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Question 1
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You are seeing a 58-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with early invasive breast cancer which is oestrogen-receptor-positive. Her oncologist is treating her with anastrozole 1 mg daily. Which one of the following is the most common side effect of anastrozole?
Your Answer: Bone fractures
Explanation:Anastrozole Side Effects According to BNF
The British National Formulary (BNF) is often used as a reference for setting questions in the AKT exam. One of the topics that may be tested is the side effects of medications. The BNF categorizes side effects based on their frequency, ranging from very common to very rare. Anastrozole is a medication used in the adjuvant treatment of oestrogen-receptor-positive early invasive breast cancer in postmenopausal women. However, it is contraindicated for premenopausal treatment. According to the BNF, bone fractures are common or very common side effects of Anastrozole. On the other hand, vasculitis and angioedema are very rare side effects. Notably, interstitial nephritis and interstitial pneumonitis are not listed as side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 2
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of upper abdominal bloating and discomfort after meals that has been going on for three months. She reports feeling nauseated at times but denies vomiting. She has lost more than 1 stone in weight. She has not experienced any changes in bowel habits and has not passed any blood in her stools. She has no significant medical history.
During the physical examination, there is no evidence of jaundice or anemia, but she has diffuse upper abdominal tenderness, and her gallbladder is palpable on inspiration. A previous abdominal ultrasound scan conducted ten years ago revealed the presence of an incidental gallstone, but she did not undergo surgery as she was asymptomatic at the time. There is a strong family history of gallstones.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Routine referral for consideration of cholecystectomy
Explanation:Understanding Gallbladder Cancer and its Risk Factors
Gallbladder cancer is a rare form of cancer that often goes undiagnosed until it has reached an advanced stage. It is more common in women, especially those with a history of gallstones, and those who have a family history of the disease. Other risk factors include smoking, obesity, and diabetes. Native Americans, black, and Hispanic populations are also at a higher risk of developing Gallbladder cancer.
Symptoms of Gallbladder cancer can be vague and mimic benign disease, making it difficult to diagnose. However, unintentional weight loss is a red flag and should be taken seriously. Most Gallbladder tumors are adenocarcinomas and can spread to the liver and lungs. By the time symptoms appear, the cancer has often metastasized, and more than half of patients present with jaundice.
It is important to have a high index of suspicion for Gallbladder cancer, especially in patients with risk factors. Even if the abdominal examination is normal, significant weight loss should prompt urgent referral for investigation under the two week wait system. By understanding the risk factors and symptoms of Gallbladder cancer, healthcare professionals can help ensure early detection and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has developed a polymorphic eruption over the dorsa of both hands and feet. The lesions started 2 days ago and she now has some lesions on the arms and legs. Individual lesions are well-demarcated red macules or small urticarial plaques. Some lesions have a small blister or crusting in the centre, which seems darker than the periphery.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Bullous pemphigus
Correct Answer: Erythema multiforme
Explanation:Understanding Erythema Multiforme: Symptoms and Characteristics
Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that typically begins with lesions on the hands and feet before spreading to other areas of the body. The upper limbs are more commonly affected than the lower limbs, and the palms and soles may also be involved. The initial lesions are red or pink macules that become raised papules and gradually enlarge to form plaques up to 2-3 cm in diameter. The center of a lesion darkens in color and may develop blistering or crusting. The typical target lesion of erythema multiforme has a sharp margin, regular round shape, and three concentric color zones. Atypical targets may show just two zones and/or an indistinct border. The rash is polymorphous, meaning it can take many forms, and lesions may be at various stages of development. The rash usually fades over 2-4 weeks, but recurrences are common. In more severe cases, there may be blistering of mucous membranes, which can be life-threatening. Some consider erythema multiforme to be part of a spectrum of disease that includes Stevens-Johnson syndrome and toxic epidermal necrolysis, while others argue that it should be classified separately as it is associated with infections rather than certain drugs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner with a concern about excessive hair growth on her arms. She has a slim build and olive skin with dark brown hair. The patient shaves the hair to remove it. Her menstrual cycles are regular, occurring every 33 days, and she reports no heavy bleeding or pain. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Genetic phenotype
Explanation:Excessive hair growth on the arms may be noticeable in this woman due to her genetic makeup, as she has olive skin and dark hair. However, hirsutism, which is characterized by excessive hair growth on the face and body, is often associated with polycystic ovarian syndrome. Although her menstrual cycle is regular at 33 days, it is important to note that a normal cycle can range from 24 to 35 days. A cycle variation of 8 days or more is considered moderately irregular, while a variation of 21 days or more is considered very irregular. Additionally, this patient has light periods and a slim physique.
Understanding Hirsutism and Hypertrichosis
Hirsutism is a term used to describe excessive hair growth in women that is dependent on androgens, while hypertrichosis refers to hair growth that is not androgen-dependent. Polycystic ovarian syndrome is the most common cause of hirsutism, but other factors such as Cushing’s syndrome, obesity, and certain medications can also contribute to this condition. To assess hirsutism, the Ferriman-Gallwey scoring system is often used, which assigns scores to nine different body areas. Management of hirsutism may involve weight loss, cosmetic techniques, or the use of oral contraceptive pills or topical medications.
Hypertrichosis, on the other hand, can be caused by a variety of factors such as certain medications, congenital conditions, and even anorexia nervosa. It is important to identify the underlying cause of excessive hair growth in order to determine the most appropriate treatment approach. By understanding the differences between hirsutism and hypertrichosis, individuals can better manage these conditions and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You see a 28-year-old woman with painful lesions on her labia. On examination she has genital herpes.
Select the single correct statement about this condition.Your Answer: Healing in primary herpes takes 5–7 days
Correct Answer: Regular antiviral medication can reduce transmission to sexual partners
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms and Treatment of Herpes
Herpes is a viral infection that can cause lesions on the cervix, vulva, vagina, and prepuce. The first attack is usually the most severe, and healing can take up to 2-4 weeks in primary herpes and 10 days in recurrent attacks. Immunocompromised patients tend to experience longer and more severe attacks. However, a trial in the New England Journal of Medicine in 2004 found that daily use of valaciclovir can reduce transmission by 75% between discordant couples. It is important to understand the symptoms and treatment of herpes to manage the infection effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with some yellowish-brown tender oval patches that have developed slowly on her shins over the past few months. The patches are shiny, pale and atrophic with telangiectasia.
What is the single most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Erythema nodosum
Correct Answer: Necrobiosis lipoidica diabeticorum
Explanation:Common Skin Conditions and Their Characteristics
Necrobiosis Lipoidica Diabeticorum: A rare skin condition that is more prevalent in diabetic patients. It is characterized by the development of yellowish-brown patches that slowly grow over several months. The center of the patch becomes pale and thin with telangiectasia. Lesions can occur on various parts of the body, but the most common site is pretibial. Trauma can cause ulceration, and no treatment has proven to be completely effective.
Lichen Sclerosus: Usually found in the anogenital area of women and on the prepuce, glans, and coronal sulcus in men. Patches are white and thickened or crinkled like cigarette paper.
Erythema Nodosum: Presents as red, tender nodules on the anterior aspect of the lower leg. The nodules last for 3-6 weeks.
Granuloma Annulare: Typically found on the dorsa of the hands or feet, but can be more widespread. The disseminated form is characterized by skin-colored, pink, or mauve non-scaly papules arranged in rings 10 cm or more in diameter.
Venous Eczema: Itchy erythematous scaly or crusted patches on the lower legs. The patches may be confluent and circumferential, and there may be pigmentary changes due to haemosiderin deposition.
Characteristics of Common Skin Conditions
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man works for a removal firm. While manoeuvring a package through a difficult space on the previous day, he felt pain in his lower back. Now he has persistent pain that is worse on movement but no other symptoms. He walks awkwardly into the room. He is reasonably comfortable in bed if he takes ibuprofen.
What is the most appropriate management option?Your Answer: Urgent orthopaedic referral
Correct Answer: Advise to keep active
Explanation:Active Rehabilitation for Low Back Pain: Advice and Referral Guidelines
Low back pain, also known as mechanical low back pain, is a common condition that cannot be attributed to any specific pathology. In the past, rest was recommended for back pain, but current guidelines recommend active rehabilitation. This involves keeping the patient active and providing pain relief to facilitate this. Most people experience a reduction in pain within a month and can return to work in that time. However, there is a high risk of recurrence.
Bed rest should not be recommended except in exceptional cases and for no longer than 48 hours. Physiotherapy should be considered if pain or disability persists for more than two weeks or if there is a risk of a poor outcome. Referral to the Accident & Emergency Department is only appropriate if there are red flag symptoms and signs suggesting cauda equina syndrome or a spinal fracture. Urgent orthopaedic referral is only necessary if there are red flag symptoms and signs suggesting cauda equina syndrome, spinal fracture, cancer, or infection. Psychological factors are also important in the transition from acute to chronic low back pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 8
Correct
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You are seeing a 63-year-old gentleman with a diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
His most recent spirometry done six weeks ago shows an FEV1 of 62% predicted and doesn't appear to vary very much over time. He is currently using an inhaled short-acting beta agonist as required. He tells you that despite using his inhaler up to four times a day he feels persistently breathless.
He stopped smoking five years ago. He denies any acute infective symptoms or haemoptysis. On reviewing the history and the clinical record he has not been treated for an acute exacerbation in the last year.
On examination there is some global reduction in air entry bilaterally but no other focal chest signs. Heart sounds are normal and there is no peripheral oedema. A recent chest x ray is reported as being unchanged from one performed 18 months previously.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in his pharmacological management?Your Answer: Add in a regular ICS
Explanation:Treatment Options for COPD Patients with Persistent Breathlessness
Here we have a patient with COPD who is persistently breathless despite regular use of a short acting beta agonist (SABA) and has an FEV1 of greater than 50%. In this case, add-on inhaled treatment is indicated. According to available guidelines and evidence, the options are to start a long acting beta agonist (LABA) or a long acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA).
Of the options given, the addition of a LAMA is the correct answer, provided there are no asthmatic features or indicators of steroid responsiveness. If these features are present, then a combination of LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) would be considered. It is important to note that proper treatment options should be discussed with a healthcare professional.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man is known to have high blood pressure.
Choose from the options the one drug that is expected to increase his blood pressure even more.Your Answer: Dihydrocodeine
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Certain medications and substances can cause an increase in blood pressure, known as drug-induced hypertension. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and COX-2 selective agents cause sodium and water retention, leading to elevated blood pressure. Sympathomimetic amines, such as amphetamines and pseudoephedrine, can also have this effect. Corticosteroids, particularly those with strong mineralocorticoid effects, can cause fluid retention and hypertension. Oral contraceptives may slightly raise blood pressure in some women. Venlafaxine increases levels of norepinephrine, contributing to hypertension. Cyclosporine and tacrolimus, used in transplant and autoimmune patients, can also have a significant effect on blood pressure. Caffeine and certain dietary supplements, such as ginseng, natural liquorice, and yohimbine, can also cause drug-induced hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 10
Correct
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You assess a 31-year-old patient who has been experiencing difficulty in conceiving despite regular intercourse for 9 months. The patient is in good health and has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Menstrual periods have always been irregular, with months between menses. The patient's BMI is 20 kg/m² and physical examination is unremarkable.
Semen analysis shows normal results. The patient's blood test results are as follows:
Reference Range (female)
Day 21 progesterone (nmol/L) 16 >30
LH (mUI/mL) 22 3.3-100
FSH (mUI/mL) 8 <30
Total testosterone (nmol/L) 3.6 <2.7
Prolactin (mIU/L) 325 <700
SHBG (nmol/L) 20 19-145
What is the most appropriate initial step to enhance the couple's chances of conceiving?Your Answer: Clomifene
Explanation:Couples, including those with fertility issues, have a 15-20% chance of conceiving naturally within a year through regular unprotected sexual intercourse. However, this patient’s PCOS condition, which causes ovulation insufficiency, may prolong the process. Hence, a referral is necessary for assistance, and treatment with clomifene to stimulate ovulation would be suitable.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. Its management is complex due to the unclear cause of the condition. However, it is known that PCOS is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, and there is some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. General management includes weight reduction if appropriate and the use of combined oral contraceptives (COC) to regulate the menstrual cycle and induce a monthly bleed.
Hirsutism and acne are common symptoms of PCOS, and a COC pill may be used to manage them. Third-generation COCs with fewer androgenic effects or co-cyprindiol with an anti-androgen action are possible options. If these do not work, topical eflornithine may be tried, or spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another issue that women with PCOS may face. Weight reduction is recommended if appropriate, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is an ongoing debate about whether metformin, clomifene, or a combination should be used to stimulate ovulation. A 2007 trial published in the New England Journal of Medicine suggested that clomifene was the most effective treatment. However, there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies such as clomifene. The RCOG published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS. Metformin is also used, either combined with clomifene or alone, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents with complaints of dysuria and increased frequency of micturition. She has been experiencing these symptoms on and off for several months. Upon urinalysis, microscopic haematuria and 2-3 white cells per high power field are detected, but the urine culture is sterile. What is the most suitable treatment for her?
Your Answer: Alkalinisation of the urine
Correct Answer: Topical oestrogen cream
Explanation:Atrophic Urethritis/Vaginitis in Postmenopausal Women: Symptoms and Treatment
Postmenopausal women often experience symptoms of atrophic urethritis/vaginitis due to dryness and atrophy of the urethral tissue. This condition can cause discomfort, pain during intercourse, and urinary incontinence. However, topical oestrogen cream can have a dramatic response in improving or curing these symptoms.
It is important to note that atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is not caused by an infection, so antibiotic therapy or alkalinisation of the urine will not be effective. Corticosteroids are also not helpful in treating this condition.
In addition to improving urinary incontinence, topical oestrogen may also reduce the risk of recurrent urinary tract infections in postmenopausal women. However, it is important to rule out other underlying pathology before using oestrogen for this indication.
Overall, atrophic urethritis/vaginitis is a common condition in postmenopausal women, but it can be effectively treated with topical oestrogen cream.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You see a 75-year-old man for his annual medication review. He takes ramipril for chronic renal impairment but his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) has fallen by 20% since he was last seen 3 months ago. You repeat the test and the results are confirmed. He reports feeling well in himself and apart from getting up several times during the night to pass urine and a reduced urinary stream he reports no other symptoms. Abdominal examination is normal but an abdominal ultrasound shows bilateral hydronephrosis.
What is the most likely cause of his condition?Your Answer: Congenital ureteric stricture
Correct Answer: Bladder outflow obstruction
Explanation:Urinary Obstruction: Causes and Symptoms
Urinary obstruction can occur due to various congenital and acquired conditions. Congenital ureteric strictures and urethral valve obstruction are common in infants, while bladder stones can cause bilateral obstructive symptoms in adults. Urethrocele is a condition seen in women, while prostatic enlargement is a common cause of bladder outflow obstruction in men. Acquired urethral strictures can also lead to similar symptoms. Backpressure in the urinary tract can cause renal damage, leading to palpable distended bladder and other complications. It is important to identify the underlying cause of urinary obstruction to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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For a mother who is breastfeeding, which medication should be avoided?
Your Answer: Warfarin
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Tetracycline and Other Drugs to Avoid During Pregnancy and Breastfeeding
Tetracycline is a medication that should be avoided by breastfeeding mothers due to the risk of staining the infant’s teeth. Other drugs to avoid during pregnancy and breastfeeding include amiodarone, lithium, chloramphenicol, and vitamin A derivatives. The FDA has assigned tetracycline to pregnancy category D, as it has been associated with congenital defects and maternal hepatotoxicity. When used during tooth development in the second half of pregnancy, tetracycline can cause permanent yellow-gray-brown discoloration of the teeth and enamel hypoplasia. Therefore, the use of tetracycline during pregnancy is generally not recommended, especially during the last half of pregnancy.
Tetracycline is excreted into human milk in small amounts, which may pose theoretical risks of dental staining and inhibition of bone growth, although these risks are unlikely. It is important for pregnant and breastfeeding women to consult with their healthcare provider before taking any medication to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old mother contacts the on-call doctor, concerned about her two daughters (aged 4 and 6) who attend the same school. She reports that both girls have been complaining of an itchy scalp for the past week, but she has not noticed any visible signs of rash or irritation. After conducting a dry combing of their hair, she has found live lice on her younger daughter.
What advice would you give as the on-call doctor?Your Answer: Arrange to review the patient face-to-face so you can examine the scalp first
Correct Answer: Treat only the twin with live lice on dry combing with either malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate or cyclomethicone
Explanation:According to the updated 2016 NICE CKS guidance, household contacts of patients with head lice do not require treatment unless they are also infested. Treatment should only be given if live head lice are detected, and it may be possible to manage this over the phone without a physical examination. It is crucial to have a discussion with the patient or caregiver about the various treatment options available, weighing the pros and cons, and involving them in the decision-making process.
Understanding Head Lice: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Head lice, also known as pediculosis capitis or ‘nits’, is a common condition in children caused by a parasitic insect called Pediculus capitis. These small insects live only on humans and feed on our blood. The eggs, which are grey or brown and about the size of a pinhead, are glued to the hair close to the scalp and hatch in 7 to 10 days. Nits, on the other hand, are the empty egg shells and are white and shiny. They are found further along the hair shaft as they grow out.
Head lice are spread by direct head-to-head contact and tend to be more common in children who play closely together. It is important to note that head lice cannot jump, fly, or swim. When newly infected, cases have no symptoms, but itching and scratching on the scalp occur 2 to 3 weeks after infection. There is no incubation period.
To diagnose head lice, fine-toothed combing of wet or dry hair is necessary. Treatment is only indicated if living lice are found. A choice of treatments should be offered, including malathion, wet combing, dimeticone, isopropyl myristate, and cyclomethicone. Household contacts of patients with head lice do not need to be treated unless they are also affected. It is important to note that school exclusion is not advised for children with head lice.
In conclusion, understanding the causes, symptoms, and management of head lice is crucial in preventing its spread. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, we can effectively manage this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman is found to have osteoporosis following a Colles fracture. Which medication she is taking is most likely to have played a role in causing her osteoporosis?
Your Answer: Naproxen
Correct Answer: Lansoprazole
Explanation:Reduced bone mineral density is linked to the prolonged use of proton pump inhibitors.
Osteoporosis is a condition that is more prevalent in women and increases with age. However, there are many other risk factors and secondary causes of osteoporosis. Some of the most significant risk factors include a history of glucocorticoid use, rheumatoid arthritis, alcohol excess, parental hip fracture history, low body mass index, and current smoking. Other risk factors include a sedentary lifestyle, premature menopause, certain ethnicities, endocrine disorders, gastrointestinal disorders, chronic kidney disease, and certain genetic disorders. Additionally, certain medications such as SSRIs, antiepileptics, and proton pump inhibitors may worsen osteoporosis.
If a patient is diagnosed with osteoporosis or has a fragility fracture, further investigations may be necessary to identify the cause of osteoporosis and assess the risk of subsequent fractures. Recommended investigations include a history and physical examination, blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, liver function tests, bone profile, CRP, and thyroid function tests. Other procedures may include bone densitometry, lateral radiographs, protein immunoelectrophoresis, and urinary Bence-Jones proteins. Additionally, markers of bone turnover and urinary calcium excretion may be assessed. By identifying the cause of osteoporosis and contributory factors, healthcare providers can select the most appropriate form of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You are assessing a 28-year-old woman who has chronic plaque psoriasis. Despite trying various combinations of potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, coal tar and dithranol over the past two years, she has seen limited improvement. Light therapy was attempted last year but the psoriasis returned within a month. The patient is feeling increasingly discouraged, especially after a recent relationship breakdown. As per NICE guidelines, what is a necessary requirement before considering systemic therapy for this patient?
Your Answer: For female patients they should have no plans for further children
Correct Answer: It has a significant impact on physical, psychological or social wellbeing
Explanation:Referral Criteria for Psoriasis Patients
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that affects a significant number of people. According to NICE guidelines, around 60% of psoriasis patients will require referral to secondary care at some point. The guidance provides some general criteria for referral, including diagnostic uncertainty, severe or extensive psoriasis, inability to control psoriasis with topical therapy, and major functional or cosmetic impact on nail disease. Additionally, any type of psoriasis that has a significant impact on a person’s physical, psychological, or social wellbeing should also be referred to a specialist. Children and young people with any type of psoriasis should be referred to a specialist at presentation.
For patients with erythroderma or generalised pustular psoriasis, same-day referral is recommended. erythroderma is characterized by a generalised erythematous rash, while generalised pustular psoriasis is marked by extensive exfoliation. These conditions require immediate attention due to their severity. Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the referral criteria for psoriasis patients to ensure that they receive appropriate care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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You see a 50-year-old man who was diagnosed with gout a year ago.
He has recently had olecranon bursitis which he was told was associated with gout.
What other condition may be associated with gout?Your Answer: Renal colic
Explanation:Complications of Hyperuricaemia
Hyperuricaemia, or high levels of uric acid in the blood, can lead to various complications. One of these is renal disease, which can manifest as acute or chronic urate nephropathy. Another complication is the formation of urinary stones, which is seen in 10-25% of people with gout. The incidence of urinary stones is strongly correlated with plasma urate level, with a 50% increase in those with levels higher than 780 µmol/L. It is important to manage hyperuricaemia to prevent these complications from occurring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A study is conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of a new medication for treating high cholesterol. Two groups of patients are randomly assigned, one group taking the established drug for 6 months and the other taking the new drug for 6 months. Cholesterol levels are measured before and after the treatment. After a one-month break from medication, the groups switch medications and cholesterol levels are measured again. The difference in cholesterol levels before and after each medication is calculated for each patient. Which statistical test is most suitable for analyzing the results?
Your Answer: Chi-squared test
Correct Answer: Student's paired t-test
Explanation:A crossover study is being conducted where the same patients are being compared based on parametric data, with medication being swapped halfway through the study. Therefore, the appropriate statistical test to use would be the Student’s paired t-test.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man had herpes zoster of his T5 dermatome three weeks ago, and is now troubled by post herpetic neuralgia. He also had an inferior myocardial infarction eight weeks ago.
His primary symptom at the moment is post herpetic neuralgia. Which of the following drugs would be contra-indicated in this man?Your Answer: Capsaicin
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Contra-indication of Amitriptyline in Recent Myocardial Infarction
Explanation: Patients who have recently experienced a myocardial infarction should avoid taking Amitriptyline as a treatment. This medication is not recommended for individuals who have suffered a heart attack in the past. Therefore, it is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking any medication, especially if you have a history of heart disease. It is crucial to follow the doctor’s advice and avoid any medication that may cause harm to your health. Remember, prevention is always better than cure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner with a 3-year history of widespread body pain. The pain started after a fall and was initially localized to her lower back. Over time, the pain has spread and she now reports feeling constant pain all over her body. She denies any joint swelling or other systemic symptoms. She has difficulty sleeping and experiences fatigue. She has a history of irritable bowel syndrome but is otherwise healthy. On examination, she appears well and there are no significant musculoskeletal findings, but she is tender at multiple points bilaterally on her body.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Correct Answer: Fibromyalgia
Explanation:Understanding Fibromyalgia: Symptoms and Tender Points
Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition that primarily affects women, causing widespread pain and tenderness throughout the body. Along with pain, individuals with fibromyalgia may experience morning stiffness, fatigue, sleep disturbances, cognitive difficulties, and other unexplained symptoms. To diagnose fibromyalgia, doctors may use the standard 18 tender points, which are pairs of points on either side of the body that are particularly sensitive to pressure. However, many patients may experience pain in other areas as well. Routine blood testing can help rule out other potential causes of symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with a history of type 1 diabetes becomes very unwell with increased respiratory rate, drowsiness and thirst.
On examination she is pyrexial 38°C, just about communicating, and smells of acetone. Her BP is 100/60 mmHg with a pulse of 105, her glucose is 27.5.
How would you manage her?Your Answer: Start antibiotic therapy
Correct Answer: Review next day
Explanation:Diabetic Ketoacidosis: A Serious Condition Requiring Hospital Management
Diabetic ketoacidosis is a life-threatening condition that occurs due to absolute insulin deficiency, which is almost exclusively seen in type 1 diabetes. It carries a mortality rate of up to 5% and requires immediate hospital management.
The accumulation of ketones in the body leads to metabolic acidosis, which is compensated for by respiratory mechanisms. Hyperkalaemia is often present at the time of presentation, but it can be resolved quickly with insulin therapy and fluid resuscitation.
It is important to note that starting antibiotics or increasing insulin in a domiciliary setting is not appropriate for managing diabetic ketoacidosis. This condition requires prompt medical attention and close monitoring to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding relative risk is accurate?
Your Answer: Risk may be defined as the odds of an outcome happening
Correct Answer: It is the usual outcome measure of cohort studies
Explanation:It is important to distinguish between risk and odds. For instance, if 100 individuals experience a myocardial infarction and 20 of them die, the risk of dying is 0.2 (20/100). However, the odds of dying are 0.25 (20/80).
Understanding Relative Risk in Clinical Trials
Relative risk (RR) is a measure used in clinical trials to compare the risk of an event occurring in the experimental group to the risk in the control group. It is calculated by dividing the experimental event rate (EER) by the control event rate (CER). If the resulting ratio is greater than 1, it means that the event is more likely to occur in the experimental group than in the control group. Conversely, if the ratio is less than 1, the event is less likely to occur in the experimental group.
To calculate the relative risk reduction (RRR) or relative risk increase (RRI), the absolute risk change is divided by the control event rate. This provides a percentage that indicates the magnitude of the difference between the two groups. Understanding relative risk is important in evaluating the effectiveness of interventions and treatments in clinical trials. By comparing the risk of an event in the experimental group to the control group, researchers can determine whether the intervention is beneficial or not.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 23
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable approach to prevent variceal bleeding in a 45-year-old man with a history of alcohol abuse who has been diagnosed with grade 3 oesophageal varices during an outpatient endoscopy?
Your Answer: Terlipressin
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:The prophylaxis of oesophageal bleeding can be achieved using a non-cardioselective B-blocker (NSBB), while endoscopic sclerotherapy is no longer considered effective in preventing variceal haemorrhage.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.
To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 30-year-old man with type 1 diabetes of ten years' duration and background diabetic retinopathy has a persistently elevated blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg and proteinuria of 0.6 g/day. Blood urea, electrolytes and creatinine are well within normal limits. Besides insulin, he is on no other medications.
Which of the following is the most likely agent to improve the prognosis in this man?Your Answer: ACE inhibitors
Explanation:Managing Diabetic Nephropathy and Hypertension
This individual is suffering from diabetic nephropathy, as indicated by the presence of retinopathy, and hypertension. To prevent the progression of renal failure in the long term, it is crucial to maintain good glycaemic and lipid profiles while controlling blood pressure to less than 130/75 mmHg. The weight of trial evidence suggests that angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are the best option for type 1 diabetics. The most important and clinically relevant strategy for this individual to improve their prognosis is to prevent the progression of renal disease and reduce blood pressure with an ACEi. By doing so, we can effectively manage their condition and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presented to the genitourinary medicine clinic with complaints of vaginal discharge. She had visited her GP a week ago and was prescribed clotrimazole pessaries, but they did not provide any relief. The patient reported no itching but did mention a foul odor, particularly after intercourse. During the examination, a thin white vaginal discharge with a pH of 5.9 was observed, and microscopy revealed Lactobacilli with Gram variable rods. What is the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer: Azithromycin 1 g single dose
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for seven days
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Treatment
Bacterial vaginosis is a common condition among women of childbearing age. It is characterized by a thin, milky white discharge with a malodorous fishy smell. The discharge is not itchy, but the fishy odor can be detected by adding 10% potassium hydroxide to the vaginal discharge. The vaginal pH is usually greater than 4.5.
Risk factors for bacterial vaginosis include the use of intrauterine coil devices, vaginal douching, and having multiple sexual partners. If left untreated, bacterial vaginosis can lead to pelvic inflammatory diseases. Some patients may not experience any symptoms, but those who do should seek treatment, especially if they are pregnant.
In the UK, the first line treatment for bacterial vaginosis is metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for seven days. Alternatively, a single dose of oral metronidazole 2 g may be given if patient adherence is an issue. Azithromycin is used to treat Chlamydia, and ceftriaxone is used to treat gonorrhea.
In the US, the CDC has updated treatment recommendations for bacterial vaginosis. Metronidazole 500 mg orally twice a day for seven days is the recommended therapy, with alternatives including several tinidazole regimens or clindamycin (oral or intravaginal). Additional regimens include metronidazole (750 mg extended release tablets once daily for seven days) or a single dose of clindamycin intravaginal cream, although data on the performance of these alternative regimens are limited.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman brings her 4-year-old daughter to the surgery. According to both the family and the nursery she attends for day care, her left eye has become increasingly amblyopic, and she has developed a divergent squint. It appears also that she has become increasingly clumsy and has difficulty using stereoscopic vision to play with her lego.
She was born two months premature but has achieved normal milestones since and has had all of her planned vaccinations.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Reassure that a squint is normal in children born premature
Correct Answer: Check for red reflex
Explanation:Importance of Red Reflex Assessment in Diagnosing Retinoblastoma
In cases where a patient presents with loss of the red reflex, it is crucial to rule out the development of a retinoblastoma. This is because retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular malignancy of childhood, and delay in diagnosis can have negative prognostic implications. Therefore, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist is necessary.
Diagnosis of retinoblastoma is typically confirmed through indirect dilated ophthalmoscopy under anaesthetic. Referral to a community optician or non-urgent referral to an ophthalmologist can result in significant delays in diagnosis, making both options inappropriate. While referral to an optician may seem like a viable option, testing the red reflex is a quick and easy procedure that a GP can perform themselves.
Re-examining the patient in six weeks is not a suitable course of action as it will only delay diagnosis. In situations where loss of the red reflex is present, reassurance is not appropriate, and urgent referral for further assessment is necessary. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize red reflex assessment in diagnosing retinoblastoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man has been referred under the 2-week rule due to frank haematuria. He underwent a flexible cystoscopy and biopsies, which revealed a small superficial bladder tumour. He is a non-smoker. What is the most suitable advice you can give this patient regarding his bladder tumour?
Your Answer: Bladder tumours are uncommon in non-smokers
Correct Answer: The majority of tumours involve only the urothelium and are non-invasive
Explanation:Bladder Cancer: Facts and Figures
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, a hollow organ in the pelvis that stores urine. Here are some important facts and figures about bladder cancer:
– The majority of bladder tumours involve only the urothelium (the lining of the bladder) and are non-invasive.
– Transitional-cell tumours account for 90% of bladder cancers in the UK. About 70% of patients have superficial disease at diagnosis.
– The 5-year survival rate for bladder cancer is typically less than 50%. However, patients with superficial tumours have a 5-year survival rate of 80-90%, while those with muscle-invasive tumours have a rate as low as 30-60%.
– Although smoking is a risk factor for bladder cancer, it is linked to only about 50% of cases, meaning that it is still common in non-smokers.
– Most non-invasive bladder tumours are managed with transurethral resection of the bladder tumour (TURBT). Radical cystectomy (removal of the bladder) may be necessary for invasive tumours.
– The most common symptom of bladder cancer is painless haematuria (blood in the urine). Voiding symptoms are more likely to occur in advanced disease.Bladder cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any symptoms of bladder cancer, such as blood in the urine or changes in urination patterns, you should see a doctor right away.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with minor bleeding from the gums during tooth brushing, as evidenced by blood on the toothbrush and on spitting out during tooth brushing. There is no pain, lymphadenopathy, fever, or other systemic manifestation of disease. On examination of the teeth and gums, reddened, mild-to-moderately swollen gingivae are observed throughout the mouth.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus infection
Correct Answer: Gingivitis
Explanation:Understanding Gingivitis and Periodontal Disease
Gingivitis is a common condition characterized by inflammation of the gums, often caused by dental plaque. If left untreated, it can progress to periodontitis, which affects the ligaments and bone supporting the teeth. Risk factors include poor oral hygiene, smoking, and diabetes. Treatment involves managing oral hygiene and using antiseptic mouthwashes, but it’s important to see a dentist for proper care.
Necrotising ulcerative gingivitis, also known as Vincent’s disease, is a painful form of gingivitis that can cause ulcers and bleeding. It’s caused by bacteria already present in the mouth and can be treated with antibiotics.
Periodontal disease is a common problem in HIV-infected patients and can present as necrotising ulcerative periodontitis or linear gingival erythema. These conditions can occur even in clean mouths with little plaque or tartar.
Bleeding gums can also be a symptom of leukaemia and platelet disorders. It’s important to seek medical attention if you experience persistent bleeding or other oral health issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 29
Correct
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A 32-year-old nulliparous lady presents with a discharging left nipple for the last two weeks. She takes off her bra to show you and there is a small amount of staining of the inside of the bra. She squeezes the nipple and you see a small amount of blood stained mucoid discharge leak from the duct at 6 o'clock.
You examine her and there is no mass palpable, nor is there any pain. There are no cervical or axillary lymph nodes and she appears otherwise well.
What should you do?Your Answer: Refer urgently to breast clinic
Explanation:Management of Unilateral Spontaneous Bloody Nipple Discharge
When a patient presents with unilateral spontaneous bloody nipple discharge, it is important to rule out breast cancer before assuming it is duct ectasia. Reassuring the patient without proper investigation is inappropriate. Prescribing antibiotics or sending a sample for culture without evidence of cellulitis can delay a diagnosis and is not the correct management. Advising the patient to express the discharge again is also inappropriate.
If a non-lactational abscess is suspected, it is best to refer the patient to the emergency department for proper drainage. However, if infection is less likely, an urgent referral for suspected cancer is appropriate. According to NICE guidelines, patients aged 50 and over with any symptoms in one nipple only, such as discharge, retraction, or other changes of concern, should be referred for an appointment within 2 weeks. However, regardless of age, a patient presenting with unilateral spontaneous bloody discharge should have an urgent referral.
In summary, proper investigation and referral are crucial in managing unilateral spontaneous bloody nipple discharge to ensure timely diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a significant family history of diabetes is currently 30 weeks pregnant in her first pregnancy.
Upon completing the oral glucose tolerance test, she has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes, with a fasting glucose level of 7.3mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 9.2mmol/L.
What would be the most suitable course of action for managing this situation?Your Answer: Metformin and lifestyle interventions
Correct Answer: Insulin
Explanation:Immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/L at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis. Glibenclamide may be considered for women who cannot tolerate metformin or do not achieve glucose targets with metformin but decline insulin therapy. If the fasting plasma glucose level is less than 7 mmol/L, lifestyle interventions such as a low glycemic index diet and exercise should be attempted first. If glucose targets are not achieved within 1-2 weeks of lifestyle measures, metformin may be initiated.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder that affects around 4% of pregnancies. It can develop during pregnancy or be a pre-existing condition. According to NICE, 87.5% of cases are gestational diabetes, 7.5% are type 1 diabetes, and 5% are type 2 diabetes. Risk factors for gestational diabetes include a BMI of > 30 kg/m², previous gestational diabetes, a family history of diabetes, and family origin with a high prevalence of diabetes. Screening for gestational diabetes involves an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which should be performed as soon as possible after booking and at 24-28 weeks if the first test is normal.
To diagnose gestational diabetes, NICE recommends using the following thresholds: fasting glucose is >= 5.6 mmol/L or 2-hour glucose is >= 7.8 mmol/L. Newly diagnosed women should be seen in a joint diabetes and antenatal clinic within a week and taught about self-monitoring of blood glucose. Advice about diet and exercise should be given, and if glucose targets are not met within 1-2 weeks of altering diet/exercise, metformin should be started. If glucose targets are still not met, insulin should be added to the treatment plan.
For women with pre-existing diabetes, weight loss is recommended for those with a BMI of > 27 kg/m^2. Oral hypoglycaemic agents, apart from metformin, should be stopped, and insulin should be commenced. Folic acid 5 mg/day should be taken from preconception to 12 weeks gestation, and a detailed anomaly scan at 20 weeks, including four-chamber view of the heart and outflow tracts, should be performed. Tight glycaemic control reduces complication rates, and retinopathy should be treated as it can worsen during pregnancy.
Targets for self-monitoring of pregnant women with diabetes include a fasting glucose level of 5.3 mmol/l and a 1-hour or 2-hour glucose level after meals of 7.8 mmol/l or 6.4 mmol/l, respectively. It is important to manage gestational diabetes and pre-existing diabetes during pregnancy to reduce the risk of complications for both the mother and baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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