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Question 1
Correct
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A 25-year-old man collapses while playing basketball with his friends on a weekend. He is brought to the emergency department but is pronounced dead after experiencing cardiac arrest, despite receiving adequate life support. His family is in shock and cannot comprehend how this could have happened, as he was always healthy and an avid athlete. However, they do mention that two other family members have also died young under similar circumstances.
What is the correct method of inheritance for this condition?Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Explanation:Based on the individual’s cause of death and family medical history, it is likely that hypertrophic cardiomyopathy was a contributing factor. This condition involves thickening of the heart muscle, which can lead to impaired cardiac function and sudden death, particularly in young athletes. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy often has a genetic component, with familial cases being inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and linked to mutations in genes that encode for sarcomere proteins. The presence of asymmetric septal hypertrophy and systolic anterior movement on echocardiogram or cMR further supports a diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is caused by mutations in genes encoding contractile proteins. It is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, diastolic dysfunction, and myofibrillar hypertrophy with disarray and fibrosis on biopsy. HOCM can be asymptomatic or present with exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, sudden death, arrhythmias, heart failure, jerky pulse, and systolic murmurs. It is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 38-year-old female patient comes to the clinic and inquires about breast cancer screening. She mentions that her mother was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. Upon further inquiry, she reveals that her aunt (on her mother's side) had ovarian cancer and her uncle (on her father's side) had colorectal cancer. What is the next course of action in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer to the breast clinic
Explanation:If an individual has a family history of breast cancer and ovarian cancer, they should be referred to a breast clinic at a younger age. This is especially important if they have a first-degree or second-degree relative who was diagnosed with breast cancer at any age, as well as a first-degree or second-degree relative who was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at any age (with one of these relatives being a first-degree relative). It is not safe to wait for routine screening, as there may be a risk of familial breast cancer. It is also important to note that breast cancer can still be present even if there is no lump detected during examination. A colonoscopy is not necessary in this case, as the individual is at an increased risk of breast cancer.
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.
For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 45-year old woman became pregnant unexpectedly. She had given birth to five healthy children in her 20s and 30s with her now 47-year-old husband. Chorionic villus biopsy and karyotype analysis revealed that she was carrying a fetus with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
What is the most likely cause of the condition?Your Answer: The mother’s age
Explanation:Down syndrome is a genetic condition that is caused by three mechanisms. The most common cause is Trisomy 21, which occurs when there is a non-separation of the homologous chromosomes during meiosis. This risk increases with advancing maternal age, with a likelihood of 1 in 1500 at age 20 and 1 in 50 at age 45 or older. Translocation, where part of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome, accounts for about 4% of cases. Mosaicism, where only some cells carry the extra copy of chromosome 21, is the rarest type. Paternal age is not a significant factor, but if either parent is a translocation carrier, there is a 1 in 2 chance of passing it on to their offspring. A spontaneous mutation in the fetus is not a cause of Down syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Male infertility in cystic fibrosis is mostly due to which of the following?
Your Answer: Decreased spermatogenesis
Correct Answer: Obliteration or failure of development of the vas deferens
Explanation:Understanding the Reproductive and Sexual Health Implications of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic disorder that affects multiple organs, including the lungs, pancreas, and reproductive system. In over 95% of male patients with CF, infertility is caused by the congenital absence or obliteration of the vas deferens, leading to azoospermia. However, advancements in fertility treatments and surgical techniques have made it possible for some male patients to conceive. Impotence is not a symptom of CF. With significant improvements in diagnosis and treatment, the median survival age of CF patients has increased to around 40 years, with some individuals living into their 60s. Delayed puberty is a common occurrence in both male and female CF patients, but it is not a cause of infertility. Decreased spermatogenesis is not typically seen in CF. Understanding the reproductive and sexual health implications of CF is crucial for patients and healthcare providers to provide appropriate care and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is pregnant with her first child. She is offered screening for chromosomal abnormalities and an ultrasound assessment.
She decides to proceed with testing, which assesses nuchal thickness, pregnancy-associated plasma protein-A (PAPP-A), free beta-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-hCG) and crown-rump length. She is told the pregnancy is a high risk for Down syndrome, and she and her partner are offered an amniocentesis.
Which one of the following statements regarding amniocentesis is correct?Your Answer: It carries a 10–20% chance of miscarriage
Correct Answer: It is associated with an increased risk of fetal limb defects
Explanation:A 32-year-old woman visits the general surgery practice with a 2-year history of occasional abdominal discomfort, bloating and change in bowel habit, which alternates between loose stools and constipation. She reports that these episodes are most intense during her work-related stress and after consuming spicy food. There is no history of weight loss or presence of blood or mucus in the stool. Physical examination, including digital rectal examination, is unremarkable. Bloods, including full blood count, liver function test, thyroid function test and coeliac screen are all normal.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of amenorrhoea. Her parents inform the doctor that she requires extra support at school due to learning difficulties. During the examination, the doctor observes sparse breast development, broad shoulders, a wide neck, and elevated blood pressure. What is the most probable chromosomal abnormality in this patient?
Your Answer: 47 XXX
Correct Answer: 45 XO
Explanation:Common Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Associated Conditions
45 XO is a chromosomal abnormality associated with Turner syndrome, which is characterized by sparse breast development, broad shoulders, high blood pressure, and a wide neck.
46 XY is the normal karyotype for men, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur.
46 XX is the normal karyotype for women, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur.
47 XXX is the chromosomal abnormality associated with triple X syndrome, which can be asymptomatic or result in learning difficulties, tall stature, or microcephaly.
47 XXY is the chromosomal abnormality associated with Klinefelter syndrome, which is characterized by tall stature, gynaecomastia, and infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 7
Correct
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You assess a teenager in clinic with a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. He struggles to stand up, using his arms to assist him in rising from a squat. What is this maneuver called?
Your Answer: Gower's sign
Explanation:Understanding Dystrophinopathies
Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It plays a crucial role in connecting the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.
Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both of the binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other common symptoms include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.
In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene. This mutation preserves both binding sites, resulting in a less severe form of the disorder. Symptoms typically develop after the age of 10 years, and intellectual impairment is much less common in patients with Becker muscular dystrophy.
Overall, understanding dystrophinopathies is important for early diagnosis and management of these disorders. While there is currently no cure for dystrophinopathies, early intervention and supportive care can help improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 8
Correct
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A 45-year-old female patient visits the clinic and expresses concern about breast cancer screening. She is anxious because her sister was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She wants to know if she should undergo breast cancer screening. The patient is in good health and has no other family history. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Refer to the breast clinic
Explanation:A referral to secondary care is necessary when there is a history of breast cancer in the patient’s paternal family. This is because breast cancer may not be detectable during a routine breast examination, and waiting for a screening appointment could result in a delayed diagnosis. It is important to note that a review in one year may also lead to a delay in diagnosis, as the patient is at a high risk for familial breast cancer.
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.
For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old girl is referred to the paediatric clinic for failure to thrive. She has failed to maintain her weight and suffers from frequent vomiting and respiratory tract infections. A sweat test is performed and the chloride content of the sweat is 72 mmol/l (normal level <60 mmol/l).
Which of the following modes of inheritance fits best with this condition?Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Understanding Cystic Fibrosis: Inheritance and Characteristics
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the chloride transport and secretion viscosity in the body due to a mutation in the CFTR gene. This disorder follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance, meaning that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) to develop the disease. The most common mutation involved is the Δ508 mutation.
Cystic fibrosis is prevalent in northern European populations, with a frequency of approximately 1 in 3200. Males with the disease are often infertile due to congenital absence of the vas deferens.
It is important to note that cystic fibrosis is not an autosomal dominant or sex-linked disorder. Chromosomal non-disjunction and translocation can cause other genetic conditions, but they are not associated with cystic fibrosis. Understanding the inheritance and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can aid in diagnosis and management of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited illnesses. Her grandmother experienced vision loss at the age of 70, while her mother began to have similar symptoms at the age of 50. What is the genetic mechanism responsible for the earlier age of onset in each generation?
Your Answer: Genetic imprinting
Correct Answer: Anticipation
Explanation:Genetic Phenomena: Anticipation, Incomplete Penetrance, Genetic Imprinting, Mosaicism, and Translocation of a Chromosome
Genetics is a complex field that involves the study of inherited traits and conditions. There are several genetic phenomena that can occur, each with its own unique characteristics and implications.
Anticipation is a term used to describe inherited conditions that become more severe and have an earlier onset in subsequent generations. This is often associated with trinucleotide repeats of DNA bases, which can lead to an expansion of the repeat and an increase in severity.
Incomplete penetrance refers to the likelihood of a condition being present in individuals with a certain trait. In some cases, only some people who inherit a certain trait will develop the associated condition, while others will not.
Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of one copy of an allele, which can lead to conditions such as Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes.
Mosaicism is the presence of two cell lines with different genetic compositions within the same individual. This can occur in conditions such as mosaic trisomy 21.
Translocation of a chromosome involves the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. This can lead to conditions such as chronic myeloid leukemia, which is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome resulting from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.
Understanding these genetic phenomena is important for diagnosing and treating inherited conditions, as well as for predicting the likelihood of certain conditions in future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is presenting with swelling of her hands and feet and an abnormally wide neck. Upon karyotyping, it is discovered that she has monosomy X and 45X. During physical examination, mild aortic stenosis is observed. What congenital condition is most likely linked to this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Post-ductal coarctation
Correct Answer: Coarctation of the aorta
Explanation:Differentiating Coarctation of the Aorta from Other Congenital Heart Diseases
Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart disease that can present in different forms and be associated with various genetic abnormalities. Preductal coarctation of the aorta, which is more common in Turner syndrome, is characterized by aortic stenosis proximal to the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. On the other hand, post-ductal coarctation is the adult type of the disease and is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Patent ductus arteriosus, another congenital heart disease, is not associated with any genetic abnormalities. Tetralogy of Fallot, which is associated with di George syndrome, and transposition of the great vessels are also congenital heart diseases that can be differentiated from coarctation of the aorta. Understanding the different clinical features and associations of these diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 16-month-old child has been referred to the haematology team due to painful bone swellings in the hands and feet, along with a positive family history of sickle cell disease. What is the mode of inheritance for this condition?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Explanation:Sickle cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene, one from each parent who are carriers of the condition. Huntington’s Disease is an example of an autosomal dominant condition, while Fragile X syndrome is an example of an X-linked dominant condition. Haemophilia is an example of an X-linked recessive condition, and alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is an example of a co-dominant condition.
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder that occurs when abnormal haemoglobin, known as HbS, is produced due to an autosomal recessive condition. This condition is more common in individuals of African descent, as the heterozygous condition provides some protection against malaria. About 10% of UK Afro-Caribbean’s are carriers of HbS, and they only experience symptoms if they are severely hypoxic. Homozygotes tend to develop symptoms between 4-6 months when the abnormal HbSS molecules replace fetal haemoglobin.
The pathophysiology of sickle-cell anaemia involves the substitution of the polar amino acid glutamate with the non-polar valine in each of the two beta chains (codon 6) of haemoglobin. This substitution decreases the water solubility of deoxy-Hb, causing HbS molecules to polymerise and sickle RBCs in the deoxygenated state. HbAS patients sickle at p02 2.5 – 4 kPa, while HbSS patients sickle at p02 5 – 6 kPa. Sickle cells are fragile and haemolyse, blocking small blood vessels and causing infarction.
The definitive diagnosis of sickle-cell anaemia is through haemoglobin electrophoresis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A child is born with a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The parents are informed of this. What is the most likely condition that the child has?
Your Answer: Phenylketonuria
Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder causing muscle weakness and wasting. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease affecting chloride transport and causing thick mucus secretions. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive disorder of methionine metabolism leading to accumulation of homocysteine and its metabolites. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disease causing mental retardation due to the inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder causing deformed red blood cells and oxygen deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 45-year old teacher is diagnosed with a medical condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.
Which of the following diseases is best described as being inherited in an autosomal dominant manner?Your Answer: Wilson disease
Correct Answer: Familial hypercholesterolaemia
Explanation:Familial hypercholesterolaemia is a single gene disorder inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. Mutations in genes such as LDLR, Apo, and PCSK9 affect cholesterol handling in the body. Patients with mutations in the LDLR gene produce a defective receptor that cannot bind LDLs, leading to cholesterol accumulation outside cells and atherosclerosis. Heterozygotes are at risk of developing premature cardiovascular disease, while homozygotes can develop severe cardiovascular disease in childhood. Cystic fibrosis is the most common autosomal recessive disease caused by mutations in the CFTR gene, inhibiting the flow of chloride ions and water, leaving mucus thickened and blocking hollow organs. Hereditary haemochromatosis is caused by mutations in the HFE gene, leading to iron overload. Sickle cell anaemia is caused by a mutation in the gene coding for β globin, leading to deformed red cells that block circulation and cause tissue oxygen deficiency. Wilson’s disease is caused by a defective copper-transporting ATPase, leading to copper accumulation in the liver, brain, and other tissues, which can be fatal if not recognized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 15
Correct
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A 27-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about his increased risk of breast cancer due to his sister's recent diagnosis at the age of 30 years with a BRCA2 mutation. He is considering getting tested for the mutation. If he were to test positive for BRCA2, what other type of cancer would he be at a higher risk for?
Your Answer: Prostate
Explanation:Men with BRCA2 mutation are at a higher risk of developing prostate cancer, while both men and women with this mutation have a significantly increased risk of developing breast cancer. Additionally, women with BRCA2 mutation are more likely to develop ovarian cancer. Although young-onset colorectal cancer is linked to BRCA1 mutation, there is no such association observed in individuals with BRCA2 mutation.
Li-Fraumeni Syndrome is caused by mutations in the p53 gene and increases the risk of developing sarcomas and leukemias. BRCA 1 and 2 mutations increase the risk of breast and ovarian cancer, and BRCA 2 is also associated with prostate cancer in men. Lynch Syndrome increases the risk of colon and endometrial cancer, and can be identified using the Amsterdam criteria. Gardner’s Syndrome is a familial colorectal polyposis that can lead to colectomy to reduce the risk of colorectal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth or in adolescence and adulthood, a teenager seeks genetic counselling. His mother and brother have PKU, while his father is a carrier but does not have the disease. The teenager himself does not have PKU. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?
Your Answer: 50%
Correct Answer: 100%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance and Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Autosomal-recessive diseases require both parents to carry the gene, with one parent having the disease and the other being a carrier. In the case of Phenylketonuria (PKU), a specific enzyme deficiency leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine and a deficiency of tyrosine, resulting in reduced melanin and pigmented areas of the brain being affected. PKU is tested for at birth using the Guthrie test and can be treated by removing phenylalanine from the diet.
In the given scenario, the teenager’s mother has the disease and his father is a carrier. This means there is a 100% chance that the teenager has at least one abnormal copy of the gene, making him a carrier. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of autosomal-recessive diseases to identify carriers and prevent mental retardation in affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 17
Correct
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A preterm baby boy is found to have meconium ileus shortly after birth.
Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with meconium ileus?Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Explanation:Common Genetic Conditions and Associated Manifestations
Cystic Fibrosis, Edward Syndrome, Down Syndrome, Myelomeningocele, and Patau Syndrome are all genetic conditions that can have various manifestations. Cystic Fibrosis affects multiple organ systems, including the lungs, liver, pancreas, and small bowel, leading to progressive organ failure. Edward Syndrome is a trisomy syndrome with a high incidence of major structural anomalies, including congenital heart disease and central nervous system abnormalities. Down Syndrome is the most common trisomy and is associated with characteristic facial features and an increased risk for congenital heart disease and gastrointestinal anomalies. Myelomeningocele is a spinal anomaly that can result in lower limb paralysis and bladder and bowel dysfunction. Patau Syndrome is the least common trisomy syndrome and is associated with congenital heart disease, central nervous system and spinal abnormalities, abnormal facies, and polydactyly. Meconium ileus is a common manifestation associated with Cystic Fibrosis in all of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 32-year-old primigravid woman at twelve weeks gestation visits her obstetrician for a routine booking appointment. She has sickle cell anaemia. She has sickle cell anaemia. Her partner’s sickle cell status is Hb AS. Her haemoglobin is 92 g/l (normal range: 115–155 g/l).
What is the likelihood of her baby having sickle cell disease?Your Answer: 1 in 2
Explanation:Probability of Inheriting Sickle Cell Disease
Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive condition that affects the haemoglobin in red blood cells. If one parent has sickle cell anaemia (HbSS) and the other is a carrier (HbAS), the baby has a 1 in 2 chance of inheriting the condition. The baby will inherit the HbS allele from the mother and either the HbA or HbS allele from the father, resulting in possible genotypes of HbAS, HbSS, HbAS, or HbSS. This gives the baby a 1 in 2 chance of having sickle cell disease and a 1 in 2 chance of being a carrier.
If both parents are carriers (HbAS), the baby has a 1 in 4 chance of inheriting sickle cell disease. If one parent has the condition and the other is a carrier, there is a 1 in 2 chance the child will inherit the condition. In the case of a heterozygous father and a mother with sickle cell disease, there is a 1 in 3 chance of the baby having the condition. Finally, if both parents are carriers and the baby inherits one HbS allele from each parent, there is a 1 in 8 chance of the baby having sickle cell disease and a 3 in 8 chance of being a carrier. Understanding the probabilities of inheriting sickle cell disease can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 19
Correct
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A 35-year-old man who is generally healthy visits his doctor to discuss planning a second child. His main concern is that his first child has sickle cell anemia. Both he and his partner have had genetic testing and are both carriers of the sickle cell trait.
Which of the following best describes the likelihood of his next child having sickle cell anemia?Your Answer: 25%
Explanation:Understanding the Inheritance of Cystic Fibrosis
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is an autosomal-recessive condition that affects many individuals worldwide. To understand the inheritance of CF, it is important to know that a child inherits one copy of the gene from each parent. If both parents are carriers of the faulty gene, there is a 1 in 4 chance of their child being affected by the condition.
If the child inherits one normal and one abnormal gene, they become a carrier of CF. The chance of this happening is 50%. If the child inherits two normal genes, they will not be affected nor be a carrier of CF, and the chance of this happening is 25%. However, if the child inherits two copies of the faulty gene, they will be affected by the condition, and the chance of this happening is also 25%.
It is important to note that the fact that the first child has CF does not affect the risk to subsequent children. The risk remains the same for each child, as each child inherits a copy of the gene from each parent. Understanding the inheritance of CF can help individuals make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 20
Correct
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A 35-year-old Jewish woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and found to be BRCA1-positive. What type of cancer is she most susceptible to developing?
Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Explanation:BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 Mutations and Their Association with Cancer
BRCA-1 and BRCA-2 are tumour suppressor genes that play a crucial role in repairing damaged DNA and preventing uncontrolled cell division. Mutations in these genes have been linked to an increased risk of developing various types of cancer, including breast, ovarian, prostate, pancreatic, and colorectal cancers. Ashkenazi Jews have a higher incidence of BRCA mutations, and women with a family history of breast cancer can be tested for these mutations. The risk of developing breast cancer is high for women with abnormal BRCA-1 or -2, but the risk for ovarian cancer is lower. There is currently no association between BRCA-1 mutations and cervical, endometrial, gastric, or lung cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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