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  • Question 1 - A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are concerned because he wets his bed every night. A urine culture is normal; urine is negative for glucose and protein.
      What would be the most appropriate approach to managing this child's bedwetting?

      Your Answer: Reassurance to parents with general advice

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common issue among children. While it can sometimes be caused by an underlying medical condition, such as a urinary tract infection or diabetes, in most cases it is simply a developmental issue that will resolve on its own over time.

      Parents should have their child tested for any potential medical causes, but if none are found, they can take comfort in knowing that bedwetting is a normal part of childhood for many kids. Treatment is generally not recommended until a child is at least five years old, and even then, simple interventions like star charts and enuresis alarms can be effective in motivated children.

      It’s also important to consider any potential psychological issues that may be contributing to the problem. Parents should ask their child about their school and home life, and try to speak to them without the presence of the parents if possible. Sometimes, stress or anxiety can be a factor in bedwetting.

      If short-term relief is necessary, medications like desmopressin nasal spray can be prescribed for children over five years old. However, prophylactic antibiotics and oral imipramine are not recommended for this condition. Referral to a specialist for an ultrasound scan is also not necessary unless there is an indication of infection or structural abnormality.

      Overall, parents should take comfort in knowing that bedwetting is a common issue that many children experience, and that there are effective interventions available to help manage it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.8
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  • Question 2 - A 50-year-old man experiences polytrauma and necessitates a massive transfusion of packed red...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man experiences polytrauma and necessitates a massive transfusion of packed red cells and fresh frozen plasma. After three hours, he presents with significant hypoxia and a CVP reading of 5 mmHg. A chest x-ray reveals diffuse pulmonary infiltrates in both lungs. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fluid overload

      Correct Answer: Transfusion associated lung injury

      Explanation:

      Plasma components pose the highest risk for transfusion associated lung injury.

      When plasma components are infused, there is a possibility of transfusion lung injury. This can cause damage to the microvasculature in the lungs, resulting in diffuse infiltrates visible on imaging. Unfortunately, mortality rates are often high in such cases. It is worth noting that a normal central venous pressure (which should be between 0-6 mmHg) is not necessarily indicative of fluid overload.

      Understanding Massive Haemorrhage and its Complications

      Massive haemorrhage is defined as the loss of one blood volume within 24 hours, the loss of 50% of the circulating blood volume within three hours, or a blood loss of 150ml/minute. In adults, the blood volume is approximately 7% of the total body weight, while in children, it is between 8 and 9% of their body weight.

      Massive haemorrhage can lead to several complications, including hypothermia, hypocalcaemia, hyperkalaemia, delayed type transfusion reactions, transfusion-related lung injury, and coagulopathy. Hypothermia occurs because the blood is refrigerated, which impairs homeostasis and shifts the Bohr curve to the left. Hypocalcaemia may occur because both fresh frozen plasma (FFP) and platelets contain citrate anticoagulant, which may chelate calcium. Hyperkalaemia may also occur because the plasma of red cells stored for 4-5 weeks contains 5-10 mmol K+.

      Delayed type transfusion reactions may occur due to minor incompatibility issues, especially if urgent or non-cross-matched blood is used. Transfusion-related lung injury is the leading cause of transfusion-related deaths and poses the greatest risk with plasma components. It occurs as a result of leucocyte antibodies in transfused plasma, leading to aggregation and degranulation of leucocytes in lung tissue. Finally, coagulopathy is anticipated once the circulating blood volume is transfused. One blood volume usually drops the platelet count to 100 or less, and it will both dilute and not replace clotting factors. The fibrinogen concentration halves per 0.75 blood volume transfused.

      In summary, massive haemorrhage can lead to several complications that can be life-threatening. It is essential to understand these complications to manage them effectively and prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      56.1
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  • Question 3 - A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home on the floor by her daughter. Her daughter tried to rouse her but had no response. She has a laceration to her head and her daughter believes she may have had a fall. You notice she has a sudden decrease in consciousness in the department. You are unable to get the patient to make any vocalisation. When you apply supraorbital pressure, she briefly opens her eyes and withdraws from the pain.
      Which one of the following is the best immediate management option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Referral to the neurosurgical registrar

      Correct Answer: Insert Guedel airway

      Explanation:

      Management of a Patient with Low Glasgow Coma Scale Score

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in patients. A patient with a GCS score below 8 requires urgent referral to critical care or the anaesthetist on-call for appropriate management. In this case, the patient has a GCS score of 7 (E2, V1, M4) and needs immediate attention.

      Airway management is the top priority in patients with a low GCS score. The patient may need invasive ventilation if they lose the capacity to maintain their own airway. Once the airway is secured, a referral to the neurosurgical registrar may be necessary, and investigations such as a CT brain scan should be carried out to determine the cause of the low GCS score.

      A neurological observation chart is also needed to detect any deteriorating central nervous system function. A medication review can be done once the patient is stabilised and an intracranial bleed has been ruled out. This will help identify medications that could cause a fall and stop unnecessary medication.

      In summary, a patient with a low GCS score requires urgent attention to secure their airway, determine the cause of the low score, and monitor for any neurological deterioration. A medication review can be done once the patient is stable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      130.1
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  • Question 4 - A mother brings her 9-month-old son Henry to the Emergency Department (ED) at...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 9-month-old son Henry to the Emergency Department (ED) at 0700 h. She is very concerned. She reports that he has been crying all night. She has two older children: a 4-year-old daughter Allison and a 2-year-old son James, who are both well. Henry was born at 40+1 weeks by normal vaginal delivery. She developed gestational diabetes, but there were no other complications during the pregnancy or birth. Henry has had all his vaccinations. He was breastfed until 6 months old, then bottle-fed. Mother reports that he has been crying non-stop since 0400 h this morning. She tried to feed him, but he vomited twice, minutes after the feed. The first vomit contained food only, the second time it was greenish. Mom has not noticed a change in faeces or urine, except that she has not had to change his nappies since last night. On examination: crying, warm and well perfused, heart rate 150 beats per minute (bpm), abdomen appears distended with tinkling bowel sounds. When you look in his nappies, you notice his stools look like redcurrant jelly.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Bowel Obstruction in Children

      Bowel obstruction in children can be caused by various conditions, each with its own distinct features and treatment options. Here are some of the most common causes of bowel obstruction in children:

      1. Intussusception: This occurs when one segment of the bowel telescopes into another segment, leading to obstruction. It is most common in children aged 6-9 months and may be idiopathic or viral in origin. Symptoms include bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, tinkling bowel sounds, and redcurrant jelly stools. Air enema is the preferred treatment.

      2. Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis: This is a gastric outlet obstruction that typically presents at around 3 weeks of life. It is caused by hypertrophy of the pylorus and leads to non-bilious projectile vomiting and a palpable olive mass in the epigastric region. Surgical excision is the treatment of choice.

      3. Meconium obstruction: This occurs only in newborns and is characterized by failure to pass meconium, bilious vomiting, and abdominal distension. It is more common in babies with cystic fibrosis. Diagnosis can be made prenatally or shortly after birth, and treatment involves radiographic contrast enema or surgery.

      4. Ileus: This is aperistaltic bowel caused by factors such as abdominal surgery, electrolyte disturbances, or infection. It presents similarly to mechanical obstruction but is unlikely to be the cause if the child was previously well and has not had recent surgery.

      5. Duodenal atresia: This is a type of bowel obstruction that occurs only in neonates and is associated with Down’s syndrome. It leads to bilious vomiting and proximal stomach distension soon after birth, and a double bubble sign on X-ray. It is caused by failure of recanalization of small bowel in early fetal life. Treatment involves surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      52
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What factors are linked to a favorable outcome in rheumatoid arthritis prognosis, particularly...

    Incorrect

    • What factors are linked to a favorable outcome in rheumatoid arthritis prognosis, particularly in younger patients?

      Your Answer: Anti-CCP antibodies

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid factor negative

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Features of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      A number of factors have been identified as predictors of a poor prognosis in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. These include being rheumatoid factor positive, having anti-CCP antibodies, presenting with poor functional status, showing early erosions on X-rays, having extra-articular features such as nodules, possessing the HLA DR4 gene, and experiencing an insidious onset. While there is some discrepancy regarding the association between gender and prognosis, both the American College of Rheumatology and the recent NICE guidelines suggest that female gender is linked to a poorer prognosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these prognostic features in order to provide appropriate management and support for patients with rheumatoid arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.2
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old male presents with complaints of fatigue, excessive thirst, and frequent urination...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male presents with complaints of fatigue, excessive thirst, and frequent urination despite normal blood sugar levels. Upon examination, the following results are obtained:

      - Serum sodium: 135 mmol/L (133-144)
      - Serum urea: 5.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Serum creatinine: 100 μmol/L (50-100)
      - Serum calcium: 2.78 mmol/L (2.20 - 2.60)
      - Serum albumin: 28 g/L (35-50)
      - Corrected calcium: 3.02 mmol/L (2.20-2.60)
      - Serum phosphate: 0.87 mmol/L (0.80 - 1.45)
      - Serum alk phosphatase: 117 IU/L (30-115)
      - Serum asp transaminase: 39 I U/L (5-45)
      - Serum bilirubin: 8 umol/L (1-17)

      What further investigation would you recommend?

      Your Answer: PTH

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia and Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition characterized by high levels of calcium in the blood. While there are several possible causes of hypercalcaemia, primary hyperparathyroidism is the most likely diagnosis for a patient with a long history of the condition, no weight loss, and no respiratory symptoms. Although other conditions can also cause hypercalcaemia, these factors make them less likely in this case. Primary hyperparathyroidism is a relatively common condition, affecting up to 1% of elderly individuals. Symptoms can include renal calculi, depression, bone pain, and abdominal pain from peptic ulceration. Hypertension is also a common feature of this condition. Overall, primary hyperparathyroidism should be considered as a potential cause of hypercalcaemia in patients with these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      67.4
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  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the hospital following a fall. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the hospital following a fall. He reports feeling increasingly dizzy when moving around his apartment, but denies losing consciousness. He has a medical history of heart failure, hypertension, and type 2 diabetes. His medications were recently adjusted by the hospital clinic and include bendroflumethiazide, aspirin, ramipril, gliclazide, furosemide, simvastatin, and a newly prescribed doxazosin. What single observation would aid in establishing his diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lying and standing blood pressures

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced Postural Hypotension

      Drug-induced postural hypotension is a condition that can occur as a side effect of antihypertensive therapy, especially with the use of alpha-blockers. This condition is characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up, which can cause dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. In this case, the recent introduction of doxazosin is a clue that this patient may be experiencing drug-induced postural hypotension. It is important to monitor patients closely when starting new medications and to be aware of the potential side effects, especially those related to blood pressure regulation. Healthcare providers should also educate patients on the signs and symptoms of postural hypotension and advise them to report any changes in their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 5-month history of mild...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents to your clinic with a 5-month history of mild right iliac fossa discomfort. He denies any changes in his bowel movements, has not noticed any blood in his stools, and has not experienced any weight loss. During the physical examination, you note mild tenderness in the right iliac fossa, but there are no masses, and his abdomen is otherwise soft. You order some blood tests, and the results are as follows:

      - Hb: 140 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 250 * 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC: 6.0 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Ferritin: 15 ng/mL (20-230)

      What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Organise a faecal immunochemical test (FIT) stool sample

      Explanation:

      For patients who exhibit new symptoms that may indicate colorectal cancer but do not meet the criteria for urgent referral within two weeks, a FIT test is recommended. In this case, the patient’s iron deficiency and abdominal pain require further investigation, despite the absence of red flag symptoms. A FIT test may be requested for patients over 50 with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, those under 60 with changes in bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, and those over 60 with anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. If the FIT test is positive, the patient should be referred for suspected lower GI cancer on the 2-week wait pathway. Safety-netting advice is important, but it is crucial to investigate the cause of the iron deficiency and abdominal pain to avoid missing a significant diagnosis. While iron supplementation may be prescribed, it should not be done without first investigating the cause of the iron deficiency, as this could lead to a missed cancer diagnosis. The patient’s symptoms do not align with diverticulitis, which typically presents with left iliac fossa pain, diarrhea, and fever over a few days. A 4-month history of right iliac fossa pain is unlikely to be diverticulitis, and antibiotics are unlikely to be effective and may even worsen the situation.

      Referral Guidelines for Colorectal Cancer

      Colorectal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. In 2015, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their referral guidelines for patients suspected of having colorectal cancer. According to these guidelines, patients who are 40 years or older with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain, 50 years or older with unexplained rectal bleeding, or 60 years or older with iron deficiency anemia or change in bowel habit should be referred urgently to colorectal services for investigation. Additionally, patients who test positive for occult blood in their feces should also be referred urgently.

      An urgent referral should also be considered for patients who have a rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, or are under 50 years old with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms/findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss, or iron deficiency anemia.

      The NHS offers a national screening program for colorectal cancer, which involves sending eligible patients aged 60 to 74 years in England and 50 to 74 years in Scotland FIT tests through the post. FIT is a type of fecal occult blood test that uses antibodies to detect and quantify the amount of human blood in a single stool sample. Patients with abnormal results are offered a colonoscopy.

      The FIT test is also recommended for patients with new symptoms who do not meet the 2-week criteria listed above. For example, patients who are 50 years or older with unexplained abdominal pain or weight loss, under 60 years old with changes in their bowel habit or iron deficiency anemia, or 60 years or older who have anemia even in the absence of iron deficiency. Early detection and treatment of colorectal cancer can significantly improve patient outcomes, making it important to follow these referral guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old man is admitted to an acute psychiatric unit with sudden onset...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted to an acute psychiatric unit with sudden onset of agitation and psychosis. He has a history of schizophrenia with a fluctuating course. To alleviate his symptoms, he is given a one-time intramuscular injection of 50 mg chlorpromazine. What is the primary pharmacological effect of chlorpromazine in managing psychosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dopaminergic blockade in the mesolimbic system

      Explanation:

      Chlorpromazine is a typical antipsychotic drug that acts on many neurotransmitter systems, but it’s antipsychotic properties come from its action on dopaminergic neurotransmission in the mesolimbic system. However, blocking dopamine transmission can also cause extrapyramidal side effects of movement and hyperprolactinemia. The drug’s anticholinergic actions cause dry mouth, urinary retention, palpitations, tachycardia, abnormal dreams, and hypotension. Inhibition of serotonergic neurotransmission can attenuate the anticholinergic side effects and inhibit aggressive tendencies and anxiety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 10 - A 70-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a burning sensation in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a burning sensation in his right leg while walking. The pain occurs only during physical activity and subsides with rest. He has a medical history of hypertension and has suffered two heart attacks in the past. He is currently taking ramipril, amlodipine, aspirin, and atorvastatin. He is a former smoker with a 20-pack-year history. An ECG reveals a normal sinus rhythm, and the ankle-brachial pressure index in his right leg is 0.67. What is the most appropriate initial recommendation for this patient, given the most likely diagnosis, after advising him to quit smoking and optimizing his hypertension management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exercise training

      Explanation:

      Peripheral arterial disease can be improved with exercise training, which has been shown to be beneficial. In addition to lifestyle modifications such as weight loss, smoking cessation, and diet, patients should be referred to smoking cessation services and have their comorbidities managed. Aspirin is already being taken by this patient due to a previous myocardial infarction. Naftidrofuryl oxalate is a vasodilator drug used in the treatment of peripheral arterial disease, but exercise training should be recommended first. Angioplasty is a treatment for severe peripheral arterial disease or critical limb ischaemia, which is not applicable to this patient with an ABPI of 0.67 suggesting intermittent claudication. Amputation is a last resort for irreversible limb ischaemia. Bypass surgery is another potential treatment for critical limb ischaemia, but surgical options would only be considered if conservative management, such as exercise training, failed.

      Peripheral arterial disease (PAD) is a condition that is strongly associated with smoking. Therefore, patients who still smoke should be provided with assistance to quit smoking. It is also important to treat any comorbidities that the patient may have, such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and obesity. All patients with established cardiovascular disease, including PAD, should be taking a statin, with Atorvastatin 80 mg being the recommended dosage. In 2010, NICE published guidance recommending the use of clopidogrel as the first-line treatment for PAD patients instead of aspirin. Exercise training has also been shown to have significant benefits, and NICE recommends a supervised exercise program for all PAD patients before other interventions.

      For severe PAD or critical limb ischaemia, there are several treatment options available. Endovascular revascularization and percutaneous transluminal angioplasty with or without stent placement are typically used for short segment stenosis, aortic iliac disease, and high-risk patients. On the other hand, surgical revascularization, surgical bypass with an autologous vein or prosthetic material, and endarterectomy are typically used for long segment lesions, multifocal lesions, lesions of the common femoral artery, and purely infrapopliteal disease. Amputation should only be considered for patients with critical limb ischaemia who are not suitable for other interventions such as angioplasty or bypass surgery.

      There are also drugs licensed for use in PAD, including naftidrofuryl oxalate, a vasodilator sometimes used for patients with a poor quality of life. Cilostazol, a phosphodiesterase III inhibitor with both antiplatelet and vasodilator effects, is not recommended by NICE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old woman reports experiencing painful tingling in her fingers and relief when...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman reports experiencing painful tingling in her fingers and relief when hanging her arm over the side of the bed. She also has a positive Tinel's sign. What is the most probable factor contributing to her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Explanation:

      The patient has been diagnosed with carpal tunnel syndrome, which is often caused by rheumatological disorders. During the clinical examination, it is important to look for signs of rheumatoid arthritis, such as rheumatoid nodules, vasculitic lesions, and arthritis in the metacarpophalangeal joints.

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

      Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. Patients with this condition typically experience pain or pins and needles in their thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even ascend proximally. Patients often shake their hand to obtain relief, especially at night.

      During an examination, doctors may observe weakness of thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence (not the hypothenar). Tapping on the affected area may cause paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist may also cause symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Carpal tunnel syndrome can be caused by a variety of factors, including idiopathic reasons, pregnancy, oedema (such as heart failure), lunate fracture, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may show prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves.

      Treatment for carpal tunnel syndrome may include a 6-week trial of conservative treatments, such as corticosteroid injections and wrist splints at night. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression (flexor retinaculum division) may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling on his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after falling on his left hip. Upon examination, he is experiencing difficulty walking, tenderness around his left greater trochanter, and his left leg is externally rotated and shortened. He has a medical history of osteoporosis, hypertension, and hypothyroidism. However, he is able to move around without any assistance. An X-ray reveals a subtrochanteric femoral fracture, which is treated with an intramedullary nail. What advice should he be given regarding weight-bearing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight-bear immediately after the operation as tolerated

      Explanation:

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 13 - A 40-year-old man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of worsening shortness of breath. He also has a fever and mentions the presence of a non-productive cough which has been getting worse over the past week.
      On examination, the patient is febrile with a temperature of 38.2 oC, pulse is 92 bpm and regular, and his blood pressure is 110/85 mmHg.
      The patient seems breathless at rest, with an oxygen saturation of 96% in room air. However, a chest examination reveals no abnormalities. The examining doctor orders tests, including a CD4 count, arterial blood gases (ABGs), and a chest X-ray; she lists Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP) as one of the possible differential diagnoses.
      With regard to PJP, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can be successfully treated with co-trimoxazole

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pneumocystis Jirovecii Pneumonia (PJP)

      Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP) is a fungal infection that primarily affects individuals with weakened immune systems. It is commonly seen in HIV patients with a CD4 count of less than 200, but can also occur in other immunosuppressive states. Symptoms include fever, dry cough, and progressive shortness of breath. Diagnosis can be challenging, and a high level of suspicion is required. While an abnormal chest radiograph is present in 90% of patients, blood culture is not a reliable diagnostic tool as pneumocystis cannot be cultured. Treatment involves the use of co-trimoxazole or pentamidine. Prophylaxis against PJP is recommended when CD4 counts fall below 200 cells/µl. It is important to note that while PJP is more common in HIV patients, it can also occur in individuals with other immunocompromising conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old man with a history of alcohol misuse disorder presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with a history of alcohol misuse disorder presents to the Emergency Department complaining of vomiting and abdominal pain. He reports that the pain has been present for six hours and is focused in the epigastric region, with radiation to the back. The following blood test results were obtained:
      - WBC: 18.2 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0 - 11.0)
      - Albumin: 26 g/L (normal range: 35 - 50)
      - Calcium: 1.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.0-2.5)
      - Glucose: 14 mmol/L
      - Amylase: 2000 U/L (normal range: 30-118)

      What is the most accurate statement regarding the usefulness of measuring serum amylase in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is useful for diagnosis only

      Explanation:

      Although amylase is useful in diagnosing acute pancreatitis, it does not provide any prognostic information. Therefore, it is only useful for diagnosis. In this patient’s case, his symptoms, history of alcohol excess, and significantly elevated serum amylase strongly support a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. However, cross-sectional imaging may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that serum lipase is a more sensitive and specific diagnostic test for acute pancreatitis, particularly in cases of alcohol-induced pancreatitis.

      Understanding Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by alcohol or gallstones. It occurs when the pancreatic enzymes start to digest the pancreatic tissue, leading to necrosis. The main symptom of acute pancreatitis is severe epigastric pain that may radiate through to the back. Vomiting is also common, and examination may reveal epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. In rare cases, periumbilical discolouration (Cullen’s sign) and flank discolouration (Grey-Turner’s sign) may be present.

      To diagnose acute pancreatitis, doctors typically measure the levels of serum amylase and lipase in the blood. While amylase is raised in 75% of patients, it does not correlate with disease severity. Lipase, on the other hand, is more sensitive and specific than amylase and has a longer half-life. Imaging tests, such as ultrasound and contrast-enhanced CT, may also be used to assess the aetiology of the condition.

      Scoring systems, such as the Ranson score, Glasgow score, and APACHE II, are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that may require intensive care management. Factors that indicate severe pancreatitis include age over 55 years, hypocalcaemia, hyperglycaemia, hypoxia, neutrophilia, and elevated LDH and AST. It is important to note that the actual amylase level is not of prognostic value.

      In summary, acute pancreatitis is a condition that can cause severe pain and discomfort. It is typically caused by alcohol or gallstones and can be diagnosed through blood tests and imaging. Scoring systems are used to identify cases of severe pancreatitis that require intensive care management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 15 - A 14-month old toddler is brought to the pediatrician by his father, who...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month old toddler is brought to the pediatrician by his father, who is worried about his child's decreased appetite and mouth ulcers for the past three days. During the examination, a few blisters are observed on the soles of his feet. Vital signs indicate a temperature of 37.8ºC, heart rate of 125/min, respiratory rate of 28/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% in room air.

      The father reports that his child was born at full term through a normal delivery, is following the growth chart appropriately, and has received all the recommended vaccinations. What is the most probable cause of the child's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie A16

      Explanation:

      The child’s symptoms are indicative of hand, foot and mouth disease, which is caused by Coxsackie A16. The condition is characterized by mild systemic discomfort, oral ulcers, and vesicles on the palms and soles. It typically resolves on its own within 7 to 10 days, and the child may find relief from any pain by taking over-the-counter analgesics. Over-the-counter oral numbing sprays may also help alleviate sore throat symptoms. Kawasaki disease, on the other hand, is associated with a higher fever than what this child is experiencing, as well as some distinct features that can be recalled using the mnemonic ‘CRASH and burn’. These include conjunctivitis (bilateral), non-vesicular rash, cervical adenopathy, swollen strawberry tongue, and hand or foot swelling, along with a fever that lasts for more than 5 days and is very high.

      Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children

      Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries. The symptoms of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, as well as oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.

      Symptomatic treatment is the only management option for hand, foot and mouth disease. This includes general advice about hydration and analgesia, as well as reassurance that there is no link to disease in cattle. Children do not need to be excluded from school, but the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should be kept off school until they feel better. If there is a suspected large outbreak, it is advised to contact the Health Protection Agency for further guidance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 67-year-old man with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He reports occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground, but is otherwise feeling well. He admits to smoking five cigarettes a day. During the exam, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological exam is normal and his fundi appear normal. However, examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent feet pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He is started on antihypertensive therapy and his U+Es are measured over a two-week period, with the following results:

      Baseline:
      Sodium - 138 mmol/L
      Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
      Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 138 µmol/L

      2 weeks later:
      Sodium - 140 mmol/L
      Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
      Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
      Creatinine - 310 µmol/L

      Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy

      Explanation:

      Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors

      This individual with diabetes is experiencing hypertension and arteriopathy, as indicated by mild claudication symptoms and absent pulses in the feet. These factors, combined with macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment, suggest a potential diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS). The introduction of an antihypertensive medication, specifically an ACE inhibitor, resulted in a decline in renal function, further supporting the possibility of RAS. In RAS, hypertension occurs due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in an attempt to maintain renal perfusion. However, ACE inhibition can lead to relative renal ischemia, exacerbating the condition. This highlights the importance of considering RAS as a potential cause of hypertension and carefully monitoring the use of ACE inhibitors in individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
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  • Question 17 - Linda, a 55-year-old woman with COPD and a 45-pack-year history, recently underwent a...

    Incorrect

    • Linda, a 55-year-old woman with COPD and a 45-pack-year history, recently underwent a hysterectomy for uterine fibroids. She received standard anesthesia induction with propofol and rocuronium, and maintenance with sevoflurane. During her postoperative recovery, she experienced apnea upon extubation and required a prolonged stay in the ICU until she could be weaned off the ventilator. Upon further questioning by the ICU doctor, Linda revealed that she had been experiencing double vision and weakness in her hands and fingers, which worsened throughout the day. She had attributed these symptoms to fatigue. What is the most likely cause of her prolonged reliance on the ventilator?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Myasthenia gravis patients have a heightened sensitivity to non-depolarising agents, such as rocuronium, due to a reduction in available nicotinic acetylcholine receptors caused by autoimmune-mediated destruction. This is in contrast to suxamethonium, which acts on these receptors to produce paralysis. While COPD and heavy smoking can complicate anaesthesia, they are unlikely to cause prolonged paralysis. Sevoflurane is an anaesthetic maintenance agent that does not cause paralysis. Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome patients are also more susceptible to non-depolarising agents, but the symptoms experienced by Doris are not consistent with this condition, which typically involves weakness in the proximal muscles that improves with use.

      Overview of Commonly Used IV Induction Agents

      Propofol, sodium thiopentone, ketamine, and etomidate are some of the commonly used IV induction agents in anesthesia. Propofol is a GABA receptor agonist that has a rapid onset of anesthesia but may cause pain on IV injection. It is widely used for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anesthesia, and daycase surgery. Sodium thiopentone has an extremely rapid onset of action, making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence induction. However, it may cause marked myocardial depression and metabolites build up quickly, making it unsuitable for maintenance infusion. Ketamine, an NMDA receptor antagonist, has moderate to strong analgesic properties and produces little myocardial depression, making it a suitable agent for anesthesia in those who are hemodynamically unstable. However, it may induce a state of dissociative anesthesia resulting in nightmares. Etomidate has a favorable cardiac safety profile with very little hemodynamic instability but has no analgesic properties and is unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged use may result in adrenal suppression. Postoperative vomiting is common with etomidate.

      Overall, each of these IV induction agents has specific features that make them suitable for different situations. Anesthesiologists must carefully consider the patient’s medical history, current condition, and the type of surgery being performed when selecting an appropriate induction agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 18 - Based on the most recent guidance regarding cosmetic surgery from the General Medical...

    Incorrect

    • Based on the most recent guidance regarding cosmetic surgery from the General Medical Council, (GMC), which of the following statements is true if we consider the latest age criteria?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The person undertaking the procedure must not delegate the responsibility of discussing it with the patient and seeking their consent

      Explanation:

      Understanding GMC Guidelines for Cosmetic Procedures

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has provided guidelines for cosmetic procedures that must be followed by all medical professionals. It is important to understand these guidelines, even as a junior doctor, as you may be asked to be involved in cosmetic procedures.

      Firstly, the person performing the procedure must be the one to discuss it with the patient and obtain their consent. Consent must be obtained by someone with the experience to perform the procedure and answer any questions the patient may have. For cosmetic procedures, the doctor performing the procedure must seek consent themselves.

      While cosmetic procedures can be performed on patients under 18 years old, certain conditions must be met. The procedure must be in the best interest of the child, the environment must be suitable for young people, and advertising must not target children directly.

      It is important to discuss the procedure with the patient’s GP, but only with the patient’s consent. If the patient does not want their GP involved, this must be recorded in the notes and the surgeon should consider whether the procedure should still go ahead.

      Cosmetic services must not be provided as a prize, according to the GMC guidelines. Injectable cosmetic medicines, such as Botox, cannot be prescribed by telephone. A physical examination of the patient must be carried out before prescribing these medicines.

      In conclusion, understanding the GMC guidelines for cosmetic procedures is crucial for all medical professionals. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and well-being of patients undergoing cosmetic procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ethics And Legal
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  • Question 19 - A 10-year-old child presented with headaches, vomiting and a staggering gait. A cerebellar...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old child presented with headaches, vomiting and a staggering gait. A cerebellar neoplasm was identified.
      What is the most frequent cerebellar neoplasm in childhood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Astrocytoma

      Explanation:

      Overview of Common Brain Tumors in Children and Adults

      Brain tumors can occur in both children and adults, and they can be benign or malignant. Here are some of the most common types of brain tumors:

      Cerebellar Astrocytoma: This is a type of glioma that originates from astrocytes, a type of glial cell. It is most commonly found in children and can be benign or malignant. Symptoms include headache, vomiting, and gait disturbances. Diagnosis is made through imaging tests such as CT or MRI scans, and treatment may include radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery.

      Glioblastoma Multiforme: This is the most common intracranial tumor in adults and is an aggressive astrocytoma with a poor prognosis. It is resistant to therapy, making treatment difficult.

      Ependymoma: This is a glial tumor that arises within the ventricular system or spinal cord. It is the second most common type of pediatric intracranial tumor and is most commonly found in the posterior intracranial fossa. Symptoms depend on the location of the tumor and may include headache, lethargy, nausea, vomiting, nerve palsies, and cerebellar symptoms. Treatment may include surgery and radiotherapy.

      Neuroblastoma: This is the most common extracranial tumor in children and is most commonly found in the adrenal glands. Symptoms may include abdominal pain, vomiting, and fatigue. Treatment may include surgery.

      Oligodendroglioma: This type of tumor arises in the cerebral white matter and is most commonly found in middle-aged patients. It is rare in children, accounting for only 6% of intracranial pediatric tumors.

      In conclusion, brain tumors can present with a variety of symptoms and require prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 20 - A 65-year-old woman is recovering on the ward following a laparoscopic left hemi-colectomy...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman is recovering on the ward following a laparoscopic left hemi-colectomy and primary anastomosis for a Duke's B adenocarcinoma of the colon. You are asked to see her three days postoperatively due to a heart rate of 105 bpm and a blood pressure of 96/74 mmHg.

      On examination, she has a temperature of 37.2ºC, her respiratory rate is 20 per minute and her saturations are 99% on air. She has a distended abdomen which is tense and tender but without guarding, her chest is clear and her operative wounds look clean and healthy. She is not feeling nauseated and she has not opened her bowels since before her operation or passed wind but she is starting to sip clear fluids. Her fluid balance chart shows a net positive fluid balance since surgery. Prior to surgery, she had normal renal function and a blood test now shows the following:

      Na+ 132 mmol/l
      K+ 3.2 mmol/l
      Urea 9.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 130 µmol/l
      CRP 145.2 mg/l

      What is the most likely cause for the abnormalities in this lady's observations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ileus

      Explanation:

      Ileus is a common complication that can occur in the days following surgery and may lead to hypovolemia and electrolyte imbalances before the onset of nausea and vomiting.

      As a junior in general surgery, it is important to be able to identify the cause of a patient’s deterioration. In this case, the patient’s observations and blood tests suggest hypovolemia and acute kidney injury with low electrolytes, indicating a loss of salt and water. However, the overall fluid balance is positive, suggesting that the fluid and salt are accumulating in a third space or body compartment. Ileus is a likely culprit, as it can cause fluid buildup in the intestinal lumen due to decreased peristalsis, resulting in an overall loss of water and salt from the intravascular space but a positive fluid balance. Patients with ileus may experience abdominal distension and tenderness, as well as nausea and vomiting, which may not become apparent for a few days. Treatment typically involves inserting a wide-bore nasogastric tube and administering intravenous fluids until bowel motility returns.

      Dehydration is an unlikely cause of the patient’s deterioration, as the blood test suggests salt dilution rather than concentration. A pulmonary embolism is also unlikely, as it would typically cause obstructive shock and present differently. The absence of fever and clear signs of infection make septic shock an unlikely cause. The raised CRP is likely due to acute inflammation from the recent surgery. An anastomotic leak, which can cause faecal peritonitis and sepsis, can be ruled out due to the absence of peritonism and severe abdominal pain.

      Complications can occur in all types of surgery and require vigilance in their detection. Anticipating likely complications and appropriate avoidance can minimize their occurrence. Understanding the anatomy of a surgical field will allow appreciation of local and systemic complications that may occur. Physiological and biochemical derangements may also occur, and appropriate diagnostic modalities should be utilized. Safe and timely intervention is the guiding principle for managing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe lower abdominal pain for the last day. She reports that she has had some bloody vaginal discharge. She is currently sexually active. She has a fever of 38.1 °C. On examination, she has uterine tenderness and there is severe cervical motion tenderness.
      What is the most important initial investigation in helping to reach a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Initial Investigations in a Patient with Lower Abdominal Pain: A Case Study

      When a patient presents with lower abdominal pain, it is important to conduct initial investigations to determine the underlying cause. In this case study, the patient exhibits symptoms consistent with pelvic inflammatory disease, but it is crucial to rule out an ectopic pregnancy as it can lead to serious complications.

      Pregnancy Test: The most important initial investigation for women of childbearing age who present with abdominal pain is a pregnancy test. This test can quickly determine if the patient is pregnant and if an ectopic pregnancy is a possibility.

      Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR): While an ESR test can identify infection and inflammation, it is of limited diagnostic or therapeutic benefit in this case and would not affect the patient’s management.

      Abdominal Ultrasound: Although an abdominal ultrasound can identify potential issues, such as an ectopic pregnancy, a pregnancy test should take priority in this case.

      Cervical and Urethral Swab: A swab can identify sexually transmitted diseases that may be causing pelvic inflammatory disease, but it is not the most important initial investigation.

      Full Blood Count: While a full blood count can identify potential infections and provide a baseline for admission, it is unlikely to help reach a diagnosis and is not the most important initial investigation.

      In conclusion, initial investigations are crucial in determining the underlying cause of lower abdominal pain. In this case, a pregnancy test is the most important initial investigation to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, followed by other tests as necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
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  • Question 22 - Ms. Johnson, a 26-year-old marketing executive, was diagnosed with a left tubal ectopic...

    Incorrect

    • Ms. Johnson, a 26-year-old marketing executive, was diagnosed with a left tubal ectopic pregnancy 3 weeks ago. Despite being treated with methotrexate, her hCG levels did not improve. As a result, surgical intervention was deemed necessary. Ms. Johnson has no notable medical history and is in good health. What type of surgery is the surgeon most likely to perform?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      The patient did not respond to methotrexate treatment for ectopic pregnancy, as indicated by the βhCG levels. Additionally, there is no history of increased infertility risk. According to NICE guidelines, salpingectomy is recommended for women with tubal ectopic unless they have other infertility risk factors, such as damage to the contralateral tube. Alternatively, salpingostomy may be offered. Women who undergo salpingostomy should be informed that up to 20% may require further treatment, which could include methotrexate and/or salpingectomy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes...

    Incorrect

    • As a healthcare professional in a bustling emergency department, a concerned mother rushes in with her 4-year-old son. The child has been crying excessively for the past 12 hours and has experienced bilious vomiting multiple times. Additionally, he passed a stool containing small amounts of blood about 2 hours ago. What initial investigation would you conduct to determine the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Intussusception is best diagnosed using ultrasound, which is the preferred method due to its non-invasive nature, patient comfort, and high sensitivity.

      Understanding Intussusception

      Intussusception is a medical condition that occurs when one part of the bowel folds into the lumen of the adjacent bowel, usually around the ileo-caecal region. This condition is most common in infants between 6-18 months old, with boys being affected twice as often as girls. The symptoms of intussusception include severe, crampy abdominal pain that comes and goes, inconsolable crying, vomiting, and blood stained stool, which is a late sign. During a paroxysm, the infant will typically draw their knees up and turn pale, and a sausage-shaped mass may be felt in the right upper quadrant.

      To diagnose intussusception, ultrasound is now the preferred method of investigation, as it can show a target-like mass. Treatment for intussusception involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation under radiological control, which is now widely used as a first-line treatment instead of the traditional barium enema. If this method fails, or the child shows signs of peritonitis, surgery is performed.

      In summary, intussusception is a medical condition that affects infants and involves the folding of one part of the bowel into the lumen of the adjacent bowel. It is characterized by severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and blood stained stool, among other symptoms. Ultrasound is the preferred method of diagnosis, and treatment involves reducing the bowel by air insufflation or surgery if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 24 - A 76-year-old woman presents with lethargy. She has a history of Graves’ disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old woman presents with lethargy. She has a history of Graves’ disease and thyrotoxicosis. Her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are found to be 7.3 μU/l (normal range: 0.17–3.2 μU/l). A full blood count is performed and reveals the following: haemoglobin (Hb) is low, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) is high, platelet count is normal, white cell count (WCC) is normal.
      What is the most likely cause of her anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of macrocytic anaemia in a patient with a history of Graves’ disease

      This patient presents with a macrocytic anaemia, which can have various causes. Given her history of Graves’ disease and autoimmune hyperthyroidism, it is important to consider hypothyroidism as a possible cause, despite the usual association of hyperthyroidism with a suppressed TSH. Pernicious anaemia, another autoimmune disease that can lead to vitamin B12 deficiency, should also be considered. However, in this case, the high TSH makes hypothyroidism more likely. Vitamin B12 deficiency and folate deficiency can also cause macrocytic anaemia, but the patient’s history and laboratory findings suggest hypothyroidism as the primary diagnosis. Haemolysis is not a likely cause in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department (ED) complaining of fever and a painful lump near his anus. Upon examination, a 4 cm peri-anal swelling is observed, accompanied by surrounding erythema. The swelling is very tender and fluctuant.
      What is the most effective treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Incision and drainage

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Incision and Drainage for Abscess Treatment

      When it comes to treating an abscess, the most appropriate course of action is always incision and drainage of the pus. This procedure can typically be done with local anesthesia and involves sending a sample of the pus to the lab for cultures and sensitivities. While severe abscesses may require additional medication like flucloxacillin after the incision and drainage, a biopsy is not necessary in most cases. It’s important to note that simply taking pain medication and waiting for the abscess to resolve is unlikely to be effective. Instead, seeking prompt medical attention for incision and drainage is crucial for successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Colorectal
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  • Question 26 - A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old female comes to her doctor complaining of sudden left shoulder and arm pain that has been getting worse over the past week. The pain is now unbearable even with regular co-codamol. During the examination, the doctor observes that the patient's left pupil is smaller than the other and the eyelid is slightly drooping. What question would be most helpful in determining the diagnosis for this woman?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking history

      Explanation:

      Smoking is responsible for the majority of cases of cancer that lead to Pancoast’s syndrome. The patient’s condition is not influenced by factors such as alcohol consumption, physical activity, or exposure to pathogens.

      Horner’s syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by a set of symptoms including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The presence of heterochromia, or a difference in iris color, is often seen in cases of congenital Horner’s syndrome. Anhidrosis is also a distinguishing feature that can help differentiate between central, Preganglionic, and postganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can be helpful in confirming the diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome and localizing the lesion.

      Central lesions, Preganglionic lesions, and postganglionic lesions can all cause Horner’s syndrome, with each type of lesion presenting with different symptoms. Central lesions can result in anhidrosis of the face, arm, and trunk, while Preganglionic lesions can cause anhidrosis of the face only. postganglionic lesions, on the other hand, do not typically result in anhidrosis.

      There are many potential causes of Horner’s syndrome, including stroke, syringomyelia, multiple sclerosis, tumors, encephalitis, thyroidectomy, trauma, cervical rib, carotid artery dissection, carotid aneurysm, cavernous sinus thrombosis, and cluster headache. It is important to identify the underlying cause of Horner’s syndrome in order to determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - A 76-year-old man is admitted to hospital with worsening control of his chronic...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man is admitted to hospital with worsening control of his chronic back pain. He admits he is struggling to continue with his oral morphine as it is making him feel nauseated. He enquires about whether he can have injections or an analgesia patch. He currently takes paracetamol 1000 mg orally (PO) four times daily (QDS), codeine 60 mg PO QDS, ibuprofen 400 mg PO three times daily (TDS) and morphine sulphate 30 mg PO QDS.
      Which of the following fentanyl patches would be appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fentanyl 50 µg/hour patch every 72 hours

      Explanation:

      Equianalgesic Dosing of Fentanyl Patches Compared to Morphine

      Fentanyl patches are a common form of opioid medication used for chronic pain management. The dosage of fentanyl patches is often compared to the equivalent dosage of morphine to ensure proper pain control.

      For example, a patient taking the 24-hour equivalent of 140 mg morphine sulphate would require a fentanyl ’50’ patch. This patient should also be prescribed breakthrough analgesia to manage any sudden spikes in pain.

      Other equianalgesic dosages include a fentanyl ’12’ patch equivalent to 30 mg morphine sulphate in 24 hours, a fentanyl ’25’ patch equivalent to 60 mg morphine sulphate in 24 hours, and a fentanyl ‘100’ patch equivalent to 240 mg morphine sulphate in 24 hours. It’s important to note that a fentanyl ‘120’ patch is not available.

      Overall, understanding the equianalgesic dosing of fentanyl patches compared to morphine can help healthcare providers properly manage a patient’s pain and avoid potential overdose or underdose situations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 28 - A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic with a groin swelling. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic with a groin swelling. During the physical examination, the general practitioner notes a soft, painless lump located superomedial to the pubic tubercle on the left side. The patient experiences a positive cough impulse, and bowel sounds are audible upon auscultation. There is no testicular swelling, and the scrotum feels normal upon palpation. The GP successfully reduces the lump. What further steps should the GP take in the clinical examination to determine the subtype and anatomy of this swelling?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Press on the deep inguinal ring and ask the patient to cough

      Explanation:

      To differentiate between a direct and indirect inguinal hernia during a clinical examination, it is important to understand their anatomical differences. While a direct hernia involves a defect in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal, an indirect hernia occurs when abdominal contents enter the canal through the deep inguinal ring. To control an indirect hernia, pressure can be applied over the deep inguinal ring after manually reducing the hernia. Asking the patient to cough while applying pressure can help determine if the hernia is indirect or direct. Measuring the size of the lump is not as useful as assessing symptoms, and pressing on the superficial inguinal ring while the patient coughs will not provide any additional information.

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
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  • Question 29 - A 50-year-old man has been experiencing a chronic productive cough for a few...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man has been experiencing a chronic productive cough for a few months along with some instances of mild haemoptysis. He has also been losing weight unexpectedly and having night sweats. Despite having no history of smoking, a sputum sample reveals the presence of acid-fast bacilli. As part of his initial treatment, he is prescribed pyridoxine to reduce the risk of what adverse drug effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Prescribing pyridoxine can help lower the risk of peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
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  • Question 30 - A 79-year-old male with a history of dementia arrived at the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old male with a history of dementia arrived at the emergency department with a suspected hip fracture. After an x-ray, it was determined that he had a subcapital fracture of the femur with partial displacement. What would be the probable surgical treatment for this type of fracture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hemiarthroplasty

      Explanation:

      For patients with a displaced hip fracture, the preferred treatment is either hemiarthroplasty or total hip replacement. The most common type of intracapsular fracture of the proximal femur is a subcapital fracture. Fractures that occur proximal to the intertrochanteric line are classified as intracapsular, while those that occur distal to it are classified as extracapsular. Due to the potential threat to the blood supply in intracapsular fractures, the general recommendation is to perform hemiarthroplasty. For extracapsular femoral fractures, a dynamic hip screw is typically used.

      Hip fractures are a common occurrence, particularly in elderly women with osteoporosis. The femoral head’s blood supply runs up the neck, making avascular necrosis a potential risk in displaced fractures. Symptoms of a hip fracture include pain and a shortened and externally rotated leg. Patients with non-displaced or incomplete neck of femur fractures may still be able to bear weight. Hip fractures can be classified as intracapsular or extracapsular, with the Garden system being a commonly used classification system. Blood supply disruption is most common in Types III and IV fractures.

      Intracapsular hip fractures can be treated with internal fixation or hemiarthroplasty if the patient is unfit. Displaced fractures are recommended for replacement arthroplasty, such as total hip replacement or hemiarthroplasty, according to NICE guidelines. Total hip replacement is preferred over hemiarthroplasty if the patient was able to walk independently outdoors with the use of a stick, is not cognitively impaired, and is medically fit for anesthesia and the procedure. Extracapsular hip fractures can be managed with a dynamic hip screw for stable intertrochanteric fractures or an intramedullary device for reverse oblique, transverse, or subtrochanteric fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Passmed