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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man is 2 days post-op for a laparoscopic prostatectomy and experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man is 2 days post-op for a laparoscopic prostatectomy and experiences difficulty breathing. He has been unable to move around since his surgery and is experiencing poorly managed pain. He has no significant medical history.
      During the examination, he is lying flat in bed and his oxygen saturation is at 95% on room air. His calves are soft and non-tender. A chest X-ray reveals basal atelectasis.
      What immediate measures should be taken to improve his breathing?

      Your Answer: 4L via nasal specs

      Correct Answer: Reposition the patient to an upright position

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s oxygen saturation levels remain low, administering high flow oxygen would not be appropriate as it is not an emergency situation. Instead, it would be more reasonable to begin with 1-2L of oxygen and reevaluate the need for further oxygen therapy, as weaning off oxygen could potentially prolong the patient’s hospital stay.

      Atelectasis is a frequent complication that can occur after surgery, where the collapse of the alveoli in the lower part of the lungs can cause breathing difficulties. This condition is caused by the blockage of airways due to the accumulation of bronchial secretions. Symptoms of atelectasis may include shortness of breath and low oxygen levels, which typically appear around 72 hours after surgery. To manage this condition, patients may be positioned upright and undergo chest physiotherapy, which includes breathing exercises.

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      • Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of shortness of breath and a...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of shortness of breath and a cough with green sputum for the past week. She has no known drug allergies and is not taking any medication. Upon examination, her respiratory rate is 18/min, and her oxygen saturation is 95%. Her blood pressure is 126/74 mmHg, and her pulse rate is 84 bpm. She has a body temperature of 37.8 ÂșC. A chest x-ray is ordered. What is the most appropriate drug treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Amoxicillin is the recommended first-line antibiotic for treating low-severity community-acquired pneumonia (CAP). In this case, the patient’s CRB-65 score indicates that she has low-severity CAP, making amoxicillin the appropriate choice for treatment. Clarithromycin and doxycycline are also used to treat pneumonia, but they are typically reserved for cases caused by atypical organisms. Co-amoxiclav and co-amoxiclav with clarithromycin are not recommended for low-severity CAP, as they are typically used for more severe cases. To be classified as high-severity CAP, a patient would need to meet specific criteria, such as confusion, a respiratory rate over 30 breaths/min, and being 65 years or older.

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

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  • Question 3 - A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is...

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    • A 76-year-old male who is currently receiving end of life care and is on opioids for pain management requests some pain relief for breakthrough pain. He has a medical history of metastatic lung cancer, hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic kidney disease. Earlier in the day, his latest blood results were as follows:

      Hb 121 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 340 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 9.7 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Na+ 142 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 4.9 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 25.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 624 ”mol/L (55 - 120)

      eGFR 9 mL/min/1.73mÂČ (>90)

      CRP 19 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most appropriate pain relief for this situation?

      Your Answer: Sublingual fentanyl

      Explanation:

      For palliative care patients with severe renal impairment, fentanyl or buprenorphine are the preferred opioids for pain relief. This is because they are not excreted through the kidneys, reducing the risk of toxicity compared to morphine. Fentanyl is the top choice due to its liver metabolism, making it less likely to cause harm in patients with a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of less than 10 mL/min/1.73ÂČ. Oxycodone can be used in mild to moderate renal impairment (GFR 10-50 mL/min/1.73ÂČ), but it should be avoided in severe cases as it is partially excreted through the kidneys. Ibuprofen is not recommended as it is a weaker pain reliever than opioids and is contraindicated in patients with poor renal function.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

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  • Question 4 - A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with peri-umbilical pain. The pain...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female presents to the emergency department with peri-umbilical pain. The pain is sharp in nature, is exacerbated by coughing and came on gradually over the past 12 hours. On examination, she is unable to stand on one leg comfortably and experiences pain on hip extension. The is no rebound tenderness or guarding. A urine pregnancy test is negative, and her temperature is 37.4ÂșC. The following tests are done:

      Hb 135 g/L Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 300 * 109/L (150 - 400)

      WBC 14 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)

      Neuts 11 * 109/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Lymphs 2 * 109/L (1.0 - 3.5)

      Mono 0.8 * 109/L (0.2 - 0.8)

      Eosin 0.2 * 109/L (0.0 - 0.4)

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)

      K+ 4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)

      Urea 6 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)

      Creatinine 80 ”mol/L (55 - 120)

      CRP 24 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute appendicitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for individuals experiencing pain in the peri-umbilical region is acute appendicitis. Early appendicitis is characterized by this type of pain, and a positive psoas sign is also present. A neutrophil predominant leucocytosis is observed on the full blood count, indicating an infection. Ovarian torsion can cause sharp pain, but it is typically sudden and severe, not gradually worsening over 12 hours. Inguinal hernia pain is more likely to be felt in the groin area, not peri-umbilical, and there is no mention of a mass during the abdominal examination. Suprapubic pain and lower urinary tract symptoms such as dysuria are more likely to be associated with a lower urinary tract infection. In the absence of high fever and/or flank pain, an upper urinary tract infection is unlikely.

      Understanding Acute Appendicitis

      Acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires surgery and can occur at any age, but is most prevalent in young people aged 10-20 years. The pathogenesis of acute appendicitis involves lymphoid hyperplasia or a faecolith, which leads to the obstruction of the appendiceal lumen. This obstruction causes gut organisms to invade the appendix wall, leading to oedema, ischaemia, and possible perforation.

      The most common symptom of acute appendicitis is abdominal pain, which is usually peri-umbilical and radiates to the right iliac fossa due to localised peritoneal inflammation. Other symptoms include mild pyrexia, anorexia, and nausea. Examination may reveal generalised or localised peritonism, rebound and percussion tenderness, guarding, and rigidity.

      Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is typically based on raised inflammatory markers, compatible history, and examination findings. Imaging may be used in some cases, such as ultrasound in females where pelvic organ pathology is suspected. The treatment of choice for acute appendicitis is appendicectomy, which can be performed via an open or laparoscopic approach. Patients with perforated appendicitis require copious abdominal lavage, while those without peritonitis who have an appendix mass should receive broad-spectrum antibiotics and consideration given to performing an interval appendicectomy.

      In conclusion, acute appendicitis is a common condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the pathogenesis, symptoms, and management of acute appendicitis is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients.

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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue. Routine blood tests reveal Hb...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with symptoms of fatigue. Routine blood tests reveal Hb of 105 g/L, MCV of 104 fL, platelets of 305 * 109/L, and WBC of 9.3 * 109/L. Further tests reveal positive intrinsic factor antibodies. During the discussion of the diagnosis with the patient, the potential serious complications are brought up. What is one serious complication that can arise from this condition?

      Your Answer: Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Gastric cancer

      Explanation:

      The presence of pernicious anaemia, as indicated by the patient’s macrocytic anaemia and positive intrinsic factor antibodies, can increase the risk of developing gastric carcinoma. Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disease that impairs the production of intrinsic factor, leading to low levels of vitamin B12 and anaemia. While chronic lymphocytic leukaemia and non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma are not strongly linked to pernicious anaemia, they may be associated with genetic mutations acquired over time. Gastritis, which is not a serious complication, is more commonly associated with conditions such as Helicobacter pylori infection.

      Understanding Pernicious Anaemia

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.

      The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.

      Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.

      Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.

      Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.

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  • Question 6 - A 16-year-old male presents to the nephrology unit with a complaint of recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old male presents to the nephrology unit with a complaint of recurrent visible haematuria following upper respiratory tract infections. He denies any abdominal or loin pain. The urine dipstick is unremarkable, and blood tests reveal normal electrolyte levels and kidney function. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      Understanding IgA Nephropathy

      IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the mesangium, leading to mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3. The classic presentation is recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria in young males following an upper respiratory tract infection. Unlike post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy is not associated with low complement levels and typically does not present with nephrotic range proteinuria or renal failure.

      Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of proteinuria and renal function. Isolated hematuria without or minimal proteinuria and normal GFR requires only follow-up to monitor renal function. Persistent proteinuria with normal or slightly reduced GFR can be treated with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary. The prognosis of IgA nephropathy varies, with 25% of patients developing ESRF. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidemia, and ACE genotype DD, while frank hematuria is a marker of good prognosis.

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  • Question 7 - A 35-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man with a history of chronic alcohol abuse presents to the Emergency Department. He appears disheveled, disoriented, and experiences frequent falls. Upon examination, you observe that he has difficulty with balance and coordination, and bilateral lateral rectus palsy with nystagmus. His sensory examination reveals a polyneuropathy, and his pulse is 90 bpm. There is no agitation or tremor noted on examination.
      What is the most urgent treatment that should be administered to this patient?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Correct Answer: Pabrinex

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wernicke’s Encephalopathy

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that affects the brain and is caused by a deficiency in thiamine. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who abuse alcohol, but it can also be caused by persistent vomiting, stomach cancer, or dietary deficiencies. The classic triad of symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy includes oculomotor dysfunction, gait ataxia, and encephalopathy. Other symptoms may include peripheral sensory neuropathy and confusion.

      When left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome. This condition is characterized by antero- and retrograde amnesia and confabulation in addition to the symptoms associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      To diagnose Wernicke’s encephalopathy, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including a decreased red cell transketolase test and an MRI. Treatment for this condition involves urgent replacement of thiamine. With prompt treatment, individuals with Wernicke’s encephalopathy can recover fully.

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  • Question 8 - A patient in their 60s presents to the emergency department with right-sided hemiplegia,...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 60s presents to the emergency department with right-sided hemiplegia, facial weakness, and difficulty with speech. A stroke is suspected. What is the recommended tool for assessing a patient in this scenario?

      Your Answer: FAST

      Correct Answer: ROSIER

      Explanation:

      ROSIER is an acronym for a tool used to assess stroke symptoms in an acute setting.

      Assessment and Investigations for Stroke

      Whilst diagnosing a stroke may be straightforward in some cases, it can be challenging when symptoms are vague. The FAST screening tool, which stands for Face/Arms/Speech/Time, is a well-known tool used by the general public to identify stroke symptoms. However, medical professionals use a validated tool called the ROSIER score, recommended by the Royal College of Physicians. The ROSIER score assesses for loss of consciousness or syncope, seizure activity, and new, acute onset of asymmetric facial, arm, or leg weakness, speech disturbance, or visual field defect. A score of greater than zero indicates a likely stroke.

      When investigating suspected stroke, a non-contrast CT head scan is the first line radiological investigation. The key question to answer is whether the stroke is ischaemic or haemorrhagic, as this determines the appropriate management. Ischaemic strokes may show areas of low density in the grey and white matter of the territory, while haemorrhagic strokes typically show areas of hyperdense material surrounded by low density. It is important to identify the type of stroke promptly, as thrombolysis and thrombectomy play an increasing role in acute stroke management. In rare cases, a third pathology such as a tumour may also be detected.

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  • Question 9 - A 35 year old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of recent...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female patient visits her GP clinic complaining of recent paresthesia in her left leg. She was diagnosed with multiple sclerosis 4 months ago by the neurology department. The paresthesia has been ongoing for 3 days and is accompanied by increased fatigue and urinary frequency/urgency symptoms. A urine dip test shows no abnormalities. What is the most suitable treatment to initiate in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Methylprednisolone

      Explanation:

      In the case of this patient, it is probable that she is experiencing an acute relapse of her multiple sclerosis. A urine dip has been conducted to rule out a urinary tract infection, which could also cause a flare in her symptoms (known as Uhthoff’s phenomenon). As her symptoms are new and have persisted for more than 24 hours, it is likely that she requires treatment with methylprednisolone (either intravenous or oral) to manage the relapse.

      While Fingolimod, Natalizumab, and Beta-interferon are all disease modifying drugs that may reduce the frequency of relapses, they are not appropriate for treating acute relapses and should only be started in secondary care with proper drug counseling.

      Amantadine may be useful in managing fatigue, but it is recommended by NICE to only be trialed for fatigue once other potential causes have been ruled out. It is unlikely to be effective in treating the patient’s other symptoms.

      Multiple sclerosis is a condition that cannot be cured, but its treatment aims to reduce the frequency and duration of relapses. In the case of an acute relapse, high-dose steroids may be administered for five days to shorten its length. However, it is important to note that steroids do not affect the degree of recovery. Disease-modifying drugs are used to reduce the risk of relapse in patients with MS. These drugs are typically indicated for patients with relapsing-remitting disease or secondary progressive disease who have had two relapses in the past two years and are able to walk a certain distance unaided. Natalizumab, ocrelizumab, fingolimod, beta-interferon, and glatiramer acetate are some of the drugs used to reduce the risk of relapse in MS.

      Fatigue is a common problem in MS patients, and amantadine is recommended by NICE after excluding other potential causes such as anaemia, thyroid problems, or depression. Mindfulness training and CBT are other options for managing fatigue. Spasticity is another issue that can be addressed with first-line drugs such as baclofen and gabapentin, as well as physiotherapy. Cannabis and botox are currently being evaluated for their effectiveness in managing spasticity. Bladder dysfunction is also a common problem in MS patients, and anticholinergics may worsen symptoms in some patients. Ultrasound is recommended to assess bladder emptying, and intermittent self-catheterisation may be necessary if there is significant residual volume. Gabapentin is the first-line treatment for oscillopsia, which is a condition where visual fields appear to oscillate.

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  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after experiencing a strange episode. He appears confused and unable to provide a clear history, but his wife reports being awakened by him shaking around in bed. She notes that her husband has been complaining of headaches for the past five days and mentioned earlier today that his left hand felt weak. His vital signs are BP 128/85 mmHg, heart rate 82/min, temperature 39.5ÂșC, oxygen saturation 98% on room air, and respiratory rate 18/min. His blood glucose level is 5.6mmol/L, and his ECG is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meningitis

      Correct Answer: Brain abscess

      Explanation:

      The presence of fever, headache, and a focal neurological deficit, such as arm weakness, suggests a brain abscess as the correct diagnosis. Additionally, the patient’s history of seizures supports this diagnosis. However, diagnosing a brain abscess can be challenging, as the classic triad of symptoms is only present in a minority of cases. Epilepsy is unlikely due to the presence of fever and arm weakness, and the absence of a seizure history. Hypoglycemia is not the correct answer as the patient’s blood glucose level is within the normal range. Meningitis is a key differential diagnosis, but it is less likely to cause focal neurological abnormalities and tends to present with reduced consciousness or confusion in addition to fever and headache.

      Understanding Brain Abscesses

      Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a considerable mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include dull and persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.

      To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered. Additionally, intracranial pressure management with dexamethasone may be necessary.

      Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options can help individuals seek medical help early and improve their chances of recovery.

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