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  • Question 1 - A 12-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a headache. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a headache. During the examination, she mentions that the lights are bothering her eyes and the doctor observes a purpuric rash on her chest. Her respiratory rate is 22/min, heart rate is 140/min, and blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg. Which of the following tests should be avoided in this patient?

      Your Answer: Coagulation screen

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      Performing a lumbar puncture is not recommended for patients with meningococcal septicaemia, which is a contraindication. In cases of suspected meningitis and sepsis, a coagulation screen and blood glucose may be ordered in secondary care, while blood cultures and serum lactate are typically included in the sepsis 6 protocol.

      Investigation and Management of Meningitis in Children

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can affect children. When investigating meningitis, it is important to note any contraindications to lumbar puncture, such as signs of raised intracranial pressure, focal neurological signs, papilloedema, significant bulging of the fontanelle, disseminated intravascular coagulation, or signs of cerebral herniation. For patients with meningococcal septicaemia, a lumbar puncture is contraindicated, and blood cultures and PCR for meningococcal should be obtained instead.

      The management of meningitis in children involves administering antibiotics, such as IV amoxicillin (or ampicillin) and IV cefotaxime for children under three months, and IV cefotaxime (or ceftriaxone) for children over three months. Steroids should be considered if the lumbar puncture reveals certain findings, such as purulent cerebrospinal fluid, a high white blood cell count, or bacteria on Gram stain. Fluids should be administered to treat shock, and cerebral monitoring should be conducted, including mechanical ventilation if necessary.

      It is also important to notify public health authorities and administer antibiotic prophylaxis to contacts. Ciprofloxacin is now preferred over rifampicin for this purpose. Overall, prompt and appropriate management of meningitis in children is crucial for ensuring the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - An infant is found to be cyanotic shortly after birth. A chest X-ray...

    Incorrect

    • An infant is found to be cyanotic shortly after birth. A chest X-ray reveals a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, and a holosystolic murmur is heard at the left lower sternal border.
      What other finding is probable in this infant?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction

      Explanation:

      Cyanotic Neonate with Boot-Shaped Heart: Tetralogy of Fallot

      Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart defect that can present as a cyanotic neonate with a boot-shaped heart and a holosystolic murmur loudest at the left sternal border. This condition is characterized by four morphologic features: right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction secondary to pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, and overriding aorta. These features develop due to anterosuperior displacement of the infundibular septum during fetal development.

      A fixed, widely split S2 would indicate an atrial septal defect (ASD), which is a form of acyanotic heart disease and would not explain the radiograph findings in this scenario. A decrescendo, diastolic murmur at the right upper sternal border would suggest aortic regurgitation, which is not a cause of cyanotic heart disease in neonates. A harsh crescendo–decrescendo systolic murmur at the right upper sternal border would suggest aortic stenosis, which is also not a cause of cyanotic heart disease in neonates.

      Therefore, a cyanotic neonate with a boot-shaped heart and a holosystolic murmur loudest at the left sternal border is likely to have TOF. These patients can be born cyanotic, or cyanosis can develop after birth as a left-to-right shunt undergoes Eisenmenger syndrome and becomes a right-to-left shunt.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 9-year-old girl presents to a general practice appointment with her mother complaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents to a general practice appointment with her mother complaining of right-sided hip pain and occasional limp for the past month. The patient is feeling well, has no fever, and is in the 90th percentile for weight. She was born via spontaneous vertex vaginal delivery at term and had a normal newborn physical examination. On examination, there is limited range of motion in her right hip. A frog-leg hip x-ray is ordered, which reveals sclerosis of the right upper femoral epiphysis and moderate resorption of the femoral head. What is the most accurate diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The condition is 5 times more common in boys

      Explanation:

      Perthes disease is a condition that primarily affects one hip, with only a minority of patients experiencing it in both hips. It is not associated with obesity, unlike slipped capital femoral epiphysis which is more common in overweight children. The management of Perthes disease typically involves conservative measures such as casting or bracing, although surgery may be necessary for older children or those with significant damage to the hip socket. The use of a Pavlik harness is not appropriate for treating Perthes disease, as it is typically used for developmental dysplasia of the hip.

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children, typically between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, which leads to bone infarction and avascular necrosis. This condition is more common in boys, with around 10% of cases being bilateral. The symptoms of Perthes’ disease include hip pain, stiffness, reduced range of hip movement, and a limp. Early changes can be seen on an x-ray, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      To diagnose Perthes’ disease, a plain x-ray is usually sufficient. However, if symptoms persist and the x-ray is normal, a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary. If left untreated, Perthes’ disease can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The severity of Perthes’ disease is classified using the Catterall staging system, which ranges from stage 1 (clinical and histological features only) to stage 4 (loss of acetabular integrity). Treatment options include keeping the femoral head within the acetabulum using a cast or braces, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical management for older children with severe deformities. The prognosis for Perthes’ disease is generally good, with most cases resolving with conservative management. Early diagnosis is key to improving outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 6-week-old girl is brought to the hospital and placed under the care...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old girl is brought to the hospital and placed under the care of the paediatric surgeons due to her parents' concern about her symptoms. She has been experiencing projectile vomiting, weight loss, and constant hunger. The doctors have made a preliminary diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is the probable biochemical abnormality associated with this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Pyloric Stenosis: Characteristics and Biochemical Abnormalities

      Pyloric stenosis is a condition commonly observed in male infants at around 5 weeks old, with an incidence rate of approximately 4 per 1000. It is often seen in first-born babies. The condition is characterized by the narrowing of the pylorus, the opening between the stomach and the small intestine, which causes difficulty in food passage.

      One of the typical biochemical abnormalities observed in patients with pyloric stenosis is hypokalaemic hypochloraemic alkalosis, which is caused by the loss of hydrogen and chloride ions in the vomit. This results in an acidic urine. The imbalance of electrolytes in the body can lead to dehydration, weakness, and other complications. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent further health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trident hand

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that results in disproportionate short stature. This condition is characterized by an enlarged head and short arms and legs when compared to the trunk length. Individuals with achondroplasia typically reach an adult height of about 4 feet, which is significantly shorter than the average height for adults. In addition to short stature, people with achondroplasia may have other physical features, such as short hands with stubby fingers and a trident hand, which is a separation between the middle and ring fingers.

      In summary, achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that affects bone growth and development, resulting in disproportionate short stature and other physical features. While there is no cure for achondroplasia, early intervention and management can help individuals with this condition lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A neighbor has a grandchild diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot and asks you...

    Incorrect

    • A neighbor has a grandchild diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot and asks you about this condition.
      Which of the following is a characteristic of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right ventricular hypertrophy

      Explanation:

      Common Congenital Heart Defects and Acquired Valvular Defects

      Congenital heart defects are present at birth and can affect the structure and function of the heart. Tetralogy of Fallot is a common congenital heart defect that includes right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, right-sided outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. On the other hand, patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) and atrial septal defect (ASD) are not part of the tetralogy of Fallot but are commonly occurring congenital heart defects.

      PDA is characterized by a persistent communication between the descending thoracic aorta and the pulmonary artery, while ASD is characterized by a defect in the interatrial septum, allowing shunting of blood from left to right. If left untreated, patients with a large PDA are at risk of developing Eisenmenger syndrome in later life.

      Acquired valvular defects, on the other hand, are not present at birth but develop over time. Aortic stenosis is an acquired valvular defect that results from progressive narrowing of the aortic valve area over several years. Tricuspid stenosis, which is caused by obstruction of the tricuspid valve, can be a result of several conditions, including rheumatic heart disease, congenital abnormalities, active infective endocarditis, and carcinoid tumors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - The ward doctor is requested to assess a 24-hour-old neonate, born at 35...

    Incorrect

    • The ward doctor is requested to assess a 24-hour-old neonate, born at 35 weeks gestation to a healthy mother via an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. Upon examination, the neonate appears comfortable. Auscultation of the heart reveals a continuous 'machinery-like' murmur and a left-sided thrill. The apex beat is palpable and appears to be heaving. A widened pulse pressure is observed, but there is no visible cyanosis. An echocardiogram is performed and confirms the diagnosis while ruling out other cardiac issues.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for management at this stage, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Indomethacin given to the neonate

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis based on the findings is patent ductus arteriosus (PDA). To prompt duct closure in the majority of cases, the appropriate action is to administer indomethacin to the neonate in the postnatal period, not to the mother during the antenatal period. If another defect was present, prostaglandin E1 may be preferred to keep the duct open until after surgical repair. Referral for surgery is not necessary at this time. While percutaneous closure may be an option for older children, it is not suitable for neonates.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department with severe wheezing and shortness of breath. She is struggling to speak in full sentences and her peak expiratory flow rate is 320 l/min (45% of normal). Her oxygen saturation levels are at 92%. Her pCO2 is 4.8 kPa.

      What is the most concerning finding from the above information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pCO2 (kPa)

      Explanation:

      Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.

      For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man presents with visual impairment and is diagnosed with Leber's optic atrophy. Considering the mitochondrial inheritance pattern of this disorder, which of the following family members is at the highest risk of being affected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sister

      Explanation:

      Mitochondrial diseases are inherited maternally, meaning that if a mother has the condition, all of her children will also inherit it. As a result, her sister will also be affected.

      Mitochondrial Diseases: Inheritance and Histology

      Mitochondrial diseases are caused by mutations in the small amount of double-stranded DNA present in the mitochondria. This DNA encodes protein components of the respiratory chain and some special types of RNA. Mitochondrial inheritance has unique characteristics, including inheritance only via the maternal line and none of the children of an affected male inheriting the disease. However, all of the children of an affected female will inherit the disease. These diseases generally encode rare neurological diseases and have a poor genotype-phenotype correlation due to heteroplasmy, where different mitochondrial populations exist within a tissue or cell.

      Histologically, muscle biopsy shows red, ragged fibers due to an increased number of mitochondria. Some examples of mitochondrial diseases include Leber’s optic atrophy, MELAS syndrome (mitochondrial encephalomyopathy lactic acidosis and stroke-like episodes), MERRF syndrome (myoclonus epilepsy with ragged-red fibers), Kearns-Sayre syndrome (onset in patients < 20 years old, external ophthalmoplegia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis may be seen), and sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to see GP by his mom with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to see GP by his mom with a seal-like barking cough. His mom is worried as he seems to be struggling with his breathing, especially at night.

      On examination, he is alert and engaging, although has mild sternal indrawing and appears tired. His observations are as follows:

      Heart rate: 90 bpm
      Blood pressure: 110/70 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation: 98% on air
      Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min
      Temperature: 37.2 C°

      You suspect croup. What statement best fits this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is more common in autumn

      Explanation:

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A father brings his 2-day-old son to the pediatrician for a routine check-up....

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 2-day-old son to the pediatrician for a routine check-up. During the examination, the pediatrician notices that the baby's skin has a yellowish tint. The pediatrician suspects that the baby has jaundice and investigates further.
      What is a possible reason for jaundice caused by reduced bilirubin conjugation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism

      Explanation:

      Neonatal jaundice is a common condition that affects many newborns, with up to 50% of term and 80% of preterm babies experiencing it in their first week of life. It is characterized by yellow discoloration of the skin and occurs when the serum bilirubin level exceeds 85 micromoles/l. Jaundice can be either physiological or pathological, with the former resulting from increased destruction of fetal erythrocytes and decreased liver function due to immaturity. Pathological jaundice, on the other hand, can be caused by haemolytic or non-haemolytic factors, impaired bilirubin conjugation or excretion, and post-hepatic anatomical malformations. Risk factors for neonatal jaundice include Asian origin, having a sibling with a history of the condition, metabolic disorders, prematurity, low birthweight, and being male. Prompt detection and treatment of jaundice is crucial to prevent kernicterus and severe brain damage. Other conditions that can cause neonatal jaundice include intravascular haemolysis, polycythaemia, biliary atresia, and congenital bile duct cysts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 5-year-old boy visited his doctor last week due to recurring nosebleeds and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy visited his doctor last week due to recurring nosebleeds and bruises on his sides. Upon examination, his clotting was found to be prolonged. The following are his test results, along with the normal ranges for a 5-year-old:
      - Hemoglobin: 80g/l (115-135)
      - Platelets: 100 * 109/l (150-450)
      - White blood cells: 10.0 * 109/l (5.0-17.0)
      - Neutrophils: 1.0 * 109/l (1.5-8.5)
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Leukaemia is the most probable diagnosis given the presence of epistaxis and bruising, along with anaemia and low platelets. The prolonged prothrombin time and low platelets suggest disseminated intravascular coagulation, which is consistent with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. Acute myeloid leukaemia is unlikely due to the patient’s age. The normal white blood cell count rules out a chronic infection. Aplastic anaemia and myelodysplasia would not account for the symptoms of epistaxis and bruising.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 5-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of passing loose stools and...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents with a 3-day history of passing loose stools and non-bilious vomiting. She has passed 6 loose stools and vomited 3 times over the last 72 hours. No visible mucous or blood seen in the stool, and urine output has not changed according to her mother. She is able to tolerate oral fluid and liquid food.

      She has not travelled abroad recently and there are no sick contacts. Her vaccination schedule is up-to-date and there are no concerns regarding her growth and development.

      On examination, she appears well and is alert and responsive. She has warm extremities and capillary refill time is <2 seconds. Her vital signs are normal. Peripheral pulses are strong and regular. There is normal skin turgor and there are no sunken eyes.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Introduce oral rehydration solution (ORS)

      Explanation:

      It is not recommended to give antidiarrhoeal medications to children under 5 years old who have diarrhoea and vomiting caused by gastroenteritis. This is because these medications do not provide any benefits and can cause side effects such as ileus, drowsiness, and nausea. It is also important to discourage the consumption of fruit juices and carbonated drinks, especially for those who are at risk of dehydration. Antibiotics are not routinely recommended for children with gastroenteritis as they do not effectively treat symptoms or prevent complications. The patient in question does not require antibiotic treatment. IV fluid therapy is not necessary as the patient is not clinically dehydrated and can be rehydrated with oral rehydration solution (ORS) and increased daily fluid intake. However, IV fluid therapy may be necessary if the patient shows signs of clinical dehydration or if they persistently vomit the ORS solution.

      Understanding Diarrhoea in Children

      Diarrhoea is a common condition in children that can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is gastroenteritis, which is often accompanied by fever and vomiting for the first two days. The main risk associated with this condition is severe dehydration, which can be life-threatening if left untreated. The most common cause of gastroenteritis is rotavirus, and the diarrhoea may last up to a week. The treatment for this condition is rehydration.

      Chronic diarrhoea is another type of diarrhoea that can affect infants and toddlers. In the developed world, the most common cause of chronic diarrhoea in infants is cow’s’ milk intolerance. Toddler diarrhoea, on the other hand, is characterized by stools that vary in consistency and often contain undigested food. Other causes of chronic diarrhoea in children include coeliac disease and post-gastroenteritis lactose intolerance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - Should all infants undergo hearing screening by their health visitor as part of...

    Incorrect

    • Should all infants undergo hearing screening by their health visitor as part of the 'Infant Hearing Screening Programme'? And if the results are abnormal, what is the next hearing test they will have?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Auditory Brainstem Response test as a newborn/infant

      Explanation:

      When a newborn baby’s hearing test at birth shows an abnormal result, they are recommended to undergo an auditory brainstem response test as a newborn or infant. Prior to being discharged from the hospital, all newborns should have an acoustic emission test, which involves placing a soft earpiece in the baby’s ear and playing quiet clicking sounds to detect inner ear responses. If this test yields abnormal results, the auditory brainstem response test is conducted using three sensors placed on the baby’s head and neck, along with soft headphones to play sounds and analyze the brain and hearing nerve responses. At 6-9 months of age, a distraction test is performed, and most areas in the UK conduct pure tone audiometry at school entry.

      Hearing Tests for Children

      Hearing tests are important for children to ensure that they are developing normally. There are several tests that may be performed on children of different ages. For newborns, an otoacoustic emission test is typically done as part of the Newborn Hearing Screening Programme. This test involves playing a computer-generated click through a small earpiece and checking for the presence of a soft echo, which indicates a healthy cochlea. If the results of this test are abnormal, an Auditory Brainstem Response test may be done.

      For infants between 6-9 months, a Distraction test may be performed by a health visitor with the help of two trained staff members. For children between 18 months to 2.5 years, a Recognition of familiar objects test may be used, which involves using familiar objects like a teddy or cup and asking the child simple questions like where is the teddy? For children over 2.5 years, Performance testing and Speech discrimination tests may be used, such as the Kendall Toy test or McCormick Toy Test. Pure tone audiometry is typically done at school entry in most areas of the UK for children over 3 years old.

      In addition to these tests, there is also a questionnaire for parents in the Personal Child Health Records called Can your baby hear you? It is important for parents to be aware of these tests and to have their child’s hearing checked regularly to ensure proper development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 6-month-old girl is not gaining weight and has had repeated chest infections...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old girl is not gaining weight and has had repeated chest infections since birth. During examination, she appears weak and undernourished. A continuous murmur is heard most prominently under the left clavicle upon auscultation of the precordium. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      The conditions that can cause poor weight gain and recurrent infections have similar symptoms, but the type of murmur heard can help differentiate between them. A continuous murmur is associated with Patent ductus, while Pulmonary stenosis presents with a systolic murmur. The symptoms described rule out an innocent murmur, which is a normal sound heard during circulation and disappears with age. ASD’s have a fixed split S2 sound due to increased venous return overloading the right ventricle during inspiration, delaying closure of the pulmonary valve. VSD is associated with a pansystolic murmur.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his father. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to his pediatrician by his father. He has been experiencing a dry cough and runny nose for the past 7 days, along with a 6-day history of fevers up to 38.7ºC that have not responded to paracetamol and ibuprofen.

      During the examination, the boy appears generally unwell and unhappy. His tongue is bright red, and there is a maculopapular rash on his trunk. Bilateral conjunctival injection is present, but there is no apparent discharge. Additionally, palpable submandibular lymphadenopathy is observed.

      What investigation should be utilized to screen for long-term complications, given the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      An echocardiogram should be used to screen for coronary artery aneurysms, which are a complication of Kawasaki disease. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, a child must have a fever for at least 5 days and meet 4 out of 5 diagnostic criteria, including oropharyngeal changes, changes in the peripheries, bilateral non purulent conjunctivitis, polymorphic rash, and cervical lymphadenopathy. This disease is the most common cause of acquired cardiac disease in childhood, and it is important to exclude coronary artery aneurysms. Echocardiograms are a noninvasive and appropriate screening modality for this complication, as they do not expose the child to ionising radiation. Antistreptolysin O antibody titres, CT coronary angiogram, and ECG are not appropriate screening modalities for coronary artery aneurysms associated with Kawasaki disease.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - Sophie is a 16-year-old girl who is admitted with abdominal pain. An ultrasound...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 16-year-old girl who is admitted with abdominal pain. An ultrasound scan report comes back with findings consistent with appendicitis. Her parents do not want her to undergo surgery.

      Sophie appears to be a mature and intelligent young woman and is currently in a stable condition. After extensive discussions with her parents and the surgical team, Sophie expresses her desire to undergo surgery. However, her parents are unhappy with her decision and threaten to sue the hospital if she goes through with the operation.

      What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Obtain written consent for appendicectomy from Jessica and take her to theatre

      Explanation:

      Jessica is deemed to have Gillick competence by the medical team, as she is a bright young woman who has thoroughly discussed the situation and appears to comprehend it. Therefore, she can provide consent for the procedure, even if her parents disagree. As she is stable, written consent should be obtained instead of verbal consent, which could be used in an emergency. It is not advisable to try and persuade her parents of the advantages of surgery, as this could delay her treatment. If Jessica has given her own valid consent, there is no need to wait for her parents’ decision. According to GMC’s 0-18 years guidance, parents cannot override the competent consent of a young person for treatment that is deemed to be in their best interests. However, parental consent can be relied upon when a child lacks the capacity to provide consent.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

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  • Question 18 - The consultant requests your assessment of a 4-week-old girl in the neonatal ward...

    Incorrect

    • The consultant requests your assessment of a 4-week-old girl in the neonatal ward who was born prematurely at 28 weeks gestation. The infant is thriving, gaining weight appropriately, and appears pink and warm. Oxygen saturation is within normal limits, and lung sounds are clear. During cardiac auscultation, you note a continuous machinery murmur heard over the upper left sternal edge that does not vary with position or radiation. What is the most likely cause of this murmur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

      Explanation:

      The child in question has an asymptomatic murmur that is not an innocent murmur since it does not vary with position. The continuous machinery murmur heard at the upper left sternal edge is indicative of patent ductus arteriosus, a condition that is most common in premature babies like this one. In utero, the ductus arteriosus is a connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta that allows blood to bypass the lungs. Normally, it closes within two days after birth.

      It’s worth noting that other conditions present differently. For example, pulmonary stenosis is characterized by an ejection systolic murmur over the left upper sternal edge, while coarctation of the aorta presents with a systolic murmur under the left scapula and in the left infraclavicular area.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

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  • Question 19 - A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old child is brought to see you by his parents, who are concerned because he wets his bed every night. A urine culture is normal; urine is negative for glucose and protein.
      What would be the most appropriate approach to managing this child's bedwetting?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassurance to parents with general advice

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Nocturnal Enuresis in Children

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is a common issue among children. While it can sometimes be caused by an underlying medical condition, such as a urinary tract infection or diabetes, in most cases it is simply a developmental issue that will resolve on its own over time.

      Parents should have their child tested for any potential medical causes, but if none are found, they can take comfort in knowing that bedwetting is a normal part of childhood for many kids. Treatment is generally not recommended until a child is at least five years old, and even then, simple interventions like star charts and enuresis alarms can be effective in motivated children.

      It’s also important to consider any potential psychological issues that may be contributing to the problem. Parents should ask their child about their school and home life, and try to speak to them without the presence of the parents if possible. Sometimes, stress or anxiety can be a factor in bedwetting.

      If short-term relief is necessary, medications like desmopressin nasal spray can be prescribed for children over five years old. However, prophylactic antibiotics and oral imipramine are not recommended for this condition. Referral to a specialist for an ultrasound scan is also not necessary unless there is an indication of infection or structural abnormality.

      Overall, parents should take comfort in knowing that bedwetting is a common issue that many children experience, and that there are effective interventions available to help manage it.

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  • Question 20 - Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which feature is not associated with Down's syndrome?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ataxic gait

      Explanation:

      Down’s Syndrome and Cognitive Decline

      Cerebellar dysfunction is not a characteristic of Down’s syndrome. However, individuals with this condition may experience a decline in memory and cognitive abilities similar to Alzheimer’s disease as they approach their mid-thirties. This syndrome is characterized by a gradual loss of cognitive function, including memory, attention, and problem-solving skills. It is important to note that this decline is not universal and may vary in severity among individuals with Down’s syndrome. Despite this, it is crucial to monitor cognitive function in individuals with Down’s syndrome to ensure early detection and intervention if necessary.

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  • Question 21 - A 7-year-old girl sits close to the TV and watches her mother’s mouth...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl sits close to the TV and watches her mother’s mouth when speaking. Her mother gave the history of child’s irritation due to ear pain along with intermittent fever for the last 5 days. Her teacher reports that her speech is developmentally delayed. There is no past medical history or family history of illness. Audiogram shows conductive hearing loss.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otitis media with effusion

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children

      Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. One of the most common causes is otitis media with effusion (OME), which is prevalent in younger children due to their shorter and more horizontal Eustachian tube, making it easier for bacteria to enter and harder for drainage. However, vestibular schwannomas (acoustic neuromas) and otosclerosis are more likely to be diagnosed in middle-aged patients rather than young children. Foreign object insertion and perforated tympanic membrane are also possible causes of hearing loss, but not as common as OME in children. It is essential to identify the cause of hearing loss in children to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

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  • Question 22 - A 6-week-old baby and their mum come to the hospital for their postnatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week-old baby and their mum come to the hospital for their postnatal baby check. The infant has an asymmetrical skinfold around their hips. The skin folds under the buttocks and on the thighs are not aligning properly.
      What is the most suitable test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan of the hip

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Developmental Hip Dysplasia

      Developmental hip dysplasia is a condition that must be detected early for effective treatment. Clinical tests such as Barlows and Ortolani’s manoeuvres can screen for the condition, but an ultrasound scan of the hips is the gold standard for diagnosis and grading of severity. Asymmetrical skinfolds, limited hip movement, leg length discrepancy, and abnormal gait are also clues to the diagnosis. Isotope bone scans have no place in the diagnosis of developmental hip dysplasia. X-rays may be used in older children, but plain film X-rays do not exclude hip instability. Early detection and treatment with conservative management can prevent the need for complex surgery.

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  • Question 23 - A 5-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with a fever, red tongue, and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with a fever, red tongue, and a rash that started on her torso and has now spread to the soles of her feet. The rash has a rough texture like sandpaper. The doctor prescribes oral antibiotics for ten days. The girl's mother is worried about her daughter's absence from school and asks when she can return.
      What is the appropriate time for the girl to go back to school?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 24 hours after commencing antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Children diagnosed with scarlet fever can go back to school 24 hours after starting antibiotics.

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

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  • Question 24 - A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father, complaining of right-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy comes to the GP with his father, complaining of right-sided hip pain that has been present for the past 3 weeks. The pain has gradually worsened over time. When asked to point to the location of the pain, he indicates his right hip and groin area. Upon examination, his heart rate is 71 bpm and temperature is 37.3ºC. He is able to walk, but with moderate discomfort and an antalgic gait that causes him to out-toe. Passive movement of the hip reveals a loss of internal rotation of the right leg in flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a possible diagnosis for a boy aged 10-15 years old presenting with hip pain and a key examination finding of limited internal rotation of the leg in flexion. Other diagnoses such as septic arthritis, juvenile idiopathic arthritis, and Perthe’s disease are less likely based on the absence of certain symptoms and age range. Further investigation and imaging should be done to confirm the diagnosis.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.

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  • Question 25 - A 5-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his concerned mother due...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy is brought to the pediatrician by his concerned mother due to a fever that has lasted for 72 hours and has now developed a rash on his face and torso. The mother describes the rash as appearing in clusters. The boy is not eating much but is drinking well and has no changes to his bowel or urinary movements. He has no significant medical history and his immunizations are up to date. No one else in the family has been sick recently, but the mother does mention that her son has recently started attending school and a few of the other children have had a similar rash.

      During the examination, the boy's temperature is 38.8ºC, and he has scabbed lesions on his right cheek and erythematous vesicles on his trunk. What is the most appropriate management for this child?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical calamine lotion

      Explanation:

      Varicella zoster virus causes chickenpox, a highly contagious disease that commonly affects children. The onset of the disease is marked by a prodrome of elevated temperature, followed by the appearance of clusters of red blisters on the face and torso. Children remain infectious until all the blisters have scabbed over, and should stay away from school or nursery until this point. Treatment involves supportive measures such as calamine lotion to relieve itching and paracetamol to control fever. Immunodeficient children may require acyclovir to prevent complications such as pneumonia and meningitis. Scabies, which mainly affects the fingers’ web spaces, is treated with permethrin. Flucloxacillin is recommended for bacterial infections that occur on top of chickenpox. It is advisable to avoid ibuprofen in chickenpox, as there is a link between the use of NSAIDs and the development of necrotising fasciitis.

      Chickenpox: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Chickenpox is a viral infection caused by the varicella zoster virus. It is highly contagious and can be spread through respiratory droplets. The virus can also reactivate later in life, causing shingles. Chickenpox is most infectious four days before the rash appears and until five days after the rash first appears. The incubation period is typically 10-21 days. Symptoms include fever, an itchy rash that starts on the head and trunk before spreading, and mild systemic upset.

      Management of chickenpox is supportive and includes keeping cool, trimming nails, and using calamine lotion. School exclusion is recommended during the infectious period. Immunocompromised patients and newborns with peripartum exposure should receive varicella zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG). If chickenpox develops, IV acyclovir may be considered. Secondary bacterial infection of the lesions is a common complication, which may be increased by the use of NSAIDs. In rare cases, invasive group A streptococcal soft tissue infections may occur, resulting in necrotizing fasciitis. Other rare complications include pneumonia, encephalitis, disseminated haemorrhagic chickenpox, arthritis, nephritis, and pancreatitis.

      Radiographic Findings in Varicella Pneumonia

      Varicella pneumonia is a rare complication of chickenpox that can occur in immunocompromised patients or adults. Radiographic findings of healed varicella pneumonia may include miliary opacities throughout both lungs, which are of uniform size and dense, suggesting calcification. There is typically no focal lung parenchymal mass or cavitating lesion seen. These findings are characteristic of healed varicella pneumonia.

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  • Question 26 - A 9-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a three day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with a three day history of limping. She has been experiencing illness recently. Upon examination, she has no fever and shows discomfort when moving her hip. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transient synovitis

      Explanation:

      Transient Synovitis in Childhood: the Causes and Diagnosis

      Transient synovitis is a prevalent cause of hip pain in children, but it is crucial to rule out other more severe causes before diagnosing it. The exact cause of this condition is still unknown, but it is believed to be associated with viral infections, allergic reactions, or trauma.

      Transient synovitis is a self-limiting condition that typically resolves within a few days to weeks. However, it is essential to differentiate it from other conditions that may require urgent medical attention, such as septic arthritis or Legg-Calve-Perthes disease. Therefore, a thorough medical history, physical examination, and imaging studies are necessary to make an accurate diagnosis.

      In conclusion, transient synovitis is a common cause of hip pain in childhood, but it is crucial to exclude other more serious conditions before diagnosing it. Parents should seek medical attention if their child experiences hip pain, limping, or difficulty walking to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 27 - A 24-hour-old neonate requires a detailed examination on the Postnatal Ward. It was...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-hour-old neonate requires a detailed examination on the Postnatal Ward. It was a forceps delivery at 41+3 weeks’ gestation. The detailed examination is normal, except you notice slight reduced tone in the right leg and reduced Moro reflex on the right. The leg is resting in a slightly extended position. The examination is otherwise normal.
      What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      Assessing Erb’s Palsy in a Neonate: Appropriate Management and Investigations

      Erb’s palsy is a neurological condition that commonly presents as reduced tone and movement in one arm, often due to shoulder dystocia during birth. In neonates, this can be identified by reduced Moro reflex and the arm resting in a waiter’s tip position. While Erb’s palsy is self-resolving, physiotherapy is recommended to strengthen the affected arm.

      If there are no other neurological deficits, referral to a Paediatric Neurologist is not necessary. Cranial ultrasound and head MRI are also not appropriate investigations as they do not provide relevant information for this condition. Similarly, a shoulder X-ray is not necessary as the issue is neurological in nature. Overall, appropriate management and investigations for Erb’s palsy in a neonate involve physiotherapy and observation for resolution.

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  • Question 28 - Parents bring their infant to see you because their child is not growing...

    Incorrect

    • Parents bring their infant to see you because their child is not growing normally. There is no family history of note. On examination, he is noted to have a large head relative to the limbs. The limbs are relatively shortened, compared to the trunk.
      What is the molecular basis for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor

      Explanation:

      There are several genetic mutations that can cause developmental abnormalities and disorders. One such mutation is the activation of the fibroblast growth factor 3 (FGF3) receptor, which leads to achondroplasia and stunted bone growth. Another mutation affects the fibrillin-1 gene, causing Marfan’s syndrome and resulting in tall stature, joint hypermobility, and cardiac abnormalities. Mutations in collagen genes can lead to disorders like osteogenesis imperfecta, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and Alport disease. Trisomy 18, or Edwards’ syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 18 and results in severe developmental abnormalities and organ system dysfunction. Trisomy 21, or Down syndrome, is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 and leads to characteristic physical features such as dysplastic ears and a high arched palate, as well as intellectual disability.

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  • Question 29 - You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when...

    Incorrect

    • You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when you are called to assess a 16-month-old toddler presenting with a runny nose, dry cough, increased respiratory effort, and an elevated respiratory rate. Upon examination, you note a mild generalised wheeze, along with fever and feeding difficulties. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Conditions in Children: Understanding the Differences

      Bronchiolitis, Pneumonia, Asthma, Viral Upper Respiratory Tract Infection (URTI), and Croup are all respiratory conditions that can affect children. However, it is important to understand the differences between them in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory condition caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) that mostly affects children under 18 months old. It presents with coryzal symptoms before progressing to dyspnoea, cough, and fever. Difficulty feeding may occur due to dyspnoea, but most cases do not require admission.

      Pneumonia, on the other hand, is likely to present with a toxic child due to the bacteraemia. Localising signs such as dullness to percussion over the affected lobe may also be present.

      Asthma, which causes wheezing, would not cause fever. It is also important to note that the diagnosis of asthma should be avoided in patients below the age of 5.

      A viral URTI confined to the upper respiratory tract would not cause wheezing or significant respiratory compromise as described in the case history.

      Croup, which typically affects older children between the ages of 2-6 years, presents with a barking cough and, in severe cases, stridor.

      Understanding the differences between these respiratory conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and care for children.

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  • Question 30 - During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36...

    Incorrect

    • During a routine examination of a 4 day old baby born at 36 weeks gestation, a very prominent murmur is heard during systole and diastole, with the loudest point being over the left sternal edge. A chest X-Ray reveals massive cardiomegaly, particularly in the right atrium. The mother of the child has bipolar disorder but is otherwise healthy and has no congenital heart problems. There is no significant family history except for a paternal cousin who developed cardiomyopathy in their early twenties. Based on the given information, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ebstein's anomaly

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

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