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  • Question 1 - A three-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a high fever of...

    Incorrect

    • A three-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a high fever of 39ºC that has persisted for the past five days. The parents are worried as they have noticed redness in the child's eyes, swelling in the neck, and a new rash.

      During the examination, the child is found to have a widespread maculopapular rash and bilateral conjunctivitis. Additionally, there is unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy, cracked and erythematosus lips, and a strawberry tongue.

      What is the initial treatment that should be given to this three-year-old child?

      Your Answer: Conservative management with fluids and rest

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is a systemic vasculitis that typically affects children under the age of 5. Symptoms include a fever lasting over 5 days, bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis, a rash, mucosal erythema with a strawberry tongue, and unilateral cervical lymphadenopathy. In some cases, swelling of the hands and feet can occur, followed by desquamation in the second week. If left untreated, up to one-quarter of patients can develop coronary aneurysms. The main goal of treatment is to reduce the risk of cardiac complications. In the UK, the standard treatment is intravenous immunoglobulin and high dose aspirin, despite the fact that aspirin is usually contraindicated in children. Benzylpenicillin is not indicated in the treatment of Kawasaki disease. Conservative management is also not appropriate, as specific treatment is required to reduce inflammation and prevent the risk of coronary complications. Corticosteroids may be used as a second-line treatment if the patient does not respond to intravenous immunoglobulins.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency department with symptoms of...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency department with symptoms of malaise, rash, vomiting and fever. The mother reports that the child has not been eating well for the past day and has been running a low-grade temperature. Additionally, the mother points out a partial thickness burn on the child's arm that has been treated with dressings by their GP. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Toxic shock syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for an unwell child with an unhealed burn

      When a child with an unhealed burn appears acutely unwell, several life-threatening conditions must be considered and ruled out promptly. Among them, toxic shock syndrome and meningococcal septicaemia are particularly concerning and require urgent management in the intensive care unit. Anaphylaxis, although a rare possibility, should also be considered and treated promptly with intramuscular adrenaline. Haemophilus influenzae and Salmonella are less likely causes, as they typically present with respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms, respectively, which are not evident in this case. A thorough assessment and appropriate interventions are crucial to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23
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  • Question 3 - A 3-day-old neonate born at term is presenting with tachypnoea, grunting, and cyanosis....

    Correct

    • A 3-day-old neonate born at term is presenting with tachypnoea, grunting, and cyanosis. The baby is unable to feed and has an oxygen saturation of 70% on room air. On auscultation, a loud S2 and systolic murmur are heard, which is loudest at the left sternal border. The doctors suspect transposition of the great arteries and have started the baby on intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and scheduled surgery. What additional medication should be given in the meantime?

      Your Answer: Prostaglandin E1

      Explanation:

      To maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in cyanotic congenital heart diseases, prostaglandin E1 should be administered. It is helpful to recall the 5 T’s for cyanotic CHD, which include Tetralogy of Fallot, Transposition of Great Vessels (TGA), Tricuspid Atresia, Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return, and Truncus Arteriosus. Based on the timing of onset and heart murmur, the patient in this case likely has TGA with a concurrent VSD. TGA typically presents shortly after birth. Prostaglandin E1 is given in ductal dependent cyanotic heart diseases to prevent closure of the patent ductus arteriosus until surgical correction can be performed. This allows for mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to ensure adequate systemic circulation. Antibiotics should also be administered as prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis. It is important to note that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as indomethacin and ibuprofen will actually close the ductus arteriosus and should not be used in this situation.

      Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.

      If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.

      Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      23.8
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  • Question 4 - What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What hand abnormalities are typical in children with achondroplasia?

      Your Answer: Simian hand

      Correct Answer: Trident hand

      Explanation:

      Achondroplasia

      Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that results in disproportionate short stature. This condition is characterized by an enlarged head and short arms and legs when compared to the trunk length. Individuals with achondroplasia typically reach an adult height of about 4 feet, which is significantly shorter than the average height for adults. In addition to short stature, people with achondroplasia may have other physical features, such as short hands with stubby fingers and a trident hand, which is a separation between the middle and ring fingers.

      In summary, achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that affects bone growth and development, resulting in disproportionate short stature and other physical features. While there is no cure for achondroplasia, early intervention and management can help individuals with this condition lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 4-year-old girl presents with multiple petechiae and excessive bruising on her arms....

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old girl presents with multiple petechiae and excessive bruising on her arms. She had been healthy until two weeks ago when she had a viral upper respiratory tract infection and was only given paracetamol by her doctor. Her mother noticed her symptoms half an hour ago and she has no fever. Blood tests show thrombocytopenia with all other parameters within normal range.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      27.9
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  • Question 6 - You assist in the delivery of a newborn in the neonatal unit. At...

    Incorrect

    • You assist in the delivery of a newborn in the neonatal unit. At 5 minutes, the baby's heart rate is 120 bpm, the baby is crying vigorously with active movement in all extremities. The baby is coughing and sneezing. The body is pink but the hands and feet are slightly blue and cool to the touch. Determine the APGAR score.

      Your Answer: 5

      Correct Answer: 9

      Explanation:

      The Apgar score is a tool used to evaluate the health of a newborn baby. It is recommended by NICE to be assessed at 1 and 5 minutes after birth, and again at 10 minutes if the initial score is low. The score is based on five factors: pulse, respiratory effort, color, muscle tone, and reflex irritability. A score of 0-3 is considered very low, 4-6 is moderate low, and 7-10 indicates that the baby is in good health. The score helps healthcare professionals quickly identify any potential issues and provide appropriate care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      18.2
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  • Question 7 - The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old...

    Incorrect

    • The midwife has requested that you conduct a newborn examination on a 2-day-old baby boy. He was delivered vaginally at 39 weeks gestation, weighing 3300 grams, and was in good condition. The antenatal scans were normal, and it was a low-risk pregnancy without family history of congenital disorders. During your examination, you observe a ventral urethral meatus while examining the external genitalia. What condition is commonly associated with this finding?

      Your Answer: Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      What conditions are commonly associated with hypospadias in patients?

      Hypospadias is often an isolated abnormality in children, but it is important to consider the possibility of other malformations. Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) and inguinal hernias are conditions commonly associated with hypospadias. It is crucial to examine the groin and scrotum in children with hypospadias and ensure they have passed urine in the first 24 hours of life. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome, renal agenesis, and Turner’s syndrome are not typically associated with hypospadias.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      29.2
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  • Question 8 - Which one of the following statements regarding toddler spasms is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding toddler spasms is incorrect?

      Your Answer: EEG shows hypsarrhythmia in the majority of children

      Correct Answer: Carries a good prognosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Infantile Spasms

      Infantile spasms, also known as West syndrome, is a form of epilepsy that typically occurs in infants between 4 to 8 months old, with a higher incidence in male infants. This condition is often associated with a serious underlying condition and has a poor prognosis. The characteristic feature of infantile spasms is the salaam attacks, which involve the flexion of the head, trunk, and arms followed by the extension of the arms. These attacks last only 1-2 seconds but can be repeated up to 50 times.

      Infants with infantile spasms may also experience progressive mental handicap. To diagnose this condition, an EEG is typically performed, which shows hypsarrhythmia in two-thirds of infants. Additionally, a CT scan may be used to identify any diffuse or localized brain disease, which is present in 70% of cases, such as tuberous sclerosis.

      Unfortunately, infantile spasms carry a poor prognosis. However, there are treatment options available. Vigabatrin is now considered the first-line therapy, and ACTH is also used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16
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  • Question 9 - A 1-month-old infant begins to turn blue and becomes tachypnoeic 10 minutes after...

    Incorrect

    • A 1-month-old infant begins to turn blue and becomes tachypnoeic 10 minutes after feeding. They are administered 100% oxygen for 20 minutes and an arterial blood gas is performed.

      pH 7.40 7.36 - 7.42
      PaO2 11.5 kPa 10.0 - 12.5
      PaCO2 5.8 kPa 5.1 - 5.6

      On auscultation, the infant has no murmur but a loud single S2. On palpation, there is a prominent ventricular pulse.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tricuspid atresia

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      The oxygen level is below 15 kPa, indicating a cyanotic heart defect. The most likely defect to present soon after birth is transposition of the great arteries, which is consistent with the examination findings. Pulmonary valve stenosis may also cause cyanosis if the lesion is large enough and is associated with Noonan syndrome. It produces a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur. Tetralogy of Fallot is the most common cyanotic heart defect but typically presents between 1 and 6 months of age. It is characterized by a loud ejection systolic murmur that is most prominent at the left upper sternal edge and radiates to the axillae.

      Understanding Transposition of the Great Arteries

      Transposition of the great arteries (TGA) is a type of congenital heart disease that results in a lack of oxygenated blood flow to the body. This condition occurs when the aorticopulmonary septum fails to spiral during septation, causing the aorta to leave the right ventricle and the pulmonary trunk to leave the left ventricle. Children born to diabetic mothers are at a higher risk of developing TGA.

      The clinical features of TGA include cyanosis, tachypnea, a loud single S2 heart sound, and a prominent right ventricular impulse. Chest x-rays may show an egg-on-side appearance.

      To manage TGA, it is important to maintain the ductus arteriosus with prostaglandins. Surgical correction is the definitive treatment for this condition. Understanding the basic anatomical changes and clinical features of TGA can help with early diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      35.8
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  • Question 10 - You are a healthcare professional at the paediatric oncology unit and you have...

    Correct

    • You are a healthcare professional at the paediatric oncology unit and you have been summoned to speak with the parents of a 6-year-old boy who has recently been diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL). The parents are anxious about their older daughter and are wondering if she is also at a higher risk of developing ALL. Can you provide them with information on the epidemiology of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

      Your Answer: Peak incidence is 2-5 years

      Explanation:

      Childhood leukaemia is the most prevalent cancer in children, without significant familial correlation. However, certain genetic disorders, such as Down’s syndrome, can increase the risk of developing this disease.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      2.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (4/10) 40%
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