00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with acute...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) with acute pancreatitis caused by excessive alcohol consumption. His abdominal sepsis is complicated by multi-organ failure. He is currently receiving mechanical ventilation, inotropic support, and continuous haemodialysis in the ICU. What evidence-based strategies have been shown to decrease mortality in cases of sepsis?

      Your Answer: Maintenance of the patient’s blood sugar level between 4.4 and 6 mmol/l

      Explanation:

      Critical Care Management Strategies

      Maintaining the patient’s blood sugar level between 4.4 and 6 mmol/l is crucial in critical care management. Stress and severe illness can reduce insulin secretion, leading to hyperglycemia. Intravenous infusion of short-acting insulin is recommended to achieve this goal. However, in some cases, a range of 5-9 mmol/l may be necessary.

      Blood transfusion to maintain a haemoglobin level above 100 g/l is not recommended in critically ill patients. Studies show that it does not improve patient outcomes and may lead to potential complications. A haemoglobin level of 70-90 g/l is considered acceptable in the absence of ischaemic heart disease.

      High-dose steroids are not routinely recommended in septic shock management. However, they may be considered in patients with increasing vasopressor requirements and failure of other therapeutic strategies. Low-dose steroids have also not shown significant reduction in mortality rates.

      Nursing the patient semi-recumbent (sitting at 30-45 degrees) instead of completely flat is recommended to reduce the risk of ventilator-associated pneumonia. This position helps to prevent aspiration and promotes better lung function.

      Critical Care Management Strategies for Patients in ICU

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      2174.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 7-year-old girl was brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl was brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. Her lips were swollen; she had stridor and was short of breath, and she was sweaty and clammy. She has a known allergy to shellfish and had eaten some seafood at a family gathering.
      What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline intramuscularly (im)

      Correct Answer: 300 mcg of 1 : 1000 adrenaline im

      Explanation:

      Correct Doses and Administration of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis

      Adrenaline is a crucial medication for treating anaphylaxis, and it is always administered intramuscularly (im) at a concentration of 1:1000. However, it is essential to know the correct doses and volumes for different age groups, as vials can vary.

      For adults and children over 12 years old, the appropriate dose is 500 mcg or 0.5 ml. For children aged 6-12 years, the correct dose is 300 mcg or 0.3 ml. For children under 6 years old, the recommended dose is 150 mcg or 0.15 ml.

      It is crucial to administer the correct dose for the patient’s age and weight to avoid adverse effects. Additionally, it is essential to administer adrenaline im and not intravenously (iv) to prevent complications. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure safe and effective treatment of anaphylaxis with adrenaline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home...

    Incorrect

    • A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with a 4-day history of fever and lethargy. He has a background history of chronic urinary catheterisation for benign prostatic hyperplasia. On clinical examination, he is noted to be acutely confused. His temperature is 38.5 °C, and he has a heart rate of 97 bpm, blood pressure of 133/70 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count 13 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Blood glucose 6 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
      Urinalysis
      2+ blood
      2+ leukocytes
      1+ nitrites
      NAD
      What is the diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Urinary tract infection

      Correct Answer: Sepsis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sepsis, SIRS, Urinary Tract Infection, and Septic Shock

      Sepsis is a serious medical condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. One way to diagnose sepsis is by using the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria, which include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever or hypo/hyperthermia, and leukocytosis, leukopenia, or bandemia. If a patient meets two or more of these criteria, with or without evidence of infection, they may be diagnosed with SIRS.

      A urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common type of infection that can occur in patients with a long-term catheter. However, if a patient with a UTI also meets the SIRS criteria and has a source of infection, they should be treated as sepsis.

      Septic shock is a severe complication of sepsis that occurs when blood pressure drops to dangerously low levels. In this case, there is no evidence of septic shock as the patient’s blood pressure is normal.

      In summary, this patient meets the SIRS criteria for sepsis and has a source of infection, making it a case of high-risk sepsis. It is important to understand the differences between sepsis, SIRS, UTI, and septic shock to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      74.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He was wearing a helmet at the time of the crash; the helmet cracked on impact. At presentation, he is haemodynamically stable and examination is unremarkable, aside from superficial abrasions on the arms and legs. Specifically, he is neurologically intact. He is nevertheless offered admission for head injury charting and observation. Two hours after admission, nurses find him unresponsive, with a unilateral fixed, dilated pupil. An emergency computed tomography (CT) scan is performed.
      What is the likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH)

      Correct Answer: Extradural haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Extradural Haemorrhage: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Extradural haemorrhage is a type of head injury that can lead to neurological compromise and coma if left untreated. It is typically caused by trauma to the middle meningeal artery, meningeal veins, or a dural venous sinus. The condition is most prevalent in young men involved in road traffic accidents and is characterized by a lucid interval followed by a decrease in consciousness.

      CT scans typically show a high-density, lens-shaped collection of peripheral blood in the extradural space between the inner table of the skull bones and the dural surface. As the blood collects, patients may experience severe headache, vomiting, confusion, fits, hemiparesis, and ipsilateral pupil dilation.

      Treatment for extradural haemorrhage involves urgent decompression by creating a borehole above the site of the clot. Prognosis is poor if the patient is comatose or decerebrate or has a fixed pupil, but otherwise, it is excellent.

      It is important to differentiate extradural haemorrhage from other types of head injuries, such as subdural haemorrhage, subarachnoid haemorrhage, and Intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Subdural haemorrhage is not limited by cranial sutures, while subarachnoid haemorrhage is characterized by blood lining the sulci of the brain. Intraparenchymal haemorrhage, on the other hand, refers to blood within the brain parenchyma.

      In conclusion, extradural haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past 8 hours. He is becoming dehydrated and confused. Shortly after admission, he develops increasing shortness of breath. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 128/75 mmHg, a pulse of 92 bpm, and bilateral crackles on chest auscultation. The jugular venous pressure is not elevated. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 118 g/l, a WCC of 14.8 × 109/l, a platelet count of 162 × 109/l, a sodium level of 140 mmol/l, a potassium level of 4.8 mmol/l, a creatinine level of 195 μmol/l, and an amylase level of 1330 U/l. Arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.31, a pO2 of 8.2 kPa, and a pCO2 of 5.5 kPa. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Bilateral lung aspiration

      Correct Answer: Acute (adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

      Explanation:

      Mucopolysacchirodosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      138.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at home. He...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at home. He is brought to Accident and Emergency where he is found to have superficial abrasions to the right side of his chest and upper abdomen, together with an obvious deformity of the right humerus. Radiograph of the right arm shows a displaced midshaft humerus fracture. Neurovascular examination reveals radial nerve palsy, together with absent peripheral pulses and a cool, clammy distal arm. He was given oral paracetamol at home, while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. Pain score remains 9/10. Parameters are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Temperature 36.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
      Pulse 110 bpm 60–100 bpm
      Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
      Oxygen saturations 98% on room air 94–98%
      Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
      Which of the following is the most appropriate form of pain relief?

      Your Answer: IV morphine

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Analgesic for Acute Pain: A Case-by-Case Basis

      Analgesia is typically administered in a stepwise manner, but emergency medicine requires a more individualized approach. In cases of acute pain from long bone fractures, non-opioid analgesia may not be sufficient. The two most viable options are oral and IV morphine, with IV morphine being preferred due to its rapid onset and safe side-effect profile. However, caution must be exercised due to the risk of respiratory depression and dependency. Oral NSAIDs and morphine are contraindicated as the patient must be kept nil by mouth before urgent surgical intervention. Oxycodone prolonged release is too weak for severe pain. Choosing the right analgesic for acute pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      200
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old with a known peanut allergy arrives at the Emergency Department after consuming a peanut butter sandwich. During the examination, she displays symptoms of anaphylaxis.
      What is the initial sign that is likely to appear first in a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?

      Your Answer: Runny nose, skin rash, swelling of the lips

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Signs of Anaphylaxis: From Early Symptoms to Late Indicators of Shock

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. The first signs of anaphylaxis may look like normal symptoms of an allergy, such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips. However, if left untreated, more serious signs can appear within 30 minutes, indicating compromise of circulation and end-organs.

      One of the later and more severe indicators of respiratory compromise in patients with anaphylaxis is stridor. This is a prominent wheezing sound caused by the obstruction of the airway due to swelling of the lips, tongue, and throat. If the swelling continues, complete blockage can occur, resulting in asphyxiation.

      Hypotension is another late sign of anaphylaxis when the patient goes into shock. During anaphylaxis, the body reacts and releases chemicals such as histamine, causing blood vessels to vasodilate and leading to a drop in blood pressure. This can result in episodes of syncope, or fainting, as well as other symptoms of end-organ dysfunction such as hypotonia and incontinence.

      A weak pulse is also a late sign of anaphylaxis, indicating compromised circulation. However, it is not one of the first signs to present, as the body goes through a series of reactions before reaching this stage.

      In summary, understanding the signs of anaphylaxis is crucial for prompt treatment and prevention of life-threatening complications. Early symptoms such as a runny nose, skin rash, and swelling of the lips should not be ignored, as they can progress to more severe indicators of respiratory and circulatory compromise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      49.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You have just received a 70-year-old woman into the resus room who had...

    Correct

    • You have just received a 70-year-old woman into the resus room who had a witnessed collapse after complaining of chest pain. There was no pulse and CPR was performed at the scene. CPR is ongoing upon patient arrival in the Emergency Department. Pulse check demonstrates no palpable central pulse and there is no respiratory effort. A 3-lead ECG demonstrates no coordinated electrical activity or recognisable complexes, looking very much like a wandering flat line.
      What is the most appropriate management of this patient?

      Your Answer: 1 mg of adrenaline 1 : 10 000 intravenously (iv), and continue CPR

      Explanation:

      Correct Management of Cardiac Arrest: Understanding the Appropriate Interventions

      When faced with a patient in cardiac arrest, it is crucial to understand the appropriate interventions for the specific situation. In the case of a patient in asystole, the non-shockable side of the Advanced Life Support algorithm should be followed, with CPR 30 : 2 and 1 mg of adrenaline 10 ml of 1 : 10 000 iv every other cycle of CPR. It is important to note that a shock is not indicated for asystole.

      Adrenaline 1 : 1000 im should not be given in cardiac arrest situations, as it is used for anaphylaxis. External pacing is unlikely to be successful in the absence of P-wave asystole. Atropine is no longer recommended for use in Advanced Life Support.

      By understanding the appropriate interventions for different cardiac arrest situations, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      83.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 85-year-old woman has been brought to Accident and Emergency from her residential...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old woman has been brought to Accident and Emergency from her residential home due to increasing concern from staff there. She has been experiencing increasing confusion over the past few days, which staff initially attributed to her Alzheimer's dementia. She has a known history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), but no other long-term medical conditions. During the ambulance ride to the hospital, she was given intravenous (IV) paracetamol. Unfortunately, you are unable to obtain any useful medical history from her. However, she is responding to voice only, with some minor abdominal tenderness found on examination and little else. She appears to be in shock, and her vital signs are as follows:
      Temperature 37.6 °C
      Blood pressure 88/52 mmHg
      Heart rate 112 bpm
      Saturations 92% on room air
      An electrocardiogram (ECG) is performed, which shows first-degree heart block and nothing else.
      What type of shock is this woman likely experiencing?

      Your Answer: Cardiogenic

      Correct Answer: Septic

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Shock Types: A Case Vignette

      An elderly woman presents with a change in mental state, indicating delirium. Abdominal tenderness suggests a urinary tract infection (UTI), which may have progressed to sepsis. Although there is no pyrexia, the patient has received IV paracetamol, which could mask a fever. Anaphylactic shock is unlikely as there is no mention of new medication administration. Hypovolaemic shock is also unlikely as there is no evidence of blood loss or volume depletion. Cardiogenic shock is improbable due to the absence of cardiac symptoms. Neurogenic shock is not a consideration as there is no indication of spinal pathology. Urgent intervention is necessary to treat the sepsis according to sepsis guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      207.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in...

    Correct

    • You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in front of you. There is nobody else around. You look, listen and feel, ensuring his airway is open. He is not breathing and is unresponsive. You phone for an ambulance.
      What is the next step that you would take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?

      Your Answer: Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute, giving two rescue breaths after every 30 compressions

      Explanation:

      How to Perform Chest Compressions and Rescue Breaths in Basic Life Support

      When faced with a non-responsive person who is not breathing, it is important to act quickly and perform basic life support. Begin by confirming that the person is not breathing and calling for an ambulance. Then, kneel by the person’s side and place the heel of one hand in the centre of their chest, with the other hand on top, interlocking fingers. Apply pressure to the sternum to a depth of 5-6 cm at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. After 30 compressions, open the airway and give two rescue breaths. Pinch the nose closed and blow steadily into the mouth, watching for the chest to rise. Repeat chest compressions and rescue breaths until help arrives.

      Note: The previous recommendation of two rescue breaths before chest compressions has been replaced with immediate chest compressions. Do not delay potentially life saving resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      116
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (5/10) 50%
Passmed