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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gonorrhoeae and prescribed ceftriaxone. She later...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gonorrhoeae and prescribed ceftriaxone. She later presents at the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, elevated white blood cell count, and signs of severe colitis. What is the most probable causative organism for these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is C. difficile, as it is the causative organism in pseudomembranous colitis that can occur after recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics like ceftriaxone. These antibiotics can disrupt the gut flora, allowing C. difficile to thrive. Other antibiotics that can cause C. difficile include PPI, clindamycin, and fluoroquinolones.

      Campylobacter, Escherichia coli, and Neisseria gonorrhoeae are incorrect answers. Campylobacter infections are typically caused by undercooked chicken, untreated water, or international travel. E. coli infections are usually caused by contact with infected feces, unwashed foods, or unclean water. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is a sexually transmitted disease that is spread through unprotected sex, not through recent use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. The patient in this case does not have symptoms of gonorrhoeae and there is no indication of unprotected sex after the antibiotic prescription.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 2 - A 52-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after her spouse noticed a...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after her spouse noticed a gradual yellowing of her eyes over the past three days. The patient reports experiencing fatigue and excessive sleepiness for several years, along with occasional bouts of intense itching. She has no significant medical history. Lab tests reveal elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, IgM antibodies, and anti-mitochondrial antibodies. What is the underlying pathology of this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Bile duct inflammation associated with areas of narrowing and sclerosis

      Correct Answer: Interlobular bile duct granulomatous destruction with dense lymphocytic infiltrate

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and laboratory findings suggest a cholestatic disease, specifically primary biliary cholangitis, which is an autoimmune condition of the biliary tract. This disease is more common in middle-aged women and can present with symptoms such as fatigue and pruritus. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis is a metabolic syndrome-related condition characterized by triglyceride accumulation and myofibroblast proliferation, while primary sclerosing cholangitis is characterized by bile duct inflammation and sclerosis. Alcoholic hepatitis is caused by long-term alcohol misuse and is characterized by macrovesicular fatty change, spotty necrosis, and fibrosis.

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 3 - A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vomiting blood. The medical...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department with vomiting blood. The medical team suspects bleeding oesophageal varices and prescribes terlipressin. The patient has a history of alcohol abuse and examination reveals ascites.

      Why was terlipressin prescribed in this case?

      Your Answer: Vasoconstriction of splanchnic vessels

      Explanation:

      Terlipressin works by constricting the splanchnic vessels, which increases systemic vascular resistance and promotes renal fluid reabsorption. This leads to an increase in arterial pressure and helps to treat hypovolaemic hypotension. Terlipressin also has a sympathetic stimulating effect and is an analogue of vasopressin.

      Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.

      To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old male is receiving treatment for his colorectal cancer from the oncology...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old male is receiving treatment for his colorectal cancer from the oncology team at his nearby hospital. What type of colorectal carcinoma is most frequently encountered?

      Your Answer: Adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      The most common type of colorectal cancer is adenocarcinoma, which originates from the mucosal lining of the colon. Initially, it develops as a benign adenoma from glandular cells of the mucosa, which later transforms into a malignant form.

      Squamous cell carcinoma arises from squamous cells, which are not present in the colon. Ductal carcinoma is a breast cancer that originates from ductal cells. Basal cell carcinoma is a type of skin cancer, while mesothelioma is a malignancy that affects the mesothelium, commonly found in the lining of the chest wall.

      Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      2.7
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  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening acid reflux, despite receiving...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening acid reflux, despite receiving aggressive treatment. He reports feeling like he has lost weight and has a medical history of duodenal ulcers. During his last endoscopy, Barrett's oesophagus was detected. Which type of cancer is most commonly linked to this condition?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal adenocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      The most significant risk factor for developing oesophageal adenocarcinoma, one of the two types of oesophageal carcinomas in the UK, is Barrett’s oesophagus. This condition occurs when chronic acid exposure causes a metaplastic change from squamous epithelium to gastric columnar epithelium in the lower end of the oesophagus, increasing the risk of developing adenocarcinoma.

      Duodenal adenocarcinoma, a relatively rare cancer of the gastrointestinal tract, is often caused by genetic conditions such as HNCCP/Lynch syndrome and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), as well as Crohn’s disease. Patients with this type of cancer typically experience abdominal pain, reflux, and weight loss due to the malignancy obstructing the flow of digested chyme from the stomach to the jejunum.

      Gastric malignancy, the most common type of which is adenocarcinoma, is not associated with Barrett’s oesophagus. Symptoms of gastric cancer include heartburn, abdominal pain, loss of appetite, and early satiety, and the most significant risk factor is H. pylori infection.

      Oesophageal leiomyoma, a benign tumour, is not linked to Barrett’s oesophagus. Patients may experience reflux if the mass enlarges, but the most common symptoms are retrosternal discomfort and difficulty swallowing.

      Squamous cell carcinoma, the other type of oesophageal malignancy, is associated with smoking and alcohol and tends to occur in the upper oesophagus. Unlike adenocarcinoma, weight loss is usually an early symptom of this type of cancer.

      Barrett’s oesophagus is a condition where the lower oesophageal mucosa is replaced by columnar epithelium, which increases the risk of oesophageal adenocarcinoma by 50-100 fold. It is usually identified during an endoscopy for upper gastrointestinal symptoms such as dyspepsia, as there are no screening programs for it. The length of the affected segment determines the chances of identifying metaplasia, with short (<3 cm) and long (>3 cm) subtypes. The prevalence of Barrett’s oesophagus is estimated to be around 1 in 20, and it is identified in up to 12% of those undergoing endoscopy for reflux.

      The columnar epithelium in Barrett’s oesophagus may resemble that of the cardiac region of the stomach or that of the small intestine, with goblet cells and brush border. The single strongest risk factor for Barrett’s oesophagus is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), followed by male gender, smoking, and central obesity. Alcohol is not an independent risk factor for Barrett’s, but it is associated with both GORD and oesophageal cancer. Patients with Barrett’s oesophagus often have coexistent GORD symptoms.

      The management of Barrett’s oesophagus involves high-dose proton pump inhibitor, although the evidence base for its effectiveness in reducing the progression to dysplasia or inducing regression of the lesion is limited. Endoscopic surveillance with biopsies is recommended every 3-5 years for patients with metaplasia but not dysplasia. If dysplasia of any grade is identified, endoscopic intervention is offered, such as radiofrequency ablation, which is the preferred first-line treatment, particularly for low-grade dysplasia, or endoscopic mucosal resection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 6 - A 48-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of persistent, dull discomfort...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of persistent, dull discomfort in the upper right quadrant of her abdomen. Upon examination, an ultrasound reveals the presence of a mass in her gallbladder. Subsequent biopsy results confirm the diagnosis of adenocarcinoma, a cancerous tumour that originates from the epithelial cells of the gallbladder.

      How would you characterize these epithelial cells?

      Your Answer: Simple columnar

      Explanation:

      The lining of the gallbladder is composed of simple columnar epithelium, which is also found in other parts of the gastrointestinal tract such as the small intestine, stomach, and large intestine. Simple cuboidal epithelium is rare and is mainly found in the renal tubules and on the surface of the ovaries. Simple squamous epithelium is present in areas where rapid diffusion of small molecules is necessary, such as in alveoli and capillaries, as well as in glomeruli where ultra-filtration occurs. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium is primarily found in the upper respiratory tract.

      The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old man is scheduled for a radical prostatectomy to treat prostate gland...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is scheduled for a radical prostatectomy to treat prostate gland carcinoma. Which lymph nodes will the tumour primarily drain into?

      Your Answer: Meso rectal

      Correct Answer: Internal iliac

      Explanation:

      The prostate lymphatic drainage goes mainly to the internal iliac nodes, with the sacral nodes also involved.

      Anatomy of the Prostate Gland

      The prostate gland is a small, walnut-shaped gland located below the bladder and separated from the rectum by Denonvilliers fascia. It receives its blood supply from the internal iliac vessels, specifically the inferior vesical artery. The gland has an internal sphincter at its apex, which can be damaged during surgery and result in retrograde ejaculation.

      The prostate gland has four lobes: the posterior lobe, median lobe, and two lateral lobes. It also has an isthmus and three zones: the peripheral zone, central zone, and transition zone. The peripheral zone, which is the subcapsular portion of the posterior prostate, is where most prostate cancers occur.

      The gland is surrounded by various structures, including the pubic symphysis, prostatic venous plexus, Denonvilliers fascia, rectum, ejaculatory ducts, lateral venous plexus, and levator ani. Its lymphatic drainage is to the internal iliac nodes, and its innervation comes from the inferior hypogastric plexus.

      In summary, the prostate gland is a small but important gland in the male reproductive system. Its anatomy includes lobes, zones, and various surrounding structures, and it plays a crucial role in ejaculation and prostate health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 8 - A 46-year-old male has presented with bruises on his legs. He also reports...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old male has presented with bruises on his legs. He also reports that he bleeds excessively whenever he gets a cut on his limbs. He has a past medical history of familial hypercholesterolaemia. His body mass index is 31 kg/m2. He does not have a medical history of bleeding disorders and denies a family history of haemophilia.

      During his last visit, his lipid profile showed elevated total cholesterol, elevated LDL and low HDL. He was prescribed a medication to help lower his LDL cholesterol.

      What medication was he most likely prescribed?

      Your Answer: Cholestyramine

      Explanation:

      Cholestyramine has the potential to decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin A, D, E, and K. Vitamin K is particularly important for the production of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, and a deficiency in this vitamin can result in clotting abnormalities.

      Clomiphene is a medication used to stimulate ovulation in women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), and it is not linked to an elevated risk of bleeding.

      Psyllium husk is not known to cause any bleeding disorders.

      Cholestyramine: A Medication for Managing High Cholesterol

      Cholestyramine is a medication used to manage high levels of cholesterol in the body. It works by reducing the reabsorption of bile acid in the small intestine, which leads to an increase in the conversion of cholesterol to bile acid. This medication is particularly effective in reducing LDL cholesterol levels. In addition to its use in managing hyperlipidaemia, cholestyramine is also sometimes used to treat diarrhoea following bowel resection in patients with Crohn’s disease.

      However, cholestyramine is not without its adverse effects. Some patients may experience abdominal cramps and constipation while taking this medication. It can also decrease the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies if not properly managed. Additionally, cholestyramine may increase the risk of developing cholesterol gallstones and raise the level of triglycerides in the blood. Therefore, it is important for patients to discuss the potential benefits and risks of cholestyramine with their healthcare provider before starting this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 9 - A 63-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of blood in...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old male presents to his GP with a complaint of blood in his stools. The blood is bright red and occurs during defecation, but it is not painful. He has been feeling more tired lately, but he has not experienced night sweats, weight loss, loss of appetite, or changes in bowel habits.

      The patient has a history of liver cirrhosis and underwent an oesophageal endoscopy two years ago, but he cannot recall the results. He is a known alcoholic and attends AA.

      Upon examination, the patient appears pale with conjunctival pallor, and ascites is present.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemorrhoids

      Explanation:

      Haemorrhoids in Portal Hypertension

      A likely diagnosis for a patient with a history of portal hypertension, ascites, endoscopy, and cirrhotic liver is haemorrhoids. Portal hypertension causes pressure to be passed on to the middle and inferior rectal veins, leading to their dilation and the development of haemorrhoids. While haemorrhoids are common in the general population, significant blood loss is rare. However, in patients with established cirrhosis, large amounts of blood can be lost through these varices.

      An anal fissure is unlikely in this case, as there is no history of straining or a low-fibre diet, and they are typically painful. While colorectal carcinoma is an important diagnosis to consider, painless bright fresh blood is more likely to be caused by haemorrhoids in patients with a strong history of portal hypertension. In malignancy, fresh blood is less common, and a change in bowel habit is often a prominent feature.

      A perianal haematoma is a thrombosed haemorrhoid that typically presents with severe pain, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. The patient’s presentation of painless bleeding further supports the diagnosis of haemorrhoids in the context of portal hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      3.1
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  • Question 10 - A 57-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of urinary sepsis. He reports experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of urinary sepsis. He reports experiencing left iliac fossa pain repeatedly over the past few months and has noticed bubbles in his urine. A CT scan reveals a large inflammatory mass in the left iliac fossa, with no other abnormalities detected. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Ulcerative colitis
      12%

      Crohn's disease
      11%

      Mesenteric ischemia
      11%

      Diverticular disease
      53%

      Rectal cancer
      13%

      Explanation:

      Recurrent diverticulitis can lead to the formation of local abscesses that may erode into the bladder, resulting in urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This presentation would be atypical for Crohn's disease, and rectal cancer would typically be located more distally, with evidence of extra colonic disease present if the cancer were advanced.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticular disease

      Explanation:

      Colovesical fistula is frequently caused by diverticular disease.

      Repeated episodes of diverticulitis can lead to the formation of abscesses in the affected area. These abscesses may then erode into the bladder, causing urinary sepsis and pneumaturia. This presentation would be atypical for Crohn’s disease, and rectal cancer typically occurs in a more distal location. Additionally, if the case were malignant, there would likely be evidence of extra colonic disease and advanced progression.

      Understanding Diverticular Disease

      Diverticular disease is a common condition that involves the protrusion of the colon’s mucosa through its muscular wall. This typically occurs between the taenia coli, where vessels penetrate the muscle to supply the mucosa. Symptoms of diverticular disease include altered bowel habits, rectal bleeding, and abdominal pain. Complications can arise, such as diverticulitis, haemorrhage, fistula development, perforation and faecal peritonitis, abscess formation, and diverticular phlegmon.

      To diagnose diverticular disease, patients may undergo a colonoscopy, CT cologram, or barium enema. However, it can be challenging to rule out cancer, especially in diverticular strictures. Acutely unwell surgical patients require a systematic investigation, including plain abdominal films and an erect chest x-ray to identify perforation. An abdominal CT scan with oral and intravenous contrast can help identify acute inflammation and local complications.

      Treatment for diverticular disease includes increasing dietary fibre intake and managing mild attacks with antibiotics. Peri colonic abscesses require drainage, either surgically or radiologically. Recurrent episodes of acute diverticulitis requiring hospitalisation may indicate a segmental resection. Hinchey IV perforations, which involve generalised faecal peritonitis, require a resection and usually a stoma. This group has a high risk of postoperative complications and typically requires HDU admission. Less severe perforations may be managed by laparoscopic washout and drain insertion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastrointestinal System (7/9) 78%
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