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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old male student is seeking treatment for his anxiety disorder at a...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male student is seeking treatment for his anxiety disorder at a mental health clinic. The psychiatrist discovers a record of sexual assault that occurred 8 months ago. When asked about the incident, the student cannot remember the details.

      What ego defence mechanism is being exhibited in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Suppression

      Correct Answer: Repression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man is in a serious car crash that results in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man is in a serious car crash that results in the death of his wife and son. Upon arrival at the Emergency Department, he appears composed and shows no signs of physical or emotional distress. However, he cannot recall the details of the accident and believes his family is unharmed. If there is no evidence of organic brain damage, which ego defense mechanism is he exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Repression

      Correct Answer: Dissociation

      Explanation:

      Dissociation is a coping mechanism that involves a temporary and drastic change in personality, memory, consciousness, or motor behavior in response to emotional stress. It often results in incomplete or no memory of the traumatic event. In severe cases, it can lead to dissociative identity disorder, also known as multiple personality disorder. Other examples of coping mechanisms include denial, which involves avoiding awareness of a painful reality, repression, which involves involuntarily withholding an idea or feeling from conscious awareness, and sublimation, which involves redirecting an unacceptable wish towards a course of action that aligns with one’s values, such as channeling aggression into sports performance.

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a new resident on the medical assessment unit, you are attending a...

    Incorrect

    • As a new resident on the medical assessment unit, you are attending a consultant-led ward round. A 45-year-old male with a history of alcohol-related liver failure becomes agitated and threatens to punch the consultant. He displays coarse tremors in both hands and appears highly anxious.

      The patient is a chronic alcoholic.

      What is the preferred medication for managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Lorazepam

      Explanation:

      To prevent increased sedation, lorazepam is the preferred medication for alcohol withdrawal syndrome in patients with hepatic failure, rather than chlordiazepoxide. Naloxone is used for opioid overdose and respiratory depression caused by opioids, while flumazenil is not used for alcohol withdrawal management as it counteracts the effects of benzodiazepines.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. This is due to the fact that chronic alcohol consumption enhances GABA-mediated inhibition in the central nervous system (CNS), similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. When alcohol consumption is stopped, the opposite occurs, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission.

      Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start within 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at around 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which is characterized by coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, is most likely to occur at around 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said not to be as effective in the treatment of alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old female presents to the GP clinic with a one-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the GP clinic with a one-month history of anhedonia, insomnia, and low mood. The GP prescribes citalopram to alleviate her symptoms. What is the underlying hypothesis for this treatment?

      Your Answer: Monoamine hypothesis

      Explanation:

      Patients with moderate depression exhibit elevated cortisol levels. The neurotrophic hypothesis suggests that depression-induced glutamate increase leads to cellular atrophy and reduced BDNF, which typically safeguards neurons. The immunological hypothesis proposes that depression can imitate the sick role by raising inflammatory cytokines and interleukins, such as interferon-alpha and tumor necrosis factor. The psychological hypothesis posits that mood changes stem from dysfunctional core beliefs, which cause cognitive distortions about oneself, others, and the world, forming the foundation of CBT. The monoamine hypothesis suggests that depressed patients have insufficient monoamine levels, which regulate mood. In depression, there is an increased density of MAO-A (metabolizer). Citalopram functions by restricting monoamine reuptake into the presynaptic cell, thereby increasing the monoamine levels available to the postsynaptic receptor, indicating that it operates based on the monoamine hypothesis.

      Screening and Assessment of Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.

      The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.3
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  • Question 5 - A nursing student is concerned after hearing a voice calling her name while...

    Correct

    • A nursing student is concerned after hearing a voice calling her name while drifting off to sleep. She has no history of hearing voices and denies any symptoms of psychosis. There is no evidence of substance abuse or alcohol misuse.
      What is the probable diagnosis for her encounter?

      Your Answer: Hypnagogic hallucination

      Explanation:

      Hypnagogic and Hypnopompic Hallucinations

      Hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations are common experiences that have been known since ancient times. Hypnagogic hallucinations occur when falling asleep, while hypnopompic hallucinations occur when waking up in the morning and falling asleep again. These hallucinations are mostly auditory in nature, with individuals typically hearing their name being called. However, they can also occur in other modalities such as vision, smell, and touch.

      It is important to note that hypnagogic and hypnopompic hallucinations differ from illusions and elementary hallucinations. An illusion is the misperception of an actual stimulus, while an elementary hallucination is a simple noise such as knocking or tapping. On the other hand, a functional hallucination is triggered by a stimulus in the same modality. For example, hearing a doorbell may cause the individual to hear a voice.

      the different types of hallucinations can help individuals recognize and cope with their experiences. It is also important to seek medical attention if these hallucinations become frequent or interfere with daily life. By these phenomena, individuals can better navigate their experiences and seek appropriate treatment if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A woman punishes her 10-year-old son for breaking his younger sibling's toy by...

    Correct

    • A woman punishes her 10-year-old son for breaking his younger sibling's toy by removing one of his favourite toys from the shelf. Her son becomes tearful and wets his bed. He was a previously toilet-trained child.

      Which ego defence mechanism is demonstrated by the 10-year-old's behaviour of wetting his bed after being punished for breaking his sibling's toy?

      Your Answer: Regression

      Explanation:

      Regression refers to the involuntary process of reverting back to earlier ways of dealing with the world, which is different from fixation. This phenomenon is commonly observed in children who are experiencing stress due to factors such as illness, punishment, or the arrival of a new sibling. For instance, a child who was previously toilet-trained may start bedwetting again under such circumstances. Other related psychological concepts include reaction formation, fixation, and displacement.

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old male accountant comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male accountant comes to the clinic complaining of weakness in his left arm and right leg. He reports experiencing high levels of stress at work and a recent breakup with his girlfriend. Interestingly, he appears to show little emotional reaction when discussing these events and his motor symptoms. Additionally, he is observed moving his affected limbs normally when he thinks no one is watching. How would you describe his presentation?

      Your Answer: Hypochondriasis

      Correct Answer: Belle indifference

      Explanation:

      Belle Indifference in Conversion Disorder

      Conversion disorder is a dissociative disorder that arises when emotional stress is transformed into physical health symptoms. One of the characteristic features of this disorder is belle indifference, which is the lack of emotional response to the severe physical disabilities that patients with conversion disorders present with. Although it is rarely seen nowadays, it is still included in the diagnostic criteria of this disorder.

      Belle indifference is typically observed in conversion disorder and is a striking feature of this condition. EEG and MRI may confirm the physical disability, but the patient shows no emotional response to the symptoms. Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, is a condition where the patient believes they have a specific diagnosis, such as cancer. It is important to differentiate between these two conditions as they have different treatment approaches. the features of belle indifference in conversion disorder can aid in the diagnosis and management of this disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 48-year-old man is brought into the emergency department after attempting to take...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man is brought into the emergency department after attempting to take his own life. He was found at home with empty packets of paracetamol by his side. He is still conscious. A history is taken from him to evaluate his risk of future attempts.

      What is the most significant risk factor for a successful suicide?

      Your Answer: Addiction to opiates

      Explanation:

      Individuals with a history of alcohol or drug abuse and deliberate self harm, particularly males, should be considered at high risk for suicide.

      The risk of suicide in psychiatric patients is often stratified into high, medium, or low risk categories, but there is limited evidence on the positive predictive value of individual risk factors. A review in the BMJ concluded that these assessments may not be useful in guiding decision making, as 50% of suicides occur in patients deemed low risk. However, certain factors have been associated with an increased risk of suicide, such as male sex, history of deliberate self-harm, alcohol or drug misuse, mental illness, depression, schizophrenia, chronic disease, advancing age, unemployment or social isolation, and being unmarried, divorced, or widowed.

      If a patient has attempted suicide, there are additional factors that increase the risk of completed suicide in the future, such as efforts to avoid discovery, planning, leaving a written note, final acts such as sorting out finances, and using a violent method. On the other hand, there are protective factors that can reduce the risk of suicide, such as having family support, having children at home, and having a religious belief.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      13.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old male patient comes in for a routine colonoscopy. He had stage...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male patient comes in for a routine colonoscopy. He had stage I colon cancer that was treated successfully ten years ago. During the discussion of his thoughts, concerns, and expectations, he mentions that he hasn't thought about the potential results until now and that worrying won't change anything.

      What ego defense mechanism is he displaying?

      Your Answer: Denial

      Correct Answer: Suppression

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - You are interviewing a patient who has recently been admitted to the acute...

    Incorrect

    • You are interviewing a patient who has recently been admitted to the acute psychiatric ward. When talking, he is difficult to interrupt. While describing his reaction to the death of his grandfather, he says, The police asked me to identify his body. Ha ha ha! I was shocked to see him lying there! Ha ha ha! What is the best description of this mental state?

      Your Answer: Tangentiality

      Correct Answer: Incongruity of affect

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Symptoms: Incongruity of Affect and Perseveration

      Incongruity of affect is a symptom commonly seen in individuals with schizophrenia. It refers to the unpredictable and contradictory emotional response to events. For instance, an insignificant event may trigger a severe emotional reaction, while a significant event may produce no response or an opposite response. This symptom can be observed when a person laughs while recalling a traumatic event.

      It is important to differentiate incongruity of affect from a slight smile that may occur in an anxious or shocked person following a traumatic event. Incongruity of affect is a more severe and persistent symptom that is characteristic of schizophrenia.

      Another symptom of schizophrenia is perseveration, which refers to the inability to stop an action or thought. For example, if someone is asked to tap on a table once, they may continue tapping even after the task is completed. This symptom can be frustrating for the individual and may interfere with their daily activities.

      In summary, incongruity of affect and perseveration are two symptoms commonly seen in individuals with schizophrenia. These symptoms can significantly impact their daily lives and require appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her...

    Incorrect

    • What category of hallucination does Jane experience when she hears someone calling her name while being alone in the house?

      Your Answer: Auditory illusion

      Correct Answer: Hypnogogic hallucination

      Explanation:

      Types of Hallucinations

      Hypnogogic and hypnopompic hallucinations are two types of hallucinations that occur during the sleep cycle. Hypnogogic hallucinations happen when a person is falling asleep and can be auditory, visual, tactile, or kinaesthetic. On the other hand, hypnopompic hallucinations occur when a person is waking up, and the hallucination continues even after the person opens their eyes. These types of hallucinations are not indicative of any psychopathology and can occur in individuals with narcolepsy.

      Reflex hallucinations are another type of hallucination that occurs when a true sensory stimulus causes an hallucination in another sensory modality. Autoscopy is a unique experience where an individual sees themselves and knows that it is themselves. This experience is visual and is sometimes referred to as the ‘phantom mirror image.’ Finally, auditory illusions occur when an auditory stimulus is misrepresented or misinterpreted by the listener.

      In summary, there are various types of hallucinations that can occur in different stages of the sleep cycle or due to sensory stimuli. While these experiences may seem unusual, they do not necessarily indicate any underlying mental health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Oliver takes medication for a heart condition. He notices that everything he sees...

    Correct

    • Oliver takes medication for a heart condition. He notices that everything he sees appears to be tinged with yellow.

      What term could be used to describe this symptom?

      Your Answer: Xanthopsia

      Explanation:

      Types of Visual Perceptions and Distortions

      Xanthopsia, chloropsia, and erythropsia are all types of visual perceptions that involve a predominant color. Xanthopsia, in particular, is often caused by digitalis toxicity. Autoscopy, on the other hand, is a type of visual hallucination where an individual sees themselves and knows it is them. Dysmegalopsia, micropsia, and macropsia all describe changes in the perceived shape or size of an object. Hyperaesthesia, meanwhile, refers to an increased intensity of sensation, which can be uncomfortable for some individuals. Lastly, pareidolia is a visual illusion where an individual perceives an image in an otherwise vague or obscure stimulus.

      It is important to note that sensory distortions can occur in any sense modality, not just in vision. These types of perceptions and distortions can be caused by various factors, such as medication side effects, neurological conditions, or even psychological states. these phenomena can help individuals recognize and seek appropriate treatment if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A young adult visits the doctor with a complaint of a minor burn...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult visits the doctor with a complaint of a minor burn on their hand. During the consultation, they go into great detail about the events leading up to the burn, including what they were cooking and their favorite recipes. It takes a while before they finally mention the burn. Given their history of anxiety, what would be the classification of this behavior?

      Your Answer: Flight of Ideas

      Correct Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing psychiatric disorders such as anxiety. Hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety are important alternative causes. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). The first step is education about GAD and active monitoring. The second step involves low-intensity psychological interventions such as individual non-facilitated self-help, individual guided self-help, or psychoeducational groups. The third step includes high-intensity psychological interventions such as cognitive behavioural therapy or applied relaxation, or drug treatment. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI recommended by NICE. If sertraline is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin–noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the person cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under the age of 30 years, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.

      The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach. The first step is recognition and diagnosis, followed by treatment in primary care. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment. SSRIs are the first-line treatment. If contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered. The third step involves reviewing and considering alternative treatments, followed by review and referral to specialist mental health services in the fourth and fifth steps, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A patient with intricate mental health issues and multiple medications presents at the...

    Correct

    • A patient with intricate mental health issues and multiple medications presents at the clinic with concerns about weight gain. Which of the following medications is probable to be the cause of this side effect?

      Your Answer: Olanzapine

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is a prevalent side effect of antipsychotics.

      While antipsychotics are successful in treating schizophrenia, they often lead to weight gain and an increased likelihood of developing type 2 diabetes. The most rapid weight gain typically occurs within the first six months of starting antipsychotic treatment.

      In particular, Olanzapine and Clozapine are associated with a high risk of weight gain. They stimulate appetite and result in overeating, as well as disrupt glucose regulation.

      Schizophrenia management guidelines were published by NICE in 2009. The guidelines recommend that first-line treatment for schizophrenia should involve oral atypical antipsychotics. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients. It is important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification due to the high rates of cardiovascular disease in schizophrenic patients, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare professionals should take necessary measures to reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease in these patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A middle-aged woman presents with complaints of profound sadness, marked difficulty concentrating, and...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged woman presents with complaints of profound sadness, marked difficulty concentrating, and an inability to make decisions. During the evaluation, she speaks slowly and struggles to articulate her emotions. How would you characterize the alterations in her cognitive functioning and thought processes?

      Your Answer: Psychomotor retardation

      Explanation:

      Psychomotor Retardation in Severe Depression

      Psychomotor retardation is a cognitive symptom commonly observed in individuals with severe depression. It is characterized by a significant slowing down of both thinking and behavior. This symptom can manifest in various ways, such as slowed speech, reduced movement, and delayed responses. Psychomotor retardation can significantly impact an individual’s ability to carry out daily activities and can lead to social withdrawal and isolation.

      It is essential to differentiate psychomotor retardation from other forms of thought disorders seen in other psychiatric conditions such as mania and schizophrenia. In mania, individuals may experience racing thoughts and increased energy levels, while in schizophrenia, disorganized thinking and speech patterns are common. Therefore, a thorough evaluation by a mental health professional is necessary to accurately diagnose and treat psychomotor retardation in severe depression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      8.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 23-year-old woman visits the clinic after discovering that her partner has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman visits the clinic after discovering that her partner has been involved in another relationship. She expresses intense anger and reports struggling to concentrate on her upcoming college classes and track competition. She also shares that she is using her anger to fuel her training for the track meet.

      What defense mechanism is she displaying?

      Your Answer: Reaction formation

      Correct Answer: Sublimation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 16-year-old girl is brought to her family doctor by her parents due...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is brought to her family doctor by her parents due to concerns about her weight and low mood. The parents are worried that their daughter has been excessively focused on her weight and has lost interest in her hobbies. The girl admits to exercising and watching her weight, but also reports feeling low for the past month and having trouble sleeping. The doctor measures her body mass index at 17.8 kg per m² and suggests prescribing an antidepressant to improve her mood. However, which of the following antidepressants is specifically contraindicated in this patient?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Correct Answer: Bupropion

      Explanation:

      The young girl in question appears to be suffering from anorexia nervosa, as she is overly concerned with her weight despite having a low body mass index. It is common for females of a young age to develop this condition, and it is often accompanied by depression, which can manifest as low mood, loss of interest in hobbies, and sleep disturbances.

      One recommended antidepressant for patients with anorexia nervosa is mirtazapine, as it can also increase appetite and promote weight gain. Fluoxetine, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, is not contraindicated for anorexia nervosa, but it can cause gastrointestinal distress or sexual dysfunction, which may make it difficult for young patients to comply with the medication. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is typically used for major depression but has a worse side-effect profile than selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Bupropion, an atypical antidepressant commonly used for smoking cessation, is not recommended for patients with anorexia nervosa or bulimia nervosa, as it can lower the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - During a parent-teacher conference, a student tells their teacher that 'all the older...

    Correct

    • During a parent-teacher conference, a student tells their teacher that 'all the older students are mean and unhelpful but the younger students are kind and friendly'. A few hours later they tell the complete opposite to one of the older students.

      This is an example of which of the following ego defence mechanisms?

      Your Answer: Splitting

      Explanation:

      Splitting is a belief that individuals are either completely good or completely bad at different times, which stems from an inability to tolerate ambiguity. This behavior is frequently observed in individuals with borderline personality disorder. Other related behaviors include idealization, which involves expressing overly positive thoughts about oneself and others while disregarding negative thoughts, identification, which is the unconscious adoption of another person’s characteristics, qualities, or traits, and projection, which involves attributing an unacceptable internal impulse to an external source (as opposed to displacement).

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      11.1
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 50-year-old alcoholic has been brought to the emergency department by his sister....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old alcoholic has been brought to the emergency department by his sister. His sister reports that he has been disoriented for the past few days and has had a few falls. Upon examination, he displays an unstable gait. He is unable to recall the name of the first female prime minister of the UK or the trip to the emergency department. He insists that he went to the beach yesterday - which his sister denies. Based on the presented symptoms, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute delirium

      Correct Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome, which is a complication of Wernicke’s encephalopathy, include anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. This patient initially presented with confusion and an unsteady gait, which are signs of ataxia associated with Wernicke’s encephalopathy. However, the presence of anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation suggests that the patient’s condition has progressed to Korsakoff’s syndrome.

      In contrast, Alzheimer’s disease typically affects memory in a gradual and progressive manner.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome

      Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. This condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, which leads to damage and haemorrhage in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often follows untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is another condition caused by thiamine deficiency.

      The primary features of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to acquire new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.

      Understanding Korsakoff’s syndrome is crucial for individuals who have a history of alcoholism or thiamine deficiency. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent further damage and improve the individual’s quality of life. Proper nutrition and abstinence from alcohol are essential for managing this condition.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 20 - A 63-year-old male with a lengthy history of schizophrenia presents at the clinic....

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old male with a lengthy history of schizophrenia presents at the clinic. He displays rapid darting movements of his tongue and appears to be grimacing. What is the mechanism of action of the medication that is most likely responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Long term dopamine receptor blockade causing hypersensitivity of dopamine receptors in the nigrostriatal pathway

      Explanation:

      Tardive dyskinesia is a condition that can occur as a result of long-term use of antipsychotic drugs, which is likely in this patient due to his history of mental illness. It is believed that blocking the dopamine receptor can cause hypersensitivity of the D2 receptor in the nigrostriatal pathway, leading to excessive movements.

      It should be noted that antiemetic medications that use dopamine antagonism in the chemoreceptor trigger zone are more likely to cause acute dystonias rather than tardive dyskinesia. Additionally, degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra is associated with Parkinson’s disease and would not produce these symptoms. Abrupt withdrawal of dopaminergic agents is also not expected to result in tardive dyskinesia. Finally, carbidopa inhibits the conversion of L-DOPA into dopamine and does not cause tardive dyskinesia.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 21 - A middle-aged male patient with a history of schizophrenia and non-compliance with medication...

    Incorrect

    • A middle-aged male patient with a history of schizophrenia and non-compliance with medication presents with delusions of alien possession. How would you characterize his delusions?

      Your Answer: Delusions of misidentification

      Correct Answer: Delusions of control

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia Symptoms: Delusion of Control, Depersonalisation, and Delusions of Misidentification

      Delusion of control, also known as passivity experience, is a primary symptom of schizophrenia identified by Schneider. This symptom is characterized by the belief that one’s body, mind, volition, or emotion is being controlled by another entity, being, or force. On the other hand, depersonalisation is the feeling of being disconnected from reality, often accompanied by derealisation.

      Delusions of misidentification, another symptom of schizophrenia, can be divided into two types: Fregoli Syndrome and Capgras Syndrome. Fregoli Syndrome is the belief that someone whose appearance is unfamiliar is actually someone you know, while Capgras Syndrome is the belief that someone who looks familiar is an imposter.

      Overall, these symptoms can significantly impact an individual’s perception of reality and their ability to function in daily life. It is important to seek professional help if experiencing any of these symptoms or suspecting someone else may be experiencing them.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 22 - What type of hallucination is Lillian experiencing while being unwell in bed with...

    Incorrect

    • What type of hallucination is Lillian experiencing while being unwell in bed with pneumonia and seeing a tiny marching band on her bedclothes?

      Your Answer: Visual hallucination - elementary hallucination

      Correct Answer: Visual hallucination - Lilliputian hallucinations

      Explanation:

      Types of Hallucinations

      Hallucinations are false perceptions that occur simultaneously with real perceptions. There are different types of hallucinations, including visual hallucinations associated with micropsia, which are known as Lilliputian hallucinations. These hallucinations often occur in patients suffering from delirium. Another type of visual hallucination is elementary hallucinations, which appear as flashes of light.

      Extracampine hallucinations occur when an individual experiences a hallucination outside their sensory field, such as seeing someone standing behind them while looking straight ahead. Reflex hallucinations happen when a true sensory stimulus causes a hallucination in another sensory modality. Lastly, autoscopy is the experience of seeing oneself and knowing it is oneself, also known as the phantom mirror-image. the different types of hallucinations can help in identifying and treating them appropriately.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 23 - Sophie is at a crowded concert. She is standing near a group of...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is at a crowded concert. She is standing near a group of her favorite band's fans and she can hear part of their conversation. She thinks she hears the name of her favorite band member mentioned.

      What kind of illusion is Sophie experiencing?

      Your Answer: Fantastic illusion

      Correct Answer: Auditory illusion

      Explanation:

      Types of Illusions and Examples

      Illusions can occur in any sensory modality, but the most commonly reported are visual. However, there are three broad types of illusions: affect illusion, completion illusion, and pareidolia. Affect illusion is associated with specific mood states, such as someone who has recently been bereaved may ‘see’ their loved one. Completion illusion is due to inattention when reading, such as misreading words or completing faded letters. Pareidolia occurs when an individual perceives a vivid picture in an otherwise vague or obscure stimulus, such as seeing faces or animals in clouds.

      Fantastic illusions were described by some of the classic psychiatrists. For example, Fish described a patient who, during an interview, stated that the psychiatrist’s head changed to a rabbit’s head. This patient was known to confabulate and exaggerate. Another example of an auditory illusion is when a partially overheard conversation is misrepresented or misinterpreted by the listener, leading them to believe that they are being discussed.

      In conclusion, illusions can occur in various forms and can be caused by different factors. It is important to understand the different types of illusions to avoid misinterpretation and confusion.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 55-year-old patient comes in for a routine check-up after her recent gallbladder...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old patient comes in for a routine check-up after her recent gallbladder removal surgery. The procedure went smoothly with no complications. She reports feeling drowsy in the mornings and you suspect it may be due to one of the medications she was prescribed during her hospital stay, specifically lorazepam.

      Can you provide a brief explanation of the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer: A benzodiazepine hypnotic that stimulates GABA receptors

      Correct Answer: A non-benzodiazepine hypnotic that stimulates GABA receptors

      Explanation:

      Zopiclone is a non-benzodiazepine used for insomnia and anxiety by stimulating the α-subunit of the GABA receptor. It should be used with caution due to addiction and tolerance. Benzodiazepines work through direct stimulation of GABA receptors, while promethazine and cyclizine are H1 receptor antagonists that cause sedation as a side effect.

      Understanding Z Drugs

      Z drugs are a class of medications that have comparable effects to benzodiazepines but differ in their chemical structure. They work by targeting the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. Z drugs can be categorized into three groups: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon, respectively.

      Like benzodiazepines, Z drugs can cause similar adverse effects. Additionally, they can increase the risk of falls in older adults. It is important to understand the potential risks and benefits of these medications before use and to follow the prescribed dosage and instructions carefully.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 25 - Sarah, a 25-year-old woman, arrives at the Emergency department after an impulsive overdose...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 25-year-old woman, arrives at the Emergency department after an impulsive overdose of 15 paracetamol tablets and a bottle of vodka. This is her sixth visit to the emergency department with a similar presentation in the past year.

      Upon evaluation by the on-call psychiatry doctor, Sarah reveals that she took the pills after a fight with her boyfriend. Further questioning about her background reveals that she was a victim of childhood abuse. Sarah has had multiple intense relationships, but they never seem to last.

      Sarah describes herself as feeling empty inside for several months. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Emotionally unstable personality disorder - impulsive type

      Correct Answer: Emotionally unstable personality disorder - borderline type

      Explanation:

      Personality Disorders and their Characteristics

      Janet’s behavior suggests that she may have emotionally unstable personality disorder – borderline type. This disorder is characterized by emotional instability, impulsivity, and deliberate attempts at self-harm. Individuals with this disorder often have intense but unstable relationships and feel a chronic sense of emptiness. Traumatic events in childhood may also be a factor.

      In contrast, emotionally unstable personality disorder – impulsive type is characterized by explosive outbursts due to poor impulse control. These individuals may be quarrelsome and easily enter into conflict, particularly when their impulsive or explosive acts are interrupted.

      Depressive episodes are characterized by low mood and other symptoms such as anhedonia, emotional blunting, changes in appetite and sleep patterns, feelings of guilt, and thoughts of suicide or death. Although Janet has taken an overdose, there are no other indications of a depressive episode in her history. However, a more detailed history may be necessary to determine if she is experiencing these symptoms or any other psychiatric illnesses.

      It is important to note that individuals with personality disorders may also suffer from other psychiatric illnesses, known as co-morbidity. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by shallow and labile affectivity, self-dramatization, theatricality, egocentricity, and a continual need for appreciation, excitement, and attention. Anakastic personality disorder is similar to obsessive-compulsive personality disorder and is characterized by preoccupation with detail, rules, organization, and schedules, which can hinder completion of tasks and relationships.

      Overall, the characteristics of different personality disorders can help in identifying and treating individuals who may be struggling with these conditions.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 26 - A 24-year-old male has just begun taking risperidone for schizophrenia. Soon after starting...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old male has just begun taking risperidone for schizophrenia. Soon after starting the medication, he observes that his breasts have become enlarged and there is some discharge. He also confesses to experiencing a decrease in libido and erectile dysfunction.

      What dopaminergic pathway is being suppressed to result in this manifestation, which is diagnosed as hyperprolactinemia due to the use of antipsychotics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tuberoinfundibular pathway

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics cause hyperprolactinaemia by inhibiting the tuberoinfundibular pathway, a dopaminergic pathway that originates from the hypothalamus and extends to the median eminence. This inhibition results in an increase in prolactin levels, which is responsible for the patient’s symptoms. Parkinson’s disease is associated with dysfunction in the nigrostriatal pathway, while schizophrenia is linked to abnormalities in the mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways. The corticospinal tract is involved in movement.

      Antipsychotics are a type of medication used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. However, they are known to cause extrapyramidal side-effects such as Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. These side-effects can be managed with procyclidine. Other side-effects of typical antipsychotics include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients due to an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old male patient is feeling impatient as he waits in a crowded...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient is feeling impatient as he waits in a crowded Emergency Room (ER) waiting area. He snaps at his daughter in annoyance.

      What ego defence mechanism is he utilizing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Displacement

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ego Defenses

      Ego defenses are psychological mechanisms that individuals use to protect themselves from unpleasant emotions or thoughts. These defenses are classified into four levels, each with its own set of defense mechanisms. The first level, psychotic defenses, is considered pathological as it distorts reality to avoid dealing with it. The second level, immature defenses, includes projection, acting out, and projective identification. The third level, neurotic defenses, has short-term benefits but can lead to problems in the long run. These defenses include repression, rationalization, and regression. The fourth and most advanced level, mature defenses, includes altruism, sublimation, and humor.

      Despite the usefulness of understanding ego defenses, their classification and definitions can be inconsistent and frustrating to learn for exams. It is important to note that these defenses are not necessarily good or bad, but rather a natural part of human behavior. By recognizing and understanding our own ego defenses, we can better manage our emotions and thoughts in a healthy way.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 28 - A teenager presents with the belief that they can fly. This is likely...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents with the belief that they can fly. This is likely to be a primary delusion.

      Which of the following is most commonly associated with this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Primary delusions are unique in that they cannot be attributed to any previous psychopathological state, such as a mood disorder. Delusions are characterized by an unshakeable, false belief that is not accepted by others in the patient’s culture. The patient perceives no difference between a delusional belief and a true belief.

      The correct answer is Schizophrenia, as primary delusions are often observed in this disorder and other psychotic disorders. In contrast, mania and severe depression are more likely to cause secondary delusions that are related to the patient’s underlying mood.

      Anorexia nervosa typically does not involve true delusions, but it may involve over-valued ideas that the person becomes preoccupied with.

      Understanding Psychosis: Symptoms and Associated Features

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in a variety of ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. These symptoms can be associated with agitation, aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm.

      Psychotic symptoms can occur in a number of conditions, including schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Huntington’s disease, and as a result of prescribed drugs or certain illicit drugs like cannabis and phencyclidine.

      The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years. It is important to understand the symptoms and associated features of psychosis in order to recognize and seek appropriate treatment for those experiencing these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 29 - What kind of hallucination is it when Lilly hears the phone ringing and...

    Incorrect

    • What kind of hallucination is it when Lilly hears the phone ringing and John Lennon's voice at the same time?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Functional hallucination

      Explanation:

      Types of Hallucinations and Illusions

      Functional hallucinations are auditory hallucinations that occur in response to an external stimulus. The individual can distinguish between the stimulus and the hallucination, and the hallucination only occurs when the stimulus is present. Reflex hallucinations, on the other hand, occur when a sensory stimulus in one modality causes a hallucination in another modality.

      Autoscopy, also known as phantom mirror-image, is the experience of seeing oneself and recognizing that it is oneself. This can be a disorienting experience, as the individual may feel as though they are outside of their own body. Extracampine hallucinations occur when an individual experiences a hallucination outside of their own sensory field, such as seeing something behind them when they are looking straight ahead.

      Auditory illusions occur when an auditory stimulus is misinterpreted by the listener. This can happen when the listener is in a noisy environment or when the sound is distorted in some way. It is important to note that hallucinations and illusions can be symptoms of various mental health conditions and should be evaluated by a medical professional.

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      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic after attempting suicide. The physician suspects...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic after attempting suicide. The physician suspects an underlying psychiatric condition and conducts a screening for psychiatric symptoms. During the screening, the patient reports experiencing symptoms for the past two years, such as feeling low, fatigue, and loss of interest in her hobbies. Based on this, the doctor diagnoses her with major depressive disorder. What clinical feature would warrant a reevaluation of her diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Persecutory delusions

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia can be indicated by the presence of persecutory delusions, while the symptoms of depression align with the diagnosis. Guilty delusions, specifically, are a symptom commonly seen in cases of psychotic depression.

      Screening and Assessment of Depression

      Depression is a common mental health condition that affects many people worldwide. Screening and assessment are important steps in identifying and managing depression. The screening process involves asking two simple questions to determine if a person is experiencing symptoms of depression. If the answer is yes to either question, a more in-depth assessment is necessary.

      Assessment tools such as the Hospital Anxiety and Depression (HAD) scale and the Patient Health Questionnaire (PHQ-9) are commonly used to assess the severity of depression. The HAD scale consists of 14 questions, seven for anxiety and seven for depression. Each item is scored from 0-3, producing a score out of 21 for both anxiety and depression. The PHQ-9 asks patients about nine different problems they may have experienced in the last two weeks, which can then be scored from 0-3. This tool also includes questions about thoughts of self-harm.

      The DSM-IV criteria are used by NICE to grade depression. This criteria includes nine different symptoms, such as depressed mood, diminished interest or pleasure in activities, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. The severity of depression can range from subthreshold depressive symptoms to severe depression with or without psychotic symptoms.

      In conclusion, screening and assessment are crucial steps in identifying and managing depression. By using tools such as the HAD scale and PHQ-9, healthcare professionals can accurately assess the severity of depression and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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Psychiatry (9/25) 36%
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