 of 5.5 kPa. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute (adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

      Explanation:

      Mucopolysacchirodosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - An 82-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department, having suffered from a...

    Incorrect

    • An 82-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department, having suffered from a fall in his home. He has bruising to his face and legs and a ‘dinner fork’ deformity of his left wrist. His pulse is 70 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 110/90 mmHg, temperature 37.2 °C and oxygen saturations 98%. His plan includes an occupational therapy and risk assessment for falls, with a view to modification of his home and lifestyle to prevent future recurrence.
      Approximately what percentage of people aged over 80 suffer from falls?

      Your Answer: 65%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Falls in Older Adults: Prevalence and Risk Factors

      Falls are a common occurrence in older adults, with approximately 30% of those over 65 and 50% of those over 80 experiencing a fall each year. These falls can lead to serious consequences, such as neck of femur fractures, loss of confidence, and increased anxiety.

      There are several risk factors for falls, including muscle weakness, gait abnormalities, use of a walking aid, visual impairment, postural hypotension, cluttered environment, arthritis, impaired activities of daily living, depression, cognitive impairment, and certain medications.

      To prevent falls, interventions such as balance and exercise training, medication rationalization, correction of visual impairments, and home assessments can be implemented. Additionally, underlying medical conditions should be treated, and osteoporosis prophylaxis should be considered for those with recurrent falls.

      Overall, falls in older adults are a significant concern, but with proper prevention and management strategies, their impact can be minimized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman is admitted unresponsive to the Emergency Department. She is not...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman is admitted unresponsive to the Emergency Department. She is not breathing and has no pulse. The ambulance crew had initiated cardiopulmonary resuscitation before arrival. She is known to have hypertension and takes ramipril.
      She had routine bloods at the General Practice surgery three days ago:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 134 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 3.5 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 134 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Urea 9.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 83 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) > 60
      The Ambulance Crew hand you an electrocardiogram (ECG) strip which shows ventricular fibrillation (VF).
      What is the most likely cause of her cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Cardiac Arrest: Hyperkalaemia as the Most Likely Cause

      The patient’s rhythm strip shows ventricular fibrillation (VF), which suggests hyperkalaemia as the most likely cause of cardiac arrest. The blood results from three days ago and the patient’s medication (ramipril) support this diagnosis. Ramipril can increase potassium levels, and the patient’s K+ level was already high. Therefore, it is recommended to suspend ramipril until the K+ level comes down.

      Other potential causes of cardiac arrest were considered and ruled out. There is no evidence of hypernatraemia, hypovolaemia, or hypoxia in the patient’s history or blood results. While pulmonary thrombus cannot be excluded, it is unlikely to result in VF arrest and usually presents as pulseless electrical activity (PEA).

      In summary, hyperkalaemia is the most likely cause of the patient’s cardiac arrest, and appropriate measures should be taken to manage potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      30
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (19/30) 63%
Passmed