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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a pustular/vesicular rash on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a pustular/vesicular rash on her left cheek in the maxillary area that has been present for two days. What would be the most appropriate next step in treating her condition?

      Your Answer: Referral to an ophthalmologist urgently

      Correct Answer: Start the patient on oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Left Trigeminal Shingles in the Maxillary Region

      The scenario above depicts a case of left trigeminal shingles in the V2 dermatome region, which is the maxillary region. It is important to note that V1 is the ophthalmic region that supplies the cornea, but it is not affected in this case. Therefore, the recommended treatment for this condition is a course of oral aciclovir, which is a systemic medication. Additionally, adequate analgesia may be necessary to manage any associated pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. Prior to initiating pioglitazone therapy, what is the most important factor to consider?

      Your Answer: Visual acuity

      Correct Answer: Fracture risk

      Explanation:

      The risk of osteoporosis and fractures is higher in individuals taking thiazolidinediones.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      44.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A mother brings in her six month-old daughter with constipation. Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her six month-old daughter with constipation. Which of the following in the history and examination would require a referral to Paediatrics?

      Your Answer: Passed meconium at 24 hours of age

      Correct Answer: Large naevus over the sacral area

      Explanation:

      When assessing a child’s constipation history and conducting an examination, certain red flags should be taken into consideration. If the child has been constipated since birth or within the first few weeks of life, or if there was a delay of more than 48 hours before passing meconium, it could indicate underlying conditions such as Hirschsprung’s disease or cystic fibrosis.

      Additionally, the presence of multiple anal fissures or new neurological symptoms in the lower limbs should be cause for concern. If a large naevus is present over the sacral area, further investigation is necessary to rule out the possibility of spina bifida.

      Understanding Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, and its frequency varies with age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and symptoms associated with defecation. The vast majority of children have no identifiable cause, but other causes include dehydration, low-fiber diet, medications, anal fissure, over-enthusiastic potty training, hypothyroidism, Hirschsprung’s disease, hypercalcemia, and learning disabilities.

      After making a diagnosis of constipation, NICE suggests excluding secondary causes. If no red or amber flags are present, a diagnosis of idiopathic constipation can be made. Prior to starting treatment, the child needs to be assessed for fecal impaction. NICE guidelines recommend using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes as the first-line treatment for faecal impaction. Maintenance therapy is also recommended, with adjustments to the starting dose.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone should not be used as first-line treatment. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants not yet weaned, gentle abdominal massage and bicycling the infant’s legs can be helpful. For weaned infants, extra water, diluted fruit juice, and fruits can be offered, and lactulose can be added if necessary.

      In conclusion, constipation in children can be effectively managed with proper diagnosis and treatment. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child. Parents can also seek support from Health Visitors or Paediatric Continence Advisors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      62.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You usually get a box of chocolates every birthday from a particular friend's...

    Incorrect

    • You usually get a box of chocolates every birthday from a particular friend's family. This year, you receive a deluxe collection from an expensive retailer from the family and you are astonished to see that it costs £110.

      What would be the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Thank the patient and accept the gifts on behalf of the practice and declare it on the register

      Correct Answer: Thank the patient and accept the gifts

      Explanation:

      Registering Gifts as a GP

      As a GP, it is important to register any gifts received from patients or their relatives that are worth £100 or more, unless the gift is unrelated to the provision of services. This applies to all GPs, including locums, and equivalent regulations operate throughout the UK. The register should include the name of the donor, nature of the gift, and its estimated value. CCGs may request to see these registers. GPs may also need to seek tax advice for declaring large gifts. It is recommended to contact your trade union or indemnity provider if unsure about any gift policy. Most practices have their own gift policy, so it is worth asking about this when joining a new practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      169.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man reports during a routine blood pressure check-up that he has been experiencing difficulty urinating. Upon further questioning, he describes urinary hesitancy, a weak stream, occasional dribbling, and a sensation of incomplete emptying. These symptoms are causing him distress to the point where he avoids going out in public. Upon examination, you note a smooth enlarged prostate and decide to send blood for PSA testing and a urine specimen for culture. The results come back clear, and his PSA level is 3.8 ng/ml (normal age-adjusted range 0 - 4 ng/ml).
      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: An alpha-blocker is the first-line treatment in this patient group

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia

      Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition in older men that can cause urinary symptoms. Here are some common treatment options and their effectiveness:

      Alpha-blockers: These medications, such as tamsulosin, relax smooth muscle and are the first-line treatment for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms.

      Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP): Surgery is reserved for patients with bladder outflow obstruction or in those in whom medical therapy fails.

      Finasteride: This medication shrinks the prostate, but the benefit is seen over weeks to months.

      Prostate biopsy: This should be considered in the investigation of prostate cancer, but is not necessary in this patient with normal PSA and examination findings.

      Saw palmetto: This herbal remedy is not more effective than placebo and is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      231.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the correct option for measuring blood pressure using either an automated...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct option for measuring blood pressure using either an automated machine or a manual method?

      Your Answer: The arm should hang vertically while the measurement is taken

      Correct Answer: Patients should rest for 5 minutes before the measurement is taken

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Measuring Blood Pressure

      When measuring blood pressure, it is important to follow certain guidelines to ensure accurate readings. The patient should be seated for at least five minutes, in a relaxed state without moving or speaking. Blood pressure should be recorded three times, initially testing in both arms. If there is a sustained difference of more than 20 mmHg, use the arm with the higher reading for subsequent measurements. The arm must be supported at the level of the heart.

      If the blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg or higher, up to three readings should be taken, and the lower of the last two recorded as the blood pressure. It is important to note that automated devices may not measure blood pressure accurately if there is pulse irregularity, such as atrial fibrillation. In such cases, blood pressure should be measured manually using direct auscultation over the brachial artery. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure accurate blood pressure readings for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      298.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old female with no prior medical history presents with a left-sided hemiparesis...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old female with no prior medical history presents with a left-sided hemiparesis and is found to be in atrial fibrillation. Imaging reveals a cerebral infarction. What anticoagulation approach would be most suitable for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin started immediately switching to Lifelong warfarin after 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      Managing Atrial Fibrillation Post-Stroke

      Atrial fibrillation is a major risk factor for ischaemic stroke, making it crucial to identify and treat the condition in patients who have suffered a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA). However, before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy, it is important to rule out haemorrhage. For long-term stroke prevention, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. The timing of when to start treatment depends on whether it is a TIA or stroke. In the case of a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should begin immediately after imaging has excluded haemorrhage. For acute stroke patients, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated after two weeks in the absence of haemorrhage. Antiplatelet therapy should be given during the intervening period. However, if imaging shows a very large cerebral infarction, the initiation of anticoagulation should be delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      256.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue and itching. She denies any alcohol abuse...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman complains of fatigue and itching. She denies any alcohol abuse and is not on any medications. She has xanthelasmas and her alkaline phosphatase level is elevated.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia

      Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for a Patient with Pruritus and Xanthelasmas

      The patient’s symptoms of pruritus and xanthelasmas suggest a possible diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), a chronic liver disease that primarily affects women between the ages of 30 and 65. Fatigue is often the first symptom, and pruritus is also common. Elevated alkaline phosphatase levels and increased lipid and cholesterol levels are typical of PBC. Xanthelasmas may be present in late-stage disease.

      Familial hypercholesterolaemia may also cause xanthelasmas, but pruritus and elevated alkaline phosphatase levels would not be expected. Asteatotic eczema may cause pruritus, but it is more common in elderly patients and would not explain the elevated alkaline phosphatase levels. Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas may cause painless jaundice and pruritus, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas. Paget’s disease of bone may cause elevated alkaline phosphatase levels, but it would not explain the xanthelasmas or pruritus.

      Overall, the combination of symptoms suggests PBC as the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which one of the following conditions is NOT a condition inherited in an...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following conditions is NOT a condition inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern?

      Your Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Correct Answer: Albinism

      Explanation:

      Metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with the exception of inherited ataxias. On the other hand, structural conditions are often inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, although there are exceptions such as Gilbert’s syndrome and hyperlipidemia type II.

      Autosomal Dominant Conditions: A List of Inherited Disorders

      Autosomal dominant conditions are genetic disorders that are passed down from one generation to the next through a dominant gene. Unlike autosomal recessive conditions, which require two copies of a mutated gene to cause the disorder, autosomal dominant conditions only require one copy of the mutated gene. While some autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural, such as Marfan’s syndrome and osteogenesis imperfecta, others are considered metabolic, such as hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.

      The following is a list of autosomal dominant conditions:

      – Achondroplasia
      – Acute intermittent porphyria
      – Adult polycystic disease
      – Antithrombin III deficiency
      – Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
      – Familial adenomatous polyposis
      – Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
      – Hereditary spherocytosis
      – Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
      – Huntington’s disease
      – Hyperlipidaemia type II
      – Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis
      – Malignant hyperthermia
      – Marfan syndromes
      – Myotonic dystrophy
      – Neurofibromatosis
      – Noonan syndrome
      – Osteogenesis imperfecta
      – Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
      – Retinoblastoma
      – Romano-Ward syndrome
      – Tuberous sclerosis
      – Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
      – Von Willebrand’s disease*

      It’s important to note that while most types of von Willebrand’s disease are inherited as autosomal dominant, type 3 von Willebrand’s disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man has a tonic-clonic seizure in the Emergency Room waiting area....

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man has a tonic-clonic seizure in the Emergency Room waiting area. He is stabilized and admitted to the hospital as he is not known to be epileptic. He has had several consultations over the past few weeks with joint pains, fatigue, weight loss, a facial rash, and dry eyes. He has been referred to hematology as he has a macrocytic anemia and thrombocytopenia. He is not currently taking any medication.
      What is the single most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects multiple systems in the body. Symptoms include weight loss, joint pain and swelling, lethargy, and lymphadenopathy. SLE can also cause hematological abnormalities such as lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia, and hemolytic anemia, which can result in macrocytosis. Neurological symptoms such as seizures, peripheral neuropathy, and psychiatric problems can also occur. A malar/butterfly rash across the cheeks and bridge of the nose is a typical feature of SLE, as is dry mouth, which may be due to Sjögren syndrome, a condition commonly associated with SLE.

      Dermatomyositis is a connective tissue disease that presents with proximal symmetrical myositis and skin rashes, including a heliotrope rash on the eyelids, Gottron’s papules on the hands, and nail changes. However, the seizure and hematological abnormalities described in this case are not typical of dermatomyositis.

      Diabetes mellitus may cause weight loss, dry mouth, and lethargy, but joint pain and hematological abnormalities are not typical. Hypoglycemia may cause seizures in patients on diabetes treatment, but this patient is not taking any medication.

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain and multiple tender points on examination. It may also cause lethargy and psychological problems, but seizures are not associated with this condition, and investigations are usually normal.

      Sjögren syndrome is an autoimmune condition that causes dryness of the eyes and mouth. While it may explain the dry mouth, it doesn’t account for all the other symptoms listed. Primary Sjögren syndrome occurs independently, but secondary Sjögren syndrome is commonly associated with SLE or rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      93.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old child is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents as...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old child is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents as he is experiencing worsening breathing difficulties. The child has a history of asthma and has been hospitalized twice before due to exacerbations. During the examination, the child's oxygen saturation is at 90% on air, heart rate is 140 beats/minute, respiratory rate is 40 breaths/minute, and he is using accessory muscles to breathe. Additionally, he is having difficulty completing full sentences.

      Which aspect of the child's medical history indicates a potentially life-threatening exacerbation?

      Your Answer: Use of accessory muscle

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Severe asthma exacerbation is characterized by the following: difficulty in completing full sentences, use of accessory muscles, respiratory rate of 40 breaths/ min, and a heart rate of 140 breaths/ min.

      Assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children is crucial for effective management. The 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines provide criteria for assessing the severity of asthma in general practice. These criteria include measuring SpO2 levels, PEF (peak expiratory flow) rates, heart rate, respiratory rate, use of accessory neck muscles, and other symptoms such as breathlessness, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      A severe asthma attack is characterized by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates between 33-50% of the best or predicted, being too breathless to talk or feed, and a high heart and respiratory rate. On the other hand, a life-threatening asthma attack is indicated by a SpO2 level below 92%, PEF rates below 33% of the best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, use of accessory neck muscles, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with these criteria to ensure prompt and appropriate management of asthma attacks in children. Early recognition of the severity of an asthma attack can help prevent complications and reduce the risk of hospitalization or death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      182285.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 2-year-old boy is presented by his father with bilateral earache. The child...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old boy is presented by his father with bilateral earache. The child has been experiencing this for the past week despite taking regular paracetamol and neurofen.

      During the examination, the child's temperature is recorded at 39.2ºC. His pulse rate is 130 beats per minute and both ears show congested, red, and bulging tympanic membranes.

      What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      For most cases of acute otitis media, it is recommended to avoid or delay the use of antibiotics. However, a prescription may be necessary for individuals who are systemically unwell, have co-morbidities that put them at high-risk, experience ongoing symptoms for at least 4 days without improvement, children under 2 years old with bilateral otitis media, or those with perforation and/or discharge in the ear canal. Amoxicillin is the preferred first-line drug, while acetic acid spray, otomize spray, and flucloxacillin can be used for otitis externa. Although symptoms should typically be monitored, this patient meets some of the criteria for antibiotic prescription.

      Acute otitis media is a common condition in young children, often caused by bacterial infections following viral upper respiratory tract infections. Symptoms include ear pain, fever, and hearing loss, and diagnosis is based on criteria such as the presence of a middle ear effusion and inflammation of the tympanic membrane. Antibiotics may be prescribed in certain cases, and complications can include perforation of the tympanic membrane, hearing loss, and more serious conditions such as meningitis and brain abscess.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - You assess a 5 month old girl who was hospitalized due to a...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 5 month old girl who was hospitalized due to a urinary tract infection and showed improvement after receiving antibiotics within 48 hours. She was discharged after 2 days. As per NICE guidelines, what follow-up (if any) should be scheduled?

      Your Answer: DMSA in 4-6 months time and MCUG

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan within 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, if a child under 6 months old has a UTI that responds well to antibiotics within 48 hours, an ultrasound scan should be done within 6 weeks. However, if the UTI is atypical or recurrent, additional tests such as ultrasound during the acute infection, DMSA 4-6 months after the acute infection, and MCUG are recommended.

      An atypical UTI may present with symptoms such as being seriously ill, poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, elevated creatinine, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or non-E. coli organisms. Recurrent UTI is defined as having two or more episodes of UTI with acute pyelonephritis/upper urinary tract infection, one episode of UTI with acute pyelonephritis/upper urinary tract infection plus one or more episodes of UTI with cystitis/lower urinary tract infection, or three or more episodes of UTI with cystitis/lower urinary tract infection.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children require investigation to identify any underlying causes and potential kidney damage. Unlike in adults, the development of a UTI in childhood may indicate renal scarring. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends imaging the urinary tract for infants under six months who present with their first UTI and respond to treatment, within six weeks. Children over six months who respond to treatment do not require imaging unless there are features suggestive of an atypical infection, such as being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.

      Further investigations may include a urine microscopy and culture, as only 50% of children with a UTI have pyuria, making microscopy or dipstick of the urine inadequate for diagnosis. A static radioisotope scan, such as DMSA, can identify renal scars and should be done 4-6 months after the initial infection. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) can identify vesicoureteric reflux and is only recommended for infants under six months who present with atypical or recurrent infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      29
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of prostatism presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with acute retention of urine. He has a palpable bladder up to his umbilicus and is in significant discomfort. His GP sends him to the emergency department where he is catheterised and blood is taken to test his renal function. His serum creatinine concentration is 520 µmol/l (normal range 60–120 µmol/l).
      Which of the following additional results would be most suggestive that his renal failure was chronic rather than acute?

      Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Biochemical Markers for Acute and Chronic Renal Failure

      Renal failure can be classified as acute or chronic based on the duration and severity of the condition. Biochemical markers can help distinguish between the two types of renal failure.

      Hypocalcaemia is a common feature of chronic renal failure and occurs due to the gradual increase of phosphorus in the bloodstream. Low serum bicarbonate concentration is indicative of acute kidney injury and can lead to metabolic acidosis. Hyperkalaemia and hyperuricaemia can occur in both acute and chronic renal failure, while mild hyponatraemia is relatively common in both types of renal failure.

      Overall, while these biochemical markers can provide some insight into the type of renal failure, they are not definitive and should be considered in conjunction with other clinical factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic after returning from a trip to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man comes to the clinic after returning from a trip to Spain with complaints of dysuria, red eyes, and left knee pain. He has no significant medical history and has never experienced such symptoms before. His mother has a history of psoriatic arthritis.

      During the examination, the patient has bilaterally injected conjunctiva and a slightly swollen left knee. His vital signs are stable.

      What is the most commonly associated feature with the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Achilles tendinitis

      Correct Answer: Dactylitis

      Explanation:

      Dactylitis is a common symptom of reactive arthritis, which is strongly suggested by this patient’s history. The fact that his mother has psoriatic arthritis may indicate a hereditary HLA-B27 genotype, which is also associated with reactive arthritis. Achilles tendinitis is more commonly associated with ankylosing spondylitis, another seronegative arthritis linked to HLA-B27. Erythema multiforme is a skin reaction caused by various infections and is not specifically associated with reactive arthritis. Herberden’s nodes are bony nodules at the distal interphalangeal joints associated with osteoarthritis, which is a non-inflammatory condition. Although the patient’s positive family history suggested psoriatic arthritis, the rest of his history was more consistent with reactive arthritis, making that option incorrect.

      Dactylitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of a finger or toe. The causes of this condition include spondyloarthritis, such as Psoriatic and reactive arthritis, sickle-cell disease, and other rare causes like tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, and syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 60-year-old man has been divorced for five years and now lives alone....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man has been divorced for five years and now lives alone. He has a history of chronic back pain. He has been fully investigated and he has lumbar spondylosis. He becomes very emotional during a medication review consultation. The General Practitioner wants to screen for depression.
      According to current National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance, what would be most appropriate to ask about as an initial part of this screening process?

      Your Answer: Poor concentration

      Correct Answer: Having little interest or pleasure in doing things

      Explanation:

      Identifying and Assessing Depression in Patients with Chronic Diseases

      Depression is more common in patients with chronic diseases than in those with good health. To identify depression in patients, doctors should be alert to possible symptoms and consider asking two screening questions recommended by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE): During the last month, have you often been bothered by feeling down, depressed or hopeless? and During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things? If a patient answers ‘yes’ to either question, further questions should be asked to improve the accuracy of the assessment of depression. These questions should include exploring thoughts of death, feelings of worthlessness, inability to sleep, and poor concentration. By identifying and assessing depression in patients with chronic diseases, healthcare providers can provide appropriate treatment and support to improve their overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 68-year-old man has inoperable small-cell lung cancer but has been reasonably well....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man has inoperable small-cell lung cancer but has been reasonably well. He has a forthcoming hospital appointment. He reports no significant symptoms other than his long-standing persistent cough. His General Practitioner (GP) requests some blood tests as per his consultant’s last letter.
      Which of the following results would raise the most concern in this patient?

      Your Answer: Calcium 3.14 mmol/l (normal range 2.20–2.60 mmol/l)

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Blood Test Results in Palliative Care Patients

      When interpreting blood test results in palliative care patients, it is important to consider the context and urgency of each abnormal result. In this case, the serum calcium level is the most concerning, as it is significantly elevated and could indicate symptomatic hypercalcaemia. Immediate admission to a hospital or hospice is recommended, along with intravenous fluid replacement and bisphosphonate treatment. The alkaline phosphatase level is also elevated, but further investigation is needed to determine the source. The slightly low potassium level can be monitored with routine testing, while the slight hyponatraemia may be normal for the patient or repeated non-urgently. A slightly elevated urea level may indicate mild dehydration or renal impairment, but is not significant enough to require emergency treatment. Overall, careful consideration of each abnormal result is necessary in order to provide appropriate care for palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      19.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 16-year-old girl comes to see you and requests the contraceptive pill. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to see you and requests the contraceptive pill. She has come to the surgery alone. You attempt to discuss the request in more detail but she seems nervous and fidgety, not making eye contact with you. You ask her if she would like someone else present for the discussion.
      She says she wants to start taking the pill as she is in a relationship and wants to be safe. She appears to be listening but is not asking any questions.
      You explain to her that you need to make a thorough assessment if you are to prescribe, and you need to make sure she understands the implications of using contraception and becoming sexually active. You ask her if she has any questions or concerns, and she asks a few questions but seems hesitant to discuss further.
      What is the most appropriate approach?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange to review her or refer her to a specialist young person's clinic

      Explanation:

      Fraser Guidelines and Young People’s Competence to Consent to Contraceptive Advice or Treatment

      The Fraser guidelines provide a framework for assessing young people’s competence to consent to contraceptive advice or treatment. According to these guidelines, a young person is considered competent if they understand the doctor’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, are likely to start or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, are at risk of physical or mental harm without treatment, and require advice or treatment in their best interests without parental consent.

      However, there can be considerable differences in the maturity of teenagers seeking contraception, and it is important to consider whether the failure of the consultation is due to the doctor’s communication skills or the young person’s anxiety. For instance, a young person who is not sexually active may not understand the importance of contraception and may need education or counselling to help them make informed decisions about their sexual health.

      In such cases, a specialist young people’s service may be able to provide the necessary support, such as counselling, education, or youth work interventions, to help the young person understand the risks and benefits of contraception and make an informed decision about their sexual health. By providing young people with the information and support they need, healthcare professionals can help them make responsible choices about their sexual health and reduce the risk of physical and mental harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      0
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  • Question 19 - What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct statement regarding warfarin treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patients with minor bleeding and an INR greater than 8 should receive vitamin K1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Warfarin Therapy: Inhibiting Vitamin K Dependent Factors and Managing Bleeding

      Warfarin is a medication that competitively inhibits the carboxylation of vitamin K dependent factors, including factor II, VII, IX, X, and protein C. Its half-life is approximately 44 hours, and while it is present in breast milk, the amount is too small to have any clinical significance. Unlike heparin therapy, warfarin is less likely to cause autoimmune thrombocytopenia and osteoporosis as side-effects.

      However, it is important to monitor patients on warfarin therapy for major bleeding and an international normalized ratio (INR) greater than 8, with or without bleeding. In such cases, warfarin should be stopped and phytomenadione, a form of vitamin K, should be administered either intravenously or orally. The dose may be repeated after 24 hours if the INR remains high, and warfarin can be restarted once the INR falls below 5. If the INR is between 6-8 with no bleeding, warfarin can be temporarily stopped without the need for phytomenadione.

      In cases of major bleeding, dried prothrombin complex may also be necessary to replace factors II, VII, IX, and X. Understanding the mechanisms of warfarin therapy and proper management of bleeding can help ensure the safety and efficacy of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old man presents with an obvious broken nose and an inability to...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with an obvious broken nose and an inability to breathe through either nostril. Examination reveals a cherry-red swelling in both nasal airways.
      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Review immediately for examination under anaesthetic

      Explanation:

      This patient has a condition called septal hematoma, which can lead to a hole in the septum if not treated promptly. This happens because the hematoma restricts blood flow to the cartilage and can become infected. To diagnose this condition, a doctor will use a nasal speculum or otoscope to look for asymmetry and swelling in the septum. They may also need to feel the septum with a gloved finger. Septal hematoma is usually caused by significant facial trauma in adults, but even minor nasal trauma can cause it in children. If a child has this condition, it may be a sign of abuse. Immediate drainage under anesthesia is necessary to prevent long-term damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 21 - You review a 54-year-old man who has recently been discharged from the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 54-year-old man who has recently been discharged from the hospital after receiving thrombolysis for an acute inferior myocardial infarction (MI). He was relatively well post-infarct, and he is here to review his post- discharge medication.

      Other past medical history of note includes type 2 diabetes. Current treatment includes metformin 1g BD, aspirin 75 mg, atorvastatin 10 mg daily and ramipril 10 mg. On examination his BP is 155/92 mmHg, pulse is 75 and regular. His BMI is 29 kg/m2. There are bibasal crackles on auscultation of the chest.

      Investigations reveal:

      Hb 125 g/dL (135-180)

      WCC 5.2 ×109/L (4-10)

      PLT 231 ×109/L (150-400)

      Na 139 mmol/L (134-143)

      K 4.5 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)

      Cr 145 µmol/L (60-120)

      HbA1c 55 mmol/mol (20-46)

      7.2% (<5.5)

      Which of the following is true with respect to the management of his post-MI medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A thiazide diuretic is the most appropriate option for controlling his BP

      Explanation:

      Treatment Recommendations for Patients with Acute MI

      All patients who have experienced an acute MI should be offered a combination of medications, including an ACE inhibitor, beta blocker, aspirin, and statin. Calcium channel antagonists are not typically recommended unless a beta blocker is not tolerated.

      While the DIGAMI study initially suggested that transitioning to insulin therapy may be beneficial for patients with type 2 diabetes, subsequent research has shown a trend towards increased mortality with this treatment. Therefore, it is not routinely recommended.

      Thiazide and nicorandil have not shown convincing post-MI outcome data and may worsen insulin resistance. On the other hand, bisoprolol, a selective beta blocker, has demonstrated positive outcomes in patients with heart failure and hypertension, making it a sensible addition to post-MI therapy.

      In summary, a combination of ACE inhibitor, beta blocker, aspirin, and statin is recommended for all patients with acute MI, with caution advised when considering insulin therapy and thiazide or nicorandil use. Bisoprolol may be a beneficial addition for those with hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - You have diagnosed a 40-year-old accountant with diabetes mellitus, on the basis of...

    Incorrect

    • You have diagnosed a 40-year-old accountant with diabetes mellitus, on the basis of two fasting venous blood glucoses of 18 mmol/L and 16.5 mmol/L.

      You have commenced her on metformin with dietary advice. She is learning to drive and has just applied for her driving test.

      What advice should you give her as regards her requirements with respect to DVLA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She must inform DVLA if she suffers an episode of disabling hypoglycaemia within 12 months

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidelines for Drivers with Diabetes

      According to DVLA guidelines, patients with diabetes who are treated with tablets and/or diet do not need to inform DVLA if they are free from a list of complications. While patients can experience hypoglycaemia on metformin, it is typically the sulphonylureas that cause the most problems, especially in the elderly. It is important for GPs to be cautious in pursuing HbA1c targets to avoid hypoglycaemic episodes.

      The DVLA INF188/2 guidance outlines the list of complications that require patients to inform DVLA if they experience more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months. It is important to note that there is no difference between holding a provisional and a full driving licence for cars and motorcycles in terms of requirements to inform DVLA.

      It is important to distinguish between Group 1 entitlement (drivers of cars and motorcycles) and Group 2 entitlement (drivers of heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles such as buses). For Group 2 entitlement, all drivers diagnosed with diabetes mellitus must inform DVLA. By following these guidelines, drivers with diabetes can ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 23 - A 6-week-old boy is brought by mum for his routine check. Which one...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old boy is brought by mum for his routine check. Which one of the following is not part of the 6 week routine check?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cover test for squint

      Explanation:

      At this stage, a cover test is not necessary.

      The six-week baby examination is a crucial part of the Healthy Child Programme, which includes newborn screening elements such as physical examinations, blood spot tests, and hearing screens. This examination is usually conducted by a GP or other health professionals, and its purpose is to identify any potential issues that may not have been apparent during the initial hospital examination. The four key issues that are checked for during this examination are congenital heart disease, developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), congenital cataract, and undescended testes.

      During the examination, the baby’s weight and head circumference are measured and plotted onto a growth chart in the red book. The baby’s color, behavior, breathing, and skin are also checked for any abnormalities. The heart is examined for any murmurs or palpitations, and the femoral pulses are felt. If there are any concerns, a pediatrician should be consulted. DDH is checked for by looking for leg length differences or asymmetry of hip creases, and performing Barlows and Ortolani’s tests. The eyes are checked for congenital cataract, and any concerns should be referred for a same-day ophthalmology assessment. The testes are checked for by feeling the scrotum, and any concerns should be referred for a same-day pediatric assessment.

      Aside from the physical examination, this is also an opportunity to address any concerns from the parents, such as feeding or growth, and provide health promotion advice, such as immunizations or smoking cessation. The mother should also be screened for postnatal depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 24 - A 16-year-old secretary presents to you with an increased dry cough and an...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old secretary presents to you with an increased dry cough and an intermittently wheezy chest at night, eight weeks after seeing the respiratory nurse at the surgery. She reports no fevers and no difficulties in breathing. Currently, she is taking Fostair (Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg) combination inhaler, 1 puff twice daily, and salbutamol as needed for shortness of breath. Previously, she was using Clenil (Beclomethasone 100 mcg), but feels that the new inhaler has helped slightly since her last appointment with the nurse. According to the latest SIGN/BTS guidance, what would be the next step in managing her asthma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase the Fostair to two puffs twice daily

      Explanation:

      Managing Chronic Asthma in Adults

      When managing chronic asthma in adults, it is important to consider the patient’s current treatment plan and symptoms. In this scenario, the patient is already taking a combination inhaler and is experiencing suboptimal control of her asthma. It is important to note that this is not an acute attack and the children’s guidelines do not apply. Antibiotics are not recommended as the symptoms are not consistent with an infective exacerbation. Increasing the usage of salbutamol is also not recommended as the patient needs better overall control of her symptoms. Instead, the dose of the inhaled corticosteroid should be increased, which is in line with the next step in the treatment of asthma in adults according to the British Thoracic Society guidelines. It is important for healthcare professionals to be familiar with both SIGN and NICE guidance and be able to compare and contrast their advice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 25 - An 80-year-old woman complains of vision loss in her left eye accompanied by...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman complains of vision loss in her left eye accompanied by frontal headaches and lethargy for the past two weeks. During examination, her left eye shows only hand movements while her right eye has a visual acuity of 6/9. Fundoscopy of the left eye reveals an oedematous and pale optic disc. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual has developed left-sided anterior ischemic optic neuropathy.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
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  • Question 26 - You are asked to see a 3-day-old newborn baby who was born by...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a 3-day-old newborn baby who was born by normal vaginal delivery without any complications. The parents report that the baby has suddenly become ill and deteriorated over the last few hours. The child is drowsy and lethargic, has a bulging fontanelle, and a high fever. You suspect meningitis and call for immediate transfer to the hospital.
      What is the most probable causative agent for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Group B Streptococcus

      Explanation:

      Newborn Meningitis: Signs, Causes, and Consequences

      Sepsis in newborns can cause nonspecific signs of unwellness, such as apnoeic episodes, drowsiness, lethargy, and irritability. However, meningitis in newborns may present differently, with a bulging fontanelle being a late and sometimes absent finding. The most common cause of meningitis in newborns is group B streptococcus (GBS), which is often transmitted vertically during labor and delivery. In some cases, infection may be delayed for up to one month.

      Meningitis as a whole has significant morbidity and mortality rates, with a mortality rate of 5-15% in infants. Even those who survive may experience learning difficulties, speech problems, visual impairment, and neural deafness. Recently, NICE has issued guidance on the prehospital care of patients with a clinical diagnosis of meningitis. It is crucial to recognize the signs of meningitis in newborns and seek prompt medical attention to prevent severe consequences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 27 - A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old gentleman is seen for review. He had a myocardial infarction 10 months ago and was started on atorvastatin 80 mg daily. His latest lipid profile shows that he has not managed to reduce his non-HDL cholesterol by 40%.

      Which of the following is the most appropriate 'add-on' treatment to be considered at this stage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ezetimibe

      Explanation:

      Add-on Therapy for Non-HDL Reduction with Statin Therapy

      NICE guidance suggests that if the target non-HDL reduction is not achieved with statin therapy, the addition of ezetimibe can be considered. However, other options such as bile acid sequestrants, fibrates, nicotinic acid, or omega-3 fatty acid compounds should not be recommended as add-on therapy in this situation. NICE guidelines specifically state that the combination of these drugs with a statin for the primary or secondary prevention of CVD should not be offered. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 28 - A 58-year-old man presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic after...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the rapid access transient ischaemic attack clinic after experiencing three episodes of transient left-sided weakness in the past two weeks. What advice should be given regarding driving?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cannot drive for 3 months

      Explanation:

      DVLA guidance following multiple TIAs: driving prohibited for a period of 3 months.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the clinic with complaints of constant fatigue,...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the clinic with complaints of constant fatigue, joint pains, and stiffness in her hands and feet, which are worse in the morning. She also reports a new rash on both cheeks.

      Upon examination, there are no abnormalities in her respiratory, cardiovascular, or gastrointestinal systems, and her vital signs are normal. Although there is no joint swelling, there is mild tenderness in the metacarpo-phalangeal joints of both hands and metatarso-phalangeal joints of both feet. Additionally, she has a mildly erythematous papular rash on both cheeks.

      To rule out systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which blood test would be the most helpful?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive and useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%) but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%) but has a lower sensitivity (30%). Other antibody tests that can be used include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, and a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Overall, these investigations can help diagnose and monitor SLE, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 30 - In which scenario will skin-prick allergy testing be most valuable? ...

    Incorrect

    • In which scenario will skin-prick allergy testing be most valuable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A 2-year-old boy whose mother says he is allergic to milk, eggs and fish.

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing

      When dealing with a potential case of food allergy or intolerance, it is crucial to gather a detailed symptom history to identify possible allergens and determine if the reaction is IgE-mediated, which could lead to anaphylaxis. Symptoms such as acute urticaria, nausea, vomiting, abdominal colic, rhinorrhea, itchy eyes, or bronchospasm with a temporal relationship to the offending item may suggest an IgE-mediated reaction. However, it is important to note that many people attribute symptoms to food that are not actually caused by it.

      To support or refute the mother’s suspicions, a skin-prick test and/or blood tests for specific IgE antibodies to the suspected foods can be performed in conjunction with the symptom history. However, it is essential to remember that there have been cases of systemic reactions and anaphylaxis in food allergen skin testing, so referral is necessary in most cases.

      Hay fever is typically diagnosed clinically, so a skin-prick test is unnecessary. Acute urticaria usually resolves within six weeks, so testing is also unnecessary unless the patient can identify a possible trigger. Skin-prick testing is not typically performed on asthmatics unless there is a likely precipitant that could be eliminated. For hairdressers, who are prone to both irritant and allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing would be appropriate for diagnosing delayed hypersensitivity.

      Diagnosing Food Allergies and Intolerances: Importance of Symptom History and Testing

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Eyes And Vision (0/1) 0%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Children And Young People (0/3) 0%
Consulting In General Practice (0/2) 0%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular Health (2/4) 50%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (1/2) 50%
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