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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Care Unit (ICU) after acute haemorrhagic pancreatitis. On day 3, he develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS).
Which of the following physiological variables is most likely to be low in this patient?Your Answer: Work of breathing
Correct Answer: Lung compliance
Explanation:Understanding the Pathophysiology of Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is a life-threatening condition that occurs as a result of damage to the pulmonary and vascular endothelium. This damage leads to increased permeability of the vessels, causing the extravasation of neutrophils, inflammatory factors, and macrophages. The leakage of fluid into the lungs results in diffuse pulmonary edema, which disrupts the production and function of surfactant and impairs gas exchange. This, in turn, causes hypoxemia and impaired carbon dioxide excretion.
The decrease in lung compliance, lung volumes, and the presence of a large intrapulmonary shunt are the consequences of the edema. ARDS can be caused by pneumonia, sepsis, aspiration of gastric contents, and trauma, and it has a mortality rate of 40%.
The work of breathing is affected by pulmonary edema, which causes hypoxemia. In the initial phase, hyperventilation and an increased work of breathing compensate for the hypoxemia. However, if the underlying cause is not treated promptly, the patient tires, leading to decreased work of breathing and respiratory arrest.
The increase in alveolar surface tension has been shown to increase lung water content by lowering interstitial hydrostatic pressure and increasing interstitial oncotic pressure. In ARDS, there is an increase in alveolar-arterial pressure difference due to a ventilation-perfusion defect. Blood is perfusing unventilated segments of the lung. ARDS is also associated with impaired production and function of surfactant, increasing the surface tension of the alveolar fluid.
In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ARDS is crucial in the management of this life-threatening condition. Early recognition and prompt treatment of the underlying cause can improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old publican presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting for the past 8 hours. He is becoming dehydrated and confused. Shortly after admission, he develops increasing shortness of breath. On examination, he has a blood pressure of 128/75 mmHg, a pulse of 92 bpm, and bilateral crackles on chest auscultation. The jugular venous pressure is not elevated. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 118 g/l, a WCC of 14.8 × 109/l, a platelet count of 162 × 109/l, a sodium level of 140 mmol/l, a potassium level of 4.8 mmol/l, a creatinine level of 195 μmol/l, and an amylase level of 1330 U/l. Arterial blood gas analysis shows a pH of 7.31, a pO2 of 8.2 kPa, and a pCO2 of 5.5 kPa. Chest X-ray reveals bilateral pulmonary infiltrates. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute (adult) respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)
Explanation:Mucopolysacchirodosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 3
Correct
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You see a 92-year-old gentleman who has been admitted following a fall. He had been discovered lying on the floor of his home by a neighbour. He has a diagnosis of dementia and cannot recall how long ago he had fallen. His observations are normal and he is apyrexial. A pelvic X-ray, including both hips, shows no evidence of bony injury. A full blood count is normal.
His biochemistry results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Creatinine 210 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Urea 22.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Sodium 133 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 8 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
What is the most appropriate investigation to request next?Your Answer: Creatine kinase
Explanation:Investigating the Cause of Renal Failure: Importance of Creatine Kinase
Renal failure can have various causes, including dehydration, sepsis, and rhabdomyolysis. In this case, the patient’s normal observations and inflammatory markers suggest rhabdomyolysis as the most serious potential cause. A raised creatine kinase would confirm the diagnosis. Elderly patients are particularly at risk of rhabdomyolysis following a prolonged period of immobility. A falls screen, including routine bloods, blood glucose, resting electrocardiogram, urinalysis, and lying-standing blood pressure, would be appropriate. While a catheter urine specimen may be helpful in diagnosing sepsis, it is less likely in this case. Liver function tests and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy are unlikely to provide useful information. A plain chest X-ray is also not necessary for investigating the cause of renal failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is admitted to the Intensive Therapy Unit after a coronary artery bypass graft for a period of ventilation. He has a 35-pack year smoking history but successfully gave up some 2 years earlier. Unfortunately, weaning does not go as anticipated, and he cannot be weaned off the ventilator and is still in need of it 4 days later. There is evidence of right-sided bronchial breathing on auscultation. He is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.5 °C.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.8 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 170 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Haemoglobin 115 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 12.5 × 109/l (10.0) 4–11 × 109/l
Chest X-ray: bilateral pulmonary infiltrates, more marked on the right-hand side
Bronchial aspirates: mixed anaerobes
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?Your Answer: Ventilator acquired pneumonia
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs
A pyrexial patient with chest signs on the right-hand side may have ventilator-acquired pneumonia, which occurs due to contamination of the respiratory tract from oropharyngeal secretions. Diagnosis is based on clinical examination, X-ray, blood culture, and bronchial washings. Initial antibiotic therapy should cover anaerobes, MRSA, Pseudomonas, and Acinetobacter.
If the patient has been in the hospital for more than 72 hours, any infection that develops is likely to be hospital-acquired.
Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) presents more acutely and broncholavage samples commonly demonstrate inflammatory and necrotic cells.
Infective pulmonary edema is unlikely if there are no indications of pleural effusions or edema on clinical examination and chest radiograph.
Pulmonary hemorrhage is unlikely if there is no blood found in the bronchial aspirates.
Possible Diagnoses for a Pyrexial Patient with Chest Signs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 5
Correct
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A 21-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after near-drowning. This occurred after he fell from a boat into a lake, while intoxicated with alcohol. He has no medical history. He is drowsy, with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 9; his oxygen saturations are 80% on an inspired fraction of oxygen (FiO2) of 1.0 via a non-rebreather face mask.
Which of the following is part of the treatment algorithm for drowning?Your Answer: Warming strategies for hypothermia
Explanation:Warming and Treatment Strategies for Hypothermia and Drowning
Hypothermia and drowning are serious medical emergencies that require prompt intervention to prevent further complications. In cases of hypothermia, the severity of the condition will determine the appropriate intervention. For mild cases, passive rewarming through heated blankets and warm fluids may be sufficient. However, for more severe cases, blood rewarming through the use of a haemodialysis machine or warm intravenous fluids may be necessary. Airway rewarming using humidified oxygen may also be used.
In cases of drowning, support for shock is crucial, and patients should be managed with warming, IV fluids, and airway support. Diuresis should be avoided in shocked patients. Oxygenation is critical in treating post-drowning patients, and intubation and mechanical ventilation may be required in cases of moderate to severe hypoxia. Prophylactic antibiotics are unproven, but may be given if fever develops or there is grossly contaminated aspirated water. Treatment should be targeted towards likely pathogens, with route of administration depending on the patient’s condition. Pneumonia can be a major complication, and atypical organisms should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is admitted after being found lying on the street with a reduced conscious level.
On examination, he has pinpoint pupils and needle-track marks on his arms.
What would be the most likely pattern on the arterial blood gas in this case?Your Answer: Hypocapnia and respiratory acidosis
Correct Answer: Hypercapnia and respiratory acidosis
Explanation:Understanding the Relationship between Hypercapnia and Acid-Base Imbalances
Opiate overdose can cause respiratory depression, leading to hypoventilation and subsequent hypercapnia. This results in respiratory acidosis, which can lead to coma and pinpoint pupils. The treatment for this condition is intravenous naloxone, with repeat dosing and infusion as necessary. It is important to note that hypercapnia always leads to an acidosis, not an alkalosis, and that hypocapnia would not cause a respiratory acidosis. Understanding the relationship between hypercapnia and acid-base imbalances is crucial in managing respiratory depression and related conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-week history of productive cough and fever. She has had no sick contacts or foreign travel. She has a background history of mild intermittent asthma and is a non-smoker. She has been taking paracetamol and salbutamol. On clinical examination, her respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% (on room air), blood pressure 136/82 mmHg and temperature 38.2 °C. On chest auscultation, there is mild expiratory wheeze and coarse crackles in the right lung base.
What is the most appropriate management of this woman?Your Answer: Arrange a chest X-ray
Correct Answer: Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days
Explanation:Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia in a Woman with a CRB-65 Score of 0
When managing a woman with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and a CRB-65 score of 0, the recommended treatment is amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days. If there is no improvement after three days, the duration of treatment should be extended to seven to ten days.
If the CRB-65 score is 1 or 2, dual therapy with amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily and clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for 7-10 days, or monotherapy with doxycycline for 7-10 days, should be considered. However, in this case, the CRB-65 score is 0, so this is not necessary.
Admission for intravenous (IV) antibiotics and steroids is not required for this woman, as she is relatively well with mild wheeze and a CRB-65 score of 0. A chest X-ray is also not necessary, as she is younger and a non-smoker.
Symptomatic management should be continued, and the woman should be advised to return in three days if there is no improvement. It is important to prescribe antibiotics for people with suspected CAP, unless this is not appropriate, such as in end-of-life care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You are the on-call general practitioner and are called urgently to the nurses’ room where a 6-year-old boy receiving his school vaccinations has developed breathing difficulties. The child has swollen lips and is covered in a blotchy rash; respiratory rate is 40, heart rate is 140 and there is a wheeze audible without using a stethoscope.
After lying the patient flat and raising his legs, what immediate action is required?Your Answer: Administer 300 micrograms of adrenaline im
Correct Answer: Administer 150 micrograms of adrenaline intramuscularly (im)
Explanation:Anaphylaxis Management: Administering Adrenaline
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction that requires immediate management. The Resuscitation Council guidelines outline three essential criteria for recognizing anaphylaxis: sudden-onset, rapidly progressive symptoms, life-threatening Airway/Breathing/Circulation problems, and skin and mucosal changes.
The first step in anaphylaxis management is to administer adrenaline intramuscularly (im) at a dilution of 1:1000. The appropriate dosage for adrenaline administration varies based on the patient’s age. For a 4-year-old patient, the recommended dose is 150 micrograms im. However, adrenaline iv should only be administered by experienced specialists and is given at a dose of 50 micrograms in adults and 1 microgram/kg in children and titrated accordingly.
Adrenaline administration is only the first step in the treatment of anaphylaxis. It is crucial to follow the anaphylaxis algorithm, which includes establishing the airway and giving high-flow oxygen, iv fluid challenge, and chlorphenamine.
It is essential to note that administering an incorrect dose of adrenaline can be dangerous. For instance, administering 1 mg of adrenaline im is inappropriate for the management of anaphylaxis. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the Resuscitation Council guidelines and administer the appropriate dose of adrenaline based on the patient’s age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 68 year old homeless man is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion. The patient is unable to provide a history and is shivering profusely. Physical examination reveals a body temperature of 34.5oC.
Regarding thermoregulation, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: Apocrine sweat glands play an important role in heat loss by evaporation
Correct Answer: Acclimatisation of the sweating mechanism occurs in response to heat
Explanation:Understanding Heat Adaptation and Thermoregulation in Humans
Humans have the unique ability to actively acclimatize to heat stress through adaptations in the sweating mechanism. This process involves an increase in the sweating capability of the glands, which helps to lower body core temperatures. Heat adaptation begins on the first day of exposure and typically takes 4-7 days to develop in most individuals, with complete adaptation taking around 14 days.
While brown fat plays a significant role in non-shivering thermogenesis in newborns and infants, there are very few remnants of brown fat in adults. Instead, thermoregulation is mainly controlled by the hypothalamus, which is responsible for regulating body temperature and other vital functions.
Although apocrine sweat glands have little role in thermoregulation, they still play an important role in heat loss by evaporation. Overall, understanding heat adaptation and thermoregulation in humans is crucial for maintaining optimal health and preventing heat-related illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 10
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman is referred to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-day history of right flank pain, dysuria and fever. Urosepsis is suspected, and the Sepsis Six Pathway is implemented in the Emergency Department.
Which of the following is part of the ‘Sepsis Six’, the six key components to managing sepsis?Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) fluids
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sepsis: IV Fluids, Corticosteroids, Antipyretics, and More
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate treatment. The following are some of the treatment options available for sepsis:
IV Fluids: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends giving an IV fluid bolus without delay for suspected sepsis. Reassess the patient after completion of the IV fluid bolus, and if no improvement is observed, give a second bolus.
Corticosteroids: In patients with septic shock, corticosteroid therapy appears to be safe but does not reduce 28-day all-cause mortality rates. It does, however, significantly reduce the incidence of vasopressor-dependent shock. Low-quality evidence indicates that steroids reduce mortality among patients with sepsis.
Antipyretics: Treating sepsis is the most important immediate treatment plan. This will also reduce fever, although Antipyretics can be given in conjunction with this treatment, it will not reduce mortality.
Maintain Blood Glucose 8–12 mmol/l: Measuring blood glucose on venous blood gas is important, as sepsis may cause hypo- or hyperglycaemia, which may require treatment. However, maintaining blood glucose between 8 and 12 mmol/l is not an evidence-based intervention and could cause iatrogenic hypo- and hyperglycaemia.
Avoid Oxygen Therapy Unless Severe Hypoxia: Give oxygen to achieve a target saturation of 94−98% for adult patients or 88−92% for those at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure.
Treatment Options for Sepsis: What You Need to Know
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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