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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

    The patient's SaO2 levels...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old female smoker presents with acute severe asthma.

      The patient's SaO2 levels are at 91% even with 15 L of oxygen, and her pO2 is at 8.2 kPa (10.5-13). There is widespread expiratory wheezing throughout her chest.

      The medical team administers IV hydrocortisone, 100% oxygen, and 5 mg of nebulised salbutamol and 500 micrograms of nebulised ipratropium, but there is little response. Nebulisers are repeated 'back-to-back,' but the patient remains tachypnoeic with wheezing, although there is good air entry.

      What should be the next step in the patient's management?

      Your Answer: IV Magnesium

      Explanation:

      Acute Treatment of Asthma

      When dealing with acute asthma, the initial approach should be SOS, which stands for Salbutamol, Oxygen, and Steroids (IV). It is also important to organize a CXR to rule out pneumothorax. If the patient is experiencing bronchoconstriction, further efforts to treat it should be considered. If the patient is tiring or has a silent chest, ITU review may be necessary. Magnesium is recommended at a dose of 2 g over 30 minutes to promote bronchodilation, as low magnesium levels in bronchial smooth muscle can favor bronchoconstriction. IV theophylline may also be considered, but magnesium is typically preferred. While IV antibiotics may be necessary, promoting bronchodilation should be the initial focus. IV potassium may also be required as beta agonists can push down potassium levels. Oral prednisolone can wait, as IV hydrocortisone is already part of the SOS approach. Non-invasive ventilation is not recommended for the acute management of asthma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      39.1
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  • Question 2 - A 44-year-old heavy smoker presents with a productive cough and progressively worsening shortness...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old heavy smoker presents with a productive cough and progressively worsening shortness of breath on exertion. The patient's spirometry results are forwarded to you in clinic for review.

      Tidal volume (TV) = 400 mL.
      Vital capacity (VC) = 3,300 mL.
      Inspiratory capacity (IC) = 2,600 mL.
      FEV1/FVC = 60%

      Body plethysmography is undertaken, demonstrating a residual volume (RV) of 1,200 mL.

      What is this patient's total lung capacity (TLC)?

      Your Answer: 4,500 mL

      Explanation:

      To calculate the total lung capacity, one can add the vital capacity and residual volume. For example, if the vital capacity is 3300 mL and the residual volume is 1200 mL, the total lung capacity would be 4500 mL. It is important to note that tidal volume, inspiratory capacity, and the FEV1/FVC ratio are other measurements related to lung function. Residual volume refers to the amount of air left in the lungs after a maximal exhalation, while total lung capacity refers to the volume of air in the lungs after a maximal inhalation.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      76.8
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  • Question 3 - A 38-year-old male presents to the hospital with recurrent nose bleeds, joint pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents to the hospital with recurrent nose bleeds, joint pain, chronic sinusitis, and haemoptysis for the past 3 days. During the examination, the doctor observes a saddle-shaped nose and a necrotic, purpuric, and blistering plaque on his wrist. The patient reports that he had a small blister a few weeks ago, which has now progressed to this. The blood test results suggest a possible diagnosis of granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and the patient is referred for a renal biopsy. What biopsy findings would confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lobular accentuation of enlarged glomeruli with mesangial hypercellularity

      Correct Answer: Epithelial crescents in Bowman's capsule

      Explanation:

      Glomerulonephritis is a condition that affects the kidneys and can present with various pathological changes. In rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis, patients may present with respiratory tract symptoms and cutaneous manifestations of vasculitis. Renal biopsy will show epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule, indicating severe glomerular injury. Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis is characterized by a diffuse increase in mesangial cells and is not associated with respiratory tract symptoms or cutaneous manifestations of vasculitis. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis involves deposits in the intraglomerular mesangium and is associated with activation of the complement pathway and glomerular damage. It is unlikely to be the diagnosis in the scenario as it is not associated with vasculitis symptoms. A normal nephron architecture would not explain the patient’s symptoms and is an incorrect answer.

      Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition

      Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.

      To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.

      The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 4 - A middle-aged woman who is obese comes in with complaints of polyuria. She...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged woman who is obese comes in with complaints of polyuria. She has a history of squamous cell lung carcinoma. What could be the possible reason for her polyuria?

      Your Answer: Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion

      Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Polyuria is caused by all the options listed above, except for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. However, the patient’s age does not match the typical onset of type 1 diabetes, which usually occurs in young individuals. Furthermore, squamous cell lung carcinoma is commonly associated with a paraneoplastic syndrome that results in the release of excess parathyroid hormone by the tumor, leading to hypercalcemia and subsequent polyuria, along with other symptoms such as renal and biliary stones, bone pain, abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, depression, and anxiety.

      Lung cancer can present with paraneoplastic features, which are symptoms caused by the cancer but not directly related to the tumor itself. Small cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of ADH and, less commonly, ACTH, which can lead to hypertension, hyperglycemia, hypokalemia, alkalosis, and muscle weakness. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is also associated with small cell lung cancer. Squamous cell lung cancer can cause the secretion of parathyroid hormone-related protein, leading to hypercalcemia, as well as clubbing and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Adenocarcinoma can cause gynecomastia and hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy. Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is a painful condition involving the proliferation of periosteum in the long bones. Although traditionally associated with squamous cell carcinoma, some studies suggest that adenocarcinoma is the most common cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      17.5
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  • Question 5 - What is the term used to describe the area between the vocal cords?...

    Incorrect

    • What is the term used to describe the area between the vocal cords?

      Your Answer: Vestibule

      Correct Answer: Rima glottidis

      Explanation:

      The narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity is known as the rima glottidis.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      10.8
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  • Question 6 - A 10-year-old boy is recuperating the day after a tonsillectomy. His parents report...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy is recuperating the day after a tonsillectomy. His parents report that he hasn't had anything to eat for 6 hours prior to the surgery and he is feeling famished. However, he is declining any attempts to consume food or water. There are no prescribed medications or known drug allergies listed on his medical records.

      What would be the most appropriate first step to take?

      Your Answer: Prescribe analgesia and encourage oral intake

      Explanation:

      Effective pain management is crucial after a tonsillectomy to promote the consumption of food and fluids.

      Prescribing analgesics and encouraging oral intake is the best course of action. This will alleviate pain and enable the patient to eat and drink, which is essential for a speedy recovery.

      Starting maintenance fluids or partial nutritional feeds, obtaining IV access, or waiting for two hours before reviewing the patient are not the most appropriate options. Analgesia should be the primary consideration to facilitate oral fluid therapy and promote healing.

      Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications

      Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.

      Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      13.7
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  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old male patient complains of fever, malaise, weight loss, dyspnoea, and shoulder...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old male patient complains of fever, malaise, weight loss, dyspnoea, and shoulder & hip joint pain. He has raised erythematous lesions on both legs. His blood tests reveal elevated calcium levels and serum ACE levels. A chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with raised serum ACE levels, sarcoidosis should be considered as a possible diagnosis. The combination of erythema nodosum and bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy on a chest x-ray is pathognomonic of sarcoidosis. Lung cancer is unlikely in a young patient without a significant smoking history, and tuberculosis would require recent foreign travel to a TB endemic country. Multiple myeloma would not cause the same symptoms as sarcoidosis. Exposure to organic material would not be a likely cause of raised serum ACE levels.

      Understanding Sarcoidosis: A Multisystem Disorder

      Sarcoidosis is a condition that affects multiple systems in the body and is characterized by the presence of non-caseating granulomas. The exact cause of this disorder is unknown, but it is more commonly seen in young adults and individuals of African descent.

      The symptoms of sarcoidosis can vary depending on the severity of the condition. Acute symptoms may include erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, swinging fever, and polyarthralgia. On the other hand, insidious symptoms may include dyspnea, non-productive cough, malaise, and weight loss. Additionally, some individuals may develop skin symptoms such as lupus pernio, while others may experience hypercalcemia due to increased conversion of vitamin D to its active form.

      Sarcoidosis is also associated with several syndromes, including Lofgren’s syndrome, Mikulicz syndrome, and Heerfordt’s syndrome. Lofgren’s syndrome is an acute form of the disease that typically presents with bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum, fever, and polyarthralgia. Mikulicz syndrome is characterized by enlargement of the parotid and lacrimal glands due to sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, or lymphoma. Finally, Heerfordt’s syndrome, also known as uveoparotid fever, presents with parotid enlargement, fever, and uveitis secondary to sarcoidosis.

      In conclusion, sarcoidosis is a complex disorder that can affect multiple systems in the body. While the exact cause is unknown, early diagnosis and treatment can help manage symptoms and improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      12.9
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  • Question 8 - An 75-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-month history of dysphagia,...

    Incorrect

    • An 75-year-old woman presents to her GP with a 4-month history of dysphagia, weight loss, and a change in her voice tone. After a nasendoscopy, laryngeal carcinoma is confirmed. The surgical team plans her operation based on a head and neck CT scan. Which vertebrae are likely located posterior to the carcinoma?

      Your Answer: C6-T1

      Correct Answer: C3-C6

      Explanation:

      The larynx is situated in the front of the neck, specifically at the level of the C3-C6 vertebrae. It is positioned below the pharynx and contains the vocal cords that produce sound. The C1-C3 vertebrae are located much higher than the larynx, while the C2-C4 vertebrae cover the area from the oropharynx to the first part of the larynx. The C6-T1 vertebrae are situated behind the larynx and the upper portions of the trachea and esophagus.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 83-year-old man is on the stroke ward after suffering a total anterior...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old man is on the stroke ward after suffering a total anterior circulation stroke of the left hemisphere. He is receiving assistance from the physiotherapists to mobilize, but the speech and language team has determined that he has an unsafe swallow. On the 6th day of his hospital stay, he begins to feel unwell.

      Upon examination, his temperature is 38.4ºC, heart rate of 112/min, respiratory rate of 18, and his blood pressure is 100/76 mmHg. Aspiration pneumonia is suspected. Which area of the body is most likely affected?

      Your Answer: Right upper lobe

      Correct Answer: Right middle lobe

      Explanation:

      Aspiration pneumonia is a common occurrence in stroke patients during the recovery phase, with a higher likelihood of affecting the right lung due to the steeper course of the right bronchus. This type of pneumonia is often caused by unsafe swallowing and can lead to prolonged hospital stays and increased mortality rates. The right middle and lower lobes are the most susceptible to aspirated gastric contents, while the right upper lobe is less likely due to gravity. It’s important to consider aspiration pneumonia as a differential diagnosis when assessing stroke patients, especially those with severe pathology.

      Aspiration pneumonia is a type of pneumonia that occurs when foreign substances, such as food or saliva, enter the bronchial tree. This can lead to inflammation and a chemical pneumonitis, as well as the introduction of bacterial pathogens. The condition is often caused by an impaired swallowing mechanism, which can be a result of neurological disease or injury, intoxication, or medical procedures such as intubation. Risk factors for aspiration pneumonia include poor dental hygiene, swallowing difficulties, prolonged hospitalization or surgery, impaired consciousness, and impaired mucociliary clearance. The right middle and lower lung lobes are typically the most affected areas. The bacteria involved in aspiration pneumonia can be aerobic or anaerobic, with examples including Streptococcus pneumoniae, Staphylococcus aureus, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Klebsiella, Bacteroides, Prevotella, Fusobacterium, and Peptostreptococcus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      11
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  • Question 10 - A 26-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother. He is agitated, restless, and anxious.

      Upon examination, dilated pupils are observed, and an ECG reveals sinus tachycardia.

      The patient has a medical history of chronic asthma and is currently taking modified-release theophylline tablets.

      According to his mother, he returned from a trip to Pakistan last night and has been taking antibiotics for bacterial gastroenteritis for the past four days. He has three days left on his antibiotic course.

      What could be the cause of his current presentation?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Terbinafine is frequently prescribed for the treatment of fungal nail infections as an antifungal medication.

      Theophylline and its Poisoning

      Theophylline is a naturally occurring methylxanthine that is commonly used as a bronchodilator in the management of asthma and COPD. Its exact mechanism of action is still unknown, but it is believed to be a non-specific inhibitor of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. Other proposed mechanisms include antagonism of adenosine and prostaglandin inhibition.

      However, theophylline poisoning can occur and is characterized by symptoms such as acidosis, hypokalemia, vomiting, tachycardia, arrhythmias, and seizures. In such cases, gastric lavage may be considered if the ingestion occurred less than an hour prior. Activated charcoal is also recommended, while whole-bowel irrigation can be performed if theophylline is in sustained-release form. Charcoal hemoperfusion is preferable to hemodialysis in managing theophylline poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 19-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of breathing difficulty....

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of breathing difficulty. Upon examination, his chest appears normal, but his respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute. The medical team suspects he may be experiencing a panic attack and subsequent hyperventilation. What impact will this have on his blood gas levels?

      Your Answer: None

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a respiratory alkalosis due to their hyperventilation, which is causing a decrease in carbon dioxide levels and resulting in an alkaline state.

      Respiratory Alkalosis: Causes and Examples

      Respiratory alkalosis is a condition that occurs when the blood pH level rises above the normal range due to excessive breathing. This can be caused by various factors, including anxiety, pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders, altitude, and pregnancy. Salicylate poisoning can also lead to respiratory alkalosis, but it may also cause metabolic acidosis in the later stages. In this case, the respiratory centre is stimulated early, leading to respiratory alkalosis, while the direct acid effects of salicylates combined with acute renal failure may cause acidosis later on. It is important to identify the underlying cause of respiratory alkalosis to determine the appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent complications and improve the patient’s overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      27.3
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  • Question 12 - A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 40kg/m² presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 40kg/m² presents to the GP describing apnoeic episodes during sleep. He is referred to the hospital's respiratory team where he receives an initial spirometry test which is shown below.

      Forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV1) 2.00 48% of predicted
      Vital capacity (VC) 2.35 43% of predicted
      Total lung capacity (TLC) 4.09 51% of predicted
      Residual volume (RV) 1.74 75% of predicted
      Total lung coefficient (TLCO) 5.37 47% of predicted
      Transfer coefficient (KCO) 1.83 120% of predicted

      What type of lung disease pattern is shown in a patient with a body mass index (BMI) of 30kg/m² who presents to the GP with similar symptoms?

      Your Answer: Obstructive

      Correct Answer: Extrapulmonary

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests

      Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure various aspects of lung function, such as forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1) and forced vital capacity (FVC). By analyzing the results of these tests, doctors can diagnose and monitor conditions such as asthma, COPD, pulmonary fibrosis, and neuromuscular disorders.

      In obstructive lung diseases, such as asthma and COPD, the FEV1 is significantly reduced, while the FVC may be reduced or normal. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) is also reduced. On the other hand, in restrictive lung diseases, such as pulmonary fibrosis and asbestosis, the FEV1 is reduced, but the FVC is significantly reduced. The FEV1% (FEV1/FVC) may be normal or increased.

      It is important to note that there are many conditions that can affect lung function, and pulmonary function tests are just one tool in diagnosing and managing respiratory diseases. However, understanding the results of these tests can provide valuable information for both patients and healthcare providers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 13 - During a clinical trial examining oxygen consumption during exercise, participants aged 50 and...

    Incorrect

    • During a clinical trial examining oxygen consumption during exercise, participants aged 50 and above engage in high-intensity interval training exercises for 20 minutes while physiological measurements are recorded. What is the primary factor that is likely to restrict oxygen supply to tissues after the training session?

      Your Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Correct Answer: Low pCO2

      Explanation:

      When the pCO2 is low, the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left, which increases the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. This can limit the amount of oxygen available to tissues. On the other hand, high levels of pCO2 (hypercarbia) shift the curve to the right, decreasing the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen and increasing oxygen availability to tissues.

      In acidosis, the concentration of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (DPG) increases, which binds to deoxyhaemoglobin and shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right. This results in increased oxygen release from the blood into tissues.

      Hyperthermia also shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, while the performance-enhancing substance myo-inositol trispyrophosphate (ITPP) has a similar effect.

      Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve

      The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.

      The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.

      Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 14 - A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother, complaining of ear...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother, complaining of ear pain that started last night. He has been unable to sleep due to the pain and has not been eating well. His mother reports that he seems different than his usual self. The affected side has muffled sounds, and he has a fever. Otoscopy reveals a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid-level. What is the structure that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?

      Your Answer: Semicircular canal

      Correct Answer: Eustachian tube

      Explanation:

      The pharyngotympanic tube, also known as the Eustachian tube, is responsible for connecting the middle ear and the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization in the middle ear. It opens on the anterior wall of the middle ear and extends anteriorly, medially, and inferiorly to open into the nasopharynx. The palatovaginal canal connects the pterygopalatine fossa with the nasopharynx, while the pterygoid canal runs from the anterior boundary of the foramen lacerum to the pterygopalatine fossa. The semicircular canals are responsible for sensing balance, while the greater palatine canal transmits the greater and lesser palatine nerves, as well as the descending palatine artery and vein. In the case of ear pain, otitis media is a likely cause, which can be confirmed through otoscopy. The pharyngotympanic tube is particularly important in otitis media as it is the only outlet for pus or fluid in the middle ear, provided the tympanic membrane is intact.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 15 - A 16-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 48-hour history of tachypnea and tachycardia. His blood glucose level is 18mmol/l. While breathing 40% oxygen, an arterial blood sample is taken. The results show a PaO2 of 22kPa, pH of 7.35, PaCO2 of 3.5kPa, and HCO3- of 18.6 mmol/l. How should these blood gas results be interpreted?

      Your Answer: Respiratory acidosis with partial metabolic compensation

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis with full respiratory compensation

      Explanation:

      The patient’s blood gas analysis shows a lower oxygen pressure by about 10kPa than the percentage of oxygen. The PaCo2 level is 3.5, indicating respiratory alkalosis or compensation for metabolic acidosis. The HCO3- level is 18.6, which suggests metabolic acidosis or metabolic compensation for respiratory alkalosis. These results indicate that the patient has metabolic acidosis with complete respiratory compensation. Additionally, the patient’s high blood glucose level suggests that the metabolic acidosis is due to diabetic ketoacidosis.

      Arterial Blood Gas Interpretation: A 5-Step Approach

      Arterial blood gas interpretation is a crucial aspect of patient care, particularly in critical care settings. The Resuscitation Council (UK) recommends a 5-step approach to interpreting arterial blood gas results. The first step is to assess the patient’s overall condition. The second step is to determine if the patient is hypoxaemic, with a PaO2 on air of less than 10 kPa. The third step is to assess if the patient is acidaemic (pH <7.35) or alkalaemic (pH >7.45).

      The fourth step is to evaluate the respiratory component of the arterial blood gas results. A PaCO2 level greater than 6.0 kPa suggests respiratory acidosis, while a PaCO2 level less than 4.7 kPa suggests respiratory alkalosis. The fifth step is to assess the metabolic component of the arterial blood gas results. A bicarbonate level less than 22 mmol/l or a base excess less than -2mmol/l suggests metabolic acidosis, while a bicarbonate level greater than 26 mmol/l or a base excess greater than +2mmol/l suggests metabolic alkalosis.

      To remember the relationship between pH, PaCO2, and bicarbonate, the acronym ROME can be used. Respiratory acidosis or alkalosis is opposite to the pH level, while metabolic acidosis or alkalosis is equal to the pH level. This 5-step approach and the ROME acronym can aid healthcare professionals in interpreting arterial blood gas results accurately and efficiently.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 16 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of ear pain. He mentions...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of ear pain. He mentions having some crusty discharge at the entrance of his ear canal when he woke up this morning. He denies any hearing loss, dizziness, or other symptoms. He swims twice a week. Upon examination, he has no fever. The auricle of his ear appears red, and pressing on the tragus causes discomfort. Otoscopy reveals an erythematous canal with a small amount of yellow discharge. The superior edge of the tympanic membrane is also red, but there is no bulging or fluid in the middle ear. Which bone articulates with the bone that is typically seen pressing against the tympanic membrane?

      Your Answer: Stapes

      Correct Answer: Incus

      Explanation:

      The middle bone of the 3 ossicles is known as the incus. During otoscopy, the malleus can be observed in contact with the tympanic membrane and it connects with the incus medially.

      The ossicles, which are the 3 bones in the middle ear, are arranged from lateral to medial as follows:
      Malleus: This is the most lateral of the ossicles. The handle and lateral process of the malleus attach to the tympanic membrane, making it visible during otoscopy. The head of the malleus connects with the incus. The term ‘malleus’ is derived from the Latin word for ‘hammer’.
      Incus: The incus is positioned between and connects with the other two ossicles. The body of the incus connects with the malleus, while the long limb of the bone connects with the stapes. The term ‘incus’ is derived from the Latin word for ‘anvil’.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 17 - A 23-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a complaint of ear pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a complaint of ear pain and difficulty hearing on one side. During the examination, you observe that she has a fever and a bulging tympanic membrane. What nerve transmits pain from the middle ear?

      Your Answer: Vestibulocochlear nerve

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the glossopharyngeal nerve, which is responsible for carrying sensation from the middle ear.

      The ninth cranial nerve, or glossopharyngeal nerve, carries taste and sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, as well as sensation from various areas such as the pharyngeal wall, tonsils, pharyngotympanic tube, middle ear, tympanic membrane, external auditory canal, and auricle. It also provides motor fibers to the stylopharyngeus and parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland. Additionally, it carries information from the baroreceptors and chemoreceptors of the carotid sinus.

      On the other hand, the seventh cranial nerve, or facial nerve, innervates the muscles of facial expression, stylohyoid, stapedius, and the posterior belly of digastric. It carries sensation from part of the external acoustic meatus, auricle, and behind the auricle, and taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. It also provides parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular, sublingual, nasal, and lacrimal glands.

      The eighth cranial nerve, or vestibulocochlear nerve, has a vestibular component that carries balance information from the labyrinths of the inner ear and a cochlear component that carries hearing information from the cochlea of the inner ear.

      The twelfth cranial nerve, or hypoglossal nerve, supplies motor innervation to all of the intrinsic muscles of the tongue and all of the extrinsic muscles of the tongue except for palatoglossus.

      Lastly, the maxillary nerve is the second division of the trigeminal nerve, the fifth cranial nerve, which carries sensation from the upper teeth and gingivae, the nasal cavity, and skin across the lower eyelids and cheeks.

      Based on the patient’s symptoms of ear pain, the most likely diagnosis is otitis media, as indicated by her fever and the presence of a bulging tympanic membrane on otoscopy.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 18 - Which one of the following is true regarding the phrenic nerves? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is true regarding the phrenic nerves?

      Your Answer: They consist of motor fibres only

      Correct Answer: They both lie anterior to the hilum of the lungs

      Explanation:

      The phrenic nerves, located in the anterior region of the lung’s hilum, play a crucial role in keeping the diaphragm functioning properly. These nerves have both sensory and motor functions, and any issues in the sub diaphragmatic area may result in referred pain in the shoulder.

      The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies

      The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.

      The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.

      Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.

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      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man presents with respiratory symptoms and is referred to his primary...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with respiratory symptoms and is referred to his primary care physician for pulmonary function testing. The estimated vital capacity is 3.5 liters. What does the measurement of vital capacity involve?

      Your Answer: Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Functional residual capacity

      Correct Answer: Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

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  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder weakness. During...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of shoulder weakness. During the examination, it is observed that he cannot initiate shoulder abduction. Which of the following nerves is most likely to be dysfunctional?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Explanation:

      The Suprascapular Nerve and its Function

      The suprascapular nerve is a nerve that originates from the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. It is located superior to the trunks of the brachial plexus and runs parallel to them. The nerve passes through the scapular notch, which is located deep to the trapezius muscle. Its main function is to innervate both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, which are responsible for initiating abduction of the shoulder.

      If the suprascapular nerve is damaged, patients may experience difficulty in initiating abduction of the shoulder. However, they may still be able to abduct the shoulder by leaning over the affected side, as the deltoid muscle can then continue to abduct the shoulder. Overall, the suprascapular nerve plays an important role in the movement and function of the shoulder joint.

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  • Question 21 - A 50-year-old man with laryngeal cancer is undergoing a challenging laryngectomy. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with laryngeal cancer is undergoing a challenging laryngectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons cut the thyrocervical trunk. What vessel does this structure typically originate from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subclavian artery

      Explanation:

      The subclavian artery gives rise to the thyrocervical trunk, which emerges from the first part of the artery located between the inner border of scalenus anterior and the subclavian artery. The thyrocervical trunk branches off from the subclavian artery after the vertebral artery.

      Thoracic Outlet: Where the Subclavian Artery and Vein and Brachial Plexus Exit the Thorax

      The thoracic outlet is the area where the subclavian artery and vein and the brachial plexus exit the thorax and enter the arm. This passage occurs over the first rib and under the clavicle. The subclavian vein is the most anterior structure and is located immediately in front of scalenus anterior and its attachment to the first rib. Scalenus anterior has two parts, and the subclavian artery leaves the thorax by passing over the first rib and between these two portions of the muscle. At the level of the first rib, the lower cervical nerve roots combine to form the three trunks of the brachial plexus. The lowest trunk is formed by the union of C8 and T1, and this trunk lies directly posterior to the artery and is in contact with the superior surface of the first rib.

      Thoracic outlet obstruction can cause neurovascular compromise.

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  • Question 22 - A 3-year-old male toddler of Asian descent is referred to a paediatrician by...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old male toddler of Asian descent is referred to a paediatrician by his GP due to recurrent respiratory infections and failure to thrive. The doctor orders a sweat test, which comes back positive. What are the potential complications associated with the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steatorrhea

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis can lead to steatorrhea, which is caused by the malabsorption of fat in the intestines. This is a common symptom of the disease and requires specialist management. While patients with CF may have a slightly increased risk of sensorineural hearing loss, this is mainly due to the side effects of certain drugs used to treat the disease. Melaena, which is the passage of dark faeces due to partially digested blood from the upper gastrointestinal system, is a rare symptom in patients with CF. There is no association between CF and intellectual disability. Although some studies suggest an increased incidence of pulmonary emboli in patients with CF, the associated risk is small and mainly due to the use of central venous catheters and liver dysfunction or vitamin K deficiency.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Other Features

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but some common presenting features include recurrent chest infections, malabsorption, and liver disease. In some cases, infants may experience meconium ileus or prolonged jaundice. It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed during newborn screening or early childhood, some may not be diagnosed until adulthood.

      Aside from the presenting features, there are other symptoms and features associated with cystic fibrosis. These include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse, nasal polyps, and infertility. It is important for individuals with cystic fibrosis to receive proper medical care and management to address these symptoms and improve their quality of life.

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  • Question 23 - A father brings his 9-year-old daughter to your general practice, as he is...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 9-year-old daughter to your general practice, as he is worried about her hearing. He notices that he has to repeat himself when talking to her, and thinks she is often 'in her own little world'. During the examination, the Rinne test is positive on the left and negative on the right. What conclusions can be drawn from this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can not tell if both sides are affected.

      Explanation:

      The Rinne and Weber tests are used to diagnose hearing loss. The Rinne test involves comparing air and bone conduction, with a positive result indicating a healthy or sensorineural loss and a negative result indicating a conductive loss. The Weber test involves placing a tuning fork on the forehead and determining if the sound is symmetrical or louder on one side, with a conductive loss resulting in louder sound on the affected side and a sensorineural loss resulting in louder sound on the non-affected side. When used together, these tests can provide more information about the type and affected side of hearing loss.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test indicates that BC is better than AC, suggesting conductive deafness.

      Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking the patient which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      The table below summarizes the interpretation of Rinne and Weber tests. A normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally and the sound is midline. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear and AC being greater than BC in the unaffected ear, with the sound lateralizing to the affected ear. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, with the sound lateralizing to the unaffected ear.

      Overall, Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are useful tools for differentiating between conductive and sensorineural deafness, allowing for appropriate management and treatment.

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  • Question 24 - Which one of the following nerves conveys sensory information from the nasal mucosa?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following nerves conveys sensory information from the nasal mucosa?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus

      Explanation:

      The larynx receives sensory information from the laryngeal branches of the vagus.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

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  • Question 25 - A 63-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening shortness of breath. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man visits his GP complaining of worsening shortness of breath. He was diagnosed with COPD six years ago and has been frequently admitted to the emergency department due to lower respiratory tract infections, especially in the past year. He has a smoking history of 50 pack-years and currently smokes 20 cigarettes per day.

      During the examination, the patient appears to be struggling to breathe even at rest and is in the tripod position. His heart rate is 78/min, blood pressure is 140/88 mmHg, oxygen saturation is 88% on air, respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute, and temperature is 36.4ºC. His chest expansion is symmetrical, and breath sounds are equal throughout the lung fields.

      Recent spirometry results show that his FEV1 was 47% a week ago, 53% a month ago, and 67% six months ago. What intervention would be most effective in slowing the decline of his FEV1?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smoking cessation

      Explanation:

      Slowing the decrease in FEV1 in COPD can be most effectively achieved by quitting smoking.

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenzae vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient does not have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE does not recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

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  • Question 26 - A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of hearing difficulties....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man visits his primary care physician with complaints of hearing difficulties. He states that he has been increasingly struggling to hear his wife's conversations for the past six months. He is concerned that this problem will worsen and eventually lead to complete hearing loss, making it difficult for him to communicate with his children over the phone. His wife is also distressed by the situation, as he frequently asks her to turn up the volume on the television. The man has no history of exposure to loud noises and has well-controlled hypertension. He is a retired police officer and currently resides with his wife. What is the primary pathology underlying this man's most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Degeneration of the cells at the cochlear base

      Explanation:

      The patient has a gradual-onset hearing loss, which is most likely due to presbycusis, an aging-related sensorineural hearing loss. This condition has multiple causes, including environmental factors like noise pollution and biological factors like genetics and oxidative stress. Damage to the organ of Corti stereocilia from exposure to sudden loud noises can also cause hearing loss, which is typically sudden and associated with a history of exposure to loud noises. Other conditions that can cause hearing loss include cholesteatoma, which is due to the accumulation of keratin debris in the middle ear, and otosclerosis, which is characterized by the overgrowth of bone in the middle ear.

      Anatomy of the Ear

      The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.

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  • Question 27 - A 20-year-old female presented to the hospital with a complaint of a sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female presented to the hospital with a complaint of a sore throat. She reported having a high-grade fever and severe pain on the right side of her throat for the past four days. The patient also experienced difficulty in swallowing and had restricted mouth opening. Additionally, she complained of bilateral ear pain and headache. Despite receiving oral antibiotics, her symptoms had worsened.

      Upon examination, the patient had a fever of 38.5ºC and prominent cervical lymphadenopathy. Swelling of the right soft palate was observed, and the uvula was deviated to the left.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)

      Explanation:

      Trismus, which is difficulty in opening the mouth, is a common symptom of peritonsillar abscess (also known as quinsy). It is important to note that quinsy is a complication of tonsillitis, not acute tonsillitis itself. Epiglottitis may present with muffled voice, drooling, and difficulty in breathing, while infectious mononucleosis is associated with other symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and enlarged lymph nodes and organs.

      Peritonsillar Abscess: Symptoms and Treatment

      A peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy, is a complication that can arise from bacterial tonsillitis. This condition is characterized by severe throat pain that is localized to one side, along with difficulty opening the mouth and reduced neck mobility. Additionally, the uvula may be deviated to the unaffected side. It is important to seek urgent medical attention from an ENT specialist if these symptoms are present.

      The treatment for a peritonsillar abscess typically involves needle aspiration or incision and drainage, along with intravenous antibiotics. In some cases, a tonsillectomy may be recommended to prevent recurrence of the abscess. It is important to follow the recommended treatment plan and attend all follow-up appointments to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.

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  • Question 28 - A 67-year-old female smoker with a two-month history of worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female smoker with a two-month history of worsening shortness of breath presents for evaluation. On examination, she appears comfortable at rest with a regular pulse of 72 bpm, respiratory rate of 16/min, and blood pressure of 128/82 mmHg. Physical findings include reduced expansion on the left lower zone, dullness to percussion over this area, and absent breath sounds over the left lower zone with bronchial breath sounds just above this region. What is the likely clinical diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pleural effusion

      Explanation:

      Pleural Effusion and its Investigation

      Pleural effusion is a condition where there is an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which is the space between the lungs and the chest wall. This can be caused by various factors such as post-infection, carcinoma, or emboli. To determine the cause of the pleural effusion, a pleural tap is the most appropriate investigation. The sample obtained from the pleural tap is sent for cytology, protein concentration, and culture.

      A normal pleural tap would have clear appearance, pH of 7.60-7.64, protein concentration of less than 2%, white blood cells count of less than 1000/mm³, glucose level similar to that of plasma, LDH level of less than 50% of plasma concentration, amylase level of 30-110 U/L, triglycerides level of less than 2 mmol/l, and cholesterol level of 3.5-6.5 mmol/l.

      A transudative tap is associated with conditions such as congestive heart failure, liver cirrhosis, severe hypoalbuminemia, and nephrotic syndrome. On the other hand, an exudative tap is associated with malignancy, infection (such as empyema due to bacterial pneumonia), trauma, pulmonary infarction, and pulmonary embolism.

      In summary, pleural effusion can be caused by various factors and a pleural tap is the most appropriate investigation to determine the cause. The results of the pleural tap can help differentiate between transudative and exudative effusions, which can provide important information for diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 29 - Which of the following organisms is not a common cause of respiratory tract...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following organisms is not a common cause of respiratory tract infections in elderly patients, with cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Strongyloides stercoralis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. It is an autosomal recessive condition that occurs due to a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates a chloride channel. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are caused by delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are at risk of colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia (previously known as Pseudomonas cepacia), and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to prevent further complications.

      Overall, understanding cystic fibrosis and its associated risks can help healthcare providers provide better care for patients with this condition.

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  • Question 30 - A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden worsening of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with a sudden worsening of his asthma symptoms. He is experiencing difficulty in speaking and breathing, with cyanosis of the lips and a respiratory rate of 33 breaths per minute. He reports feeling lightheaded. Although his airways are open, his chest sounds are faint upon auscultation. The patient is administered oxygen, nebulized salbutamol, and intravenous aminophylline.

      What is the mechanism of action of aminophylline?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Binds to adenosine receptors and blocks adenosine-mediated bronchoconstriction

      Explanation:

      Aminophylline works by binding to adenosine receptors and preventing adenosine-induced bronchoconstriction. This mode of action is different from antihistamines like loratadine, which is an incorrect option. Theophylline, a shorter acting form of aminophylline, competitively inhibits type III and type IV phosphodiesterase enzymes responsible for breaking down cyclic AMP in smooth muscle cells, leading to possible bronchodilation. Additionally, theophylline binds to the adenosine A2B receptor and blocks adenosine-mediated bronchoconstriction. In inflammatory conditions, theophylline activates histone deacetylase, which prevents the transcription of inflammatory genes that require histone acetylation for transcription to begin. Therefore, the last three options are incorrect. (Source: Drugbank)

      Aminophylline infusions are utilized to manage acute asthma and COPD. In patients who have not received xanthines (theophylline or aminophylline) before, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg is administered through a slow intravenous injection lasting at least 20 minutes. For the maintenance infusion, 1g of aminophylline is mixed with 1 litre of normal saline to create a solution of 1 mg/ml. The recommended dose is 500-700 mcg/kg/hour, or 300 mcg/kg/hour for elderly patients. It is important to monitor plasma theophylline concentrations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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Respiratory System (5/20) 25%
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