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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old male has presented with a record of blood pressure readings taken...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male has presented with a record of blood pressure readings taken at home over the past week. His readings have consistently been above the accepted range for his age. He is a smoker of 20 cigarettes per day.

      Your senior has prescribed a low dose of ramipril and recommended lifestyle modifications and exercise.

      You have been asked by your senior to discuss the use of this medication and provide any necessary dietary advice.

      Which of the following is the most important piece of information to communicate to this patient?

      A) Taking ramipril with paracetamol compounds its hypotensive effect
      B) Taking ramipril with alcohol compounds its hypotensive effect
      C) Taking ramipril with coffee compounds its hypotensive effect
      D) Taking ramipril with tea compounds its hypotensive effect

      Please select the correct answer and provide an explanation.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Taking ramipril with alcohol compounds its hypotensive effect

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors’ hypotensive effects are worsened by alcohol consumption, leading to symptoms of low blood pressure such as dizziness and lightheadedness. Additionally, the effectiveness of ACE inhibitors may be reduced by hypertension-associated medications like acetaminophen and venlafaxine. Caffeine, found in both tea and coffee, can also elevate blood pressure.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.

      While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.

      Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.

      The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 2 - Where are the red hat pins most likely located based on the highest...

    Incorrect

    • Where are the red hat pins most likely located based on the highest velocity measurements in different parts of a bovine heart during experimental research for a new drug for heart conduction disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Purkinje fibres

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a sudden and severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a sudden and severe headache, describing it as the worst she has ever experienced. She has a medical history of hypertension and polycystic kidney disease (PKD). The emergency physician diagnoses a subarachnoid hemorrhage, which is a common complication of her PKD.

      What is the gold standard investigation for intracranial vascular disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cerebral angiography

      Explanation:

      The gold standard investigation for intracranial vascular disease is cerebral angiography, which can diagnose intracranial aneurysms and other vascular diseases by visualizing arteries and veins using contrast dye injected into the bloodstream. This technique can also create 3-D reconstructed images that allow for a comprehensive view of the cerebral vessels and accompanying pathology from all angles.

      Individuals with PKD are at an increased risk of cerebral aneurysms, which can lead to subarachnoid hemorrhages.

      Flow-Sensitive MRI (FS MRI) is a useful tool that combines functional MRI with images of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow. It can aid in planning the surgical removal of skull base tumors, spinal cord tumors, or tumors causing hydrocephalus.

      While contrast and non-contrast CT scans are commonly used as the first line of investigation for intracranial lesions, they are not the gold standard and are superseded by cerebral angiography.

      Understanding Cerebral Blood Flow and Angiography

      Cerebral blood flow is regulated by the central nervous system, which can adjust its own blood supply. Various factors can affect cerebral pressure, including CNS metabolism, trauma, pressure, and systemic carbon dioxide levels. The most potent mediator is PaCO2, while acidosis and hypoxemia can also increase cerebral blood flow to a lesser degree. In patients with head injuries, increased intracranial pressure can impair blood flow. The Monro-Kelly Doctrine governs intracerebral pressure, which considers the brain as a closed box, and changes in pressure are offset by the loss of cerebrospinal fluid. However, when this is no longer possible, intracranial pressure rises.

      Cerebral angiography is an invasive test that involves injecting contrast media into the carotid artery using a catheter. Radiographs are taken as the dye works its way through the cerebral circulation. This test can be used to identify bleeding aneurysms, vasospasm, and arteriovenous malformations, as well as differentiate embolism from large artery thrombosis. Understanding cerebral blood flow and angiography is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 4 - You are caring for a woman who has heart failure with reduced ejection...

    Incorrect

    • You are caring for a woman who has heart failure with reduced ejection fraction due to a previous myocardial infarction.

      Starling's Law of the Heart states that:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: As preload progressively increases, stroke volume increases gradually then decreases suddenly

      Explanation:

      Starling’s Law of the Heart states that as preload increases, stroke volume also increases gradually, up to a certain point. However, beyond this point, stroke volume decreases due to overloading of the cardiac muscle fibers. Therefore, the higher the cardiac preload, the greater the stroke volume, but only up to a certain limit.

      The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old woman visited her physician complaining of palpitations. She has a medical...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visited her physician complaining of palpitations. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and ischemic heart disease. Her current medications include Metformin, insulin injections, candesartan, and metoprolol. The doctor reviewed her medical records and decided to prescribe a medication to prevent complications related to the underlying cause of her palpitations. The doctor informed her that she would need to visit the hospital laboratory regularly to have her blood checked due to the medication's risk of bleeding. Which blood clotting factors are affected by this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Factor IX

      Explanation:

      This patient with a medical history of diabetes, hypertension, and diabetes is likely experiencing atrial fibrillation, which increases the risk of stroke due to the formation of blood clots in the left atrium. To minimize this risk, the anticoagulant warfarin is commonly prescribed, but it also increases the risk of bleeding. Regular monitoring of the International Normalized Ratio is necessary to ensure the patient’s safety. Warfarin works by inhibiting Vitamin K epoxide reductase, which affects the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C and S. Factor IX is a vitamin K dependent clotting factor and is deficient in Hemophilia B. Factors XI and V are not vitamin K dependent clotting factors, while Factor I is not a clotting factor at all.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimes and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old man collapses during a game of cricket. He has previously experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man collapses during a game of cricket. He has previously experienced chest pain and shortness of breath while running, which subsides on rest. Upon examination, he is found to have an ejection systolic murmur that intensifies with Valsalva maneuvers and diminishes with squatting. His echocardiogram reveals mitral regurgitation, asymmetric hypertrophy, and systolic anterior motion of the anterior mitral valve leaflet. What is the expected inheritance pattern for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      The inheritance pattern of HOCM is autosomal dominant, which means that it can be passed down from generation to generation. Symptoms of HOCM may include exertional dyspnoea, angina, syncope, and an ejection systolic murmur. It is important to note that there may be a family history of similar cardiac problems or sudden death due to ventricular arrhythmias. Autosomal recessive, mitochondrial inheritance, and X-linked dominant inheritance are not applicable to HOCM.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man is admitted to the renal ward with acute kidney injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man is admitted to the renal ward with acute kidney injury following 3 days of diarrhoea and vomiting. Laboratory results reveal that his potassium levels are below normal limits, likely due to his gastrointestinal symptoms. You review his medications to ensure that none are exacerbating the situation and discover that he is taking diuretics for heart failure management. Which of the following diuretics is linked to hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bumetanide

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia may be caused by loop diuretics such as bumetanide. It is important to note that spironolactone, triamterene, eplerenone, and amiloride are potassium-sparing diuretics and are more likely to cause hyperkalaemia. In this case, the patient has been admitted to the hospital with acute kidney injury (AKI) due to diarrhoea and vomiting, which are also possible causes of hypokalaemia. It is important to manage all of these factors. Symptoms of hypokalaemia include fatigue, muscle weakness, myalgia, muscle cramps, constipation, hyporeflexia, and in rare cases, paralysis.

      Loop Diuretics: Mechanism of Action and Clinical Applications

      Loop diuretics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, are medications that inhibit the Na-K-Cl cotransporter (NKCC) in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. By doing so, they reduce the absorption of NaCl, resulting in increased urine output. Loop diuretics act on NKCC2, which is more prevalent in the kidneys. These medications work on the apical membrane and must first be filtered into the tubules by the glomerulus before they can have an effect. Patients with poor renal function may require higher doses to ensure sufficient concentration in the tubules.

      Loop diuretics are commonly used in the treatment of heart failure, both acutely (usually intravenously) and chronically (usually orally). They are also indicated for resistant hypertension, particularly in patients with renal impairment. However, loop diuretics can cause adverse effects such as hypotension, hyponatremia, hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypochloremic alkalosis, ototoxicity, hypocalcemia, renal impairment, hyperglycemia (less common than with thiazides), and gout. Therefore, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and renal function is necessary when using loop diuretics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man undergoes carotid endarterectomy surgery after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack....

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man undergoes carotid endarterectomy surgery after experiencing a transient ischaemic attack. The procedure is successful with no complications. However, the patient develops new hoarseness of voice and loss of effective cough mechanism post-surgery. There are no notable findings upon examination of the oral cavity.

      Which structure has been affected by the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranial nerve X

      Explanation:

      Speech is innervated by the vagus (X) nerve, so any damage to this nerve can cause speech problems. Injuries to one side of the vagus nerve can result in hoarseness and vocal cord paralysis on the same side, while bilateral injuries can lead to aphonia and stridor. Other symptoms of vagal disease may include dysphagia, loss of cough reflex, gastroparesis, and cardiovascular effects. The facial nerve (VII) may also be affected during carotid surgery, causing muscle weakness in facial expression. However, the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) is not involved in speech and would not be damaged during carotid surgery. The accessory nerve (XI) does not innervate speech muscles and is rarely affected during carotid surgery, causing weakness in shoulder elevation instead. Hypoglossal (XII) palsy is a rare complication of carotid surgery that causes tongue deviation towards the side of the lesion, but not voice hoarseness.

      The vagus nerve is responsible for a variety of functions and supplies structures from the fourth and sixth pharyngeal arches, as well as the fore and midgut sections of the embryonic gut tube. It carries afferent fibers from areas such as the pharynx, larynx, esophagus, stomach, lungs, heart, and great vessels. The efferent fibers of the vagus are of two main types: preganglionic parasympathetic fibers distributed to the parasympathetic ganglia that innervate smooth muscle of the innervated organs, and efferent fibers with direct skeletal muscle innervation, largely to the muscles of the larynx and pharynx.

      The vagus nerve arises from the lateral surface of the medulla oblongata and exits through the jugular foramen, closely related to the glossopharyngeal nerve cranially and the accessory nerve caudally. It descends vertically in the carotid sheath in the neck, closely related to the internal and common carotid arteries. In the mediastinum, both nerves pass posteroinferiorly and reach the posterior surface of the corresponding lung root, branching into both lungs. At the inferior end of the mediastinum, these plexuses reunite to form the formal vagal trunks that pass through the esophageal hiatus and into the abdomen. The anterior and posterior vagal trunks are formal nerve fibers that splay out once again, sending fibers over the stomach and posteriorly to the coeliac plexus. Branches pass to the liver, spleen, and kidney.

      The vagus nerve has various branches in the neck, including superior and inferior cervical cardiac branches, and the right recurrent laryngeal nerve, which arises from the vagus anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery and hooks under it to insert into the larynx. In the thorax, the left recurrent laryngeal nerve arises from the vagus on the aortic arch and hooks around the inferior surface of the arch, passing upwards through the superior mediastinum and lower part of the neck. In the abdomen, the nerves branch extensively, passing to the coeliac axis and alongside the vessels to supply the spleen, liver, and kidney.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe abdominal pain and vomiting blood. The patient has been taking naproxen for Achilles tendinopathy. Upon examination, the patient is found to be tachycardic with a pulse of 110 and has a blood pressure of 95/60. An urgent endoscopy is performed, revealing a bleeding peptic ulcer. To stop the bleeding definitively, the patient is sent for embolisation of the left gastric artery via angiogram.

      During the angiogram, what vertebral level can be used as a radiological marker for the origin of the artery supplying the left gastric artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: T12

      Explanation:

      In cases where initial treatment for upper GI bleeds is ineffective, angiography may be necessary to embolize the affected vessel and halt the bleeding. To perform an angiogram, the radiologist will access the aorta through the femoral artery, ascend to the 12th vertebrae, and then enter the left gastric artery via the coeliac trunk.

      Peptic ulcers in otherwise healthy patients are often caused by non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

      The coeliac trunk is not located at any vertebral level other than the 12th. The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm with the vagal trunk at the T10 level, while the T11 level has no significant associated structures. The superior mesenteric artery and left renal artery branch off the abdominal aorta at the L1 level.

      The aorta is a major blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the rest of the body. At different levels along the aorta, there are branches that supply blood to specific organs and regions. These branches include the coeliac trunk at the level of T12, which supplies blood to the stomach, liver, and spleen. The left renal artery, at the level of L1, supplies blood to the left kidney. The testicular or ovarian arteries, at the level of L2, supply blood to the reproductive organs. The inferior mesenteric artery, at the level of L3, supplies blood to the lower part of the large intestine. Finally, at the level of L4, the abdominal aorta bifurcates, or splits into two branches, which supply blood to the legs and pelvis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 10 - Sarah, a 73-year-old woman, is currently admitted to the medical ward after experiencing...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 73-year-old woman, is currently admitted to the medical ward after experiencing chest pain. A recent blood test revealed low levels of potassium. The doctors explained that potassium plays a crucial role in the normal functioning of the heart and any changes in its concentration can affect the heart's ability to contract and relax properly.

      How does potassium contribute to a normal cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A slow influx of the electrolyte causes a plateau in the myocardial action potential

      Explanation:

      Calcium causes a plateau in the cardiac action potential, prolonging contraction and reflected in the ST-segment of an ECG. A low concentration of calcium ions can result in a prolonged QT-segment. Sodium ions cause depolarisation, potassium ions cause repolarisation, and their movement maintains the resting potential. Calcium ions also bind to troponin-C to trigger muscle contraction.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 11 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of progressive breathlessness that has been...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of progressive breathlessness that has been worsening over the past 6 months. During the examination, the GP observes pitting oedema in the mid-shins. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and a myocardial infarction that occurred 5 years ago. The GP orders a blood test to investigate the cause of the patient's symptoms.

      The blood test reveals a B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) level of 907 pg/mL, which is significantly higher than the normal range (< 100). Can you identify the source of BNP secretion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ventricular myocardium

      Explanation:

      BNP is primarily secreted by the ventricular myocardium in response to stretching, making it a valuable indicator of heart failure. While it can be used for screening and prognostic scoring, it is not secreted by the atrial endocardium, distal convoluted tubule, pulmonary artery endothelium, or renal mesangial cells.

      B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is a hormone that is primarily produced by the left ventricular myocardium in response to strain. Although heart failure is the most common cause of elevated BNP levels, any condition that causes left ventricular dysfunction, such as myocardial ischemia or valvular disease, may also raise levels. In patients with chronic kidney disease, reduced excretion may also lead to elevated BNP levels. Conversely, treatment with ACE inhibitors, angiotensin-2 receptor blockers, and diuretics can lower BNP levels.

      BNP has several effects, including vasodilation, diuresis, natriuresis, and suppression of both sympathetic tone and the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. Clinically, BNP is useful in diagnosing patients with acute dyspnea. A low concentration of BNP (<100 pg/mL) makes a diagnosis of heart failure unlikely, but elevated levels should prompt further investigation to confirm the diagnosis. Currently, NICE recommends BNP as a helpful test to rule out a diagnosis of heart failure. In patients with chronic heart failure, initial evidence suggests that BNP is an extremely useful marker of prognosis and can guide treatment. However, BNP is not currently recommended for population screening for cardiac dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 12 - An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain, dizziness, and palpitations. He has a medical history of mitral stenosis and denies any alcohol or smoking habits. Upon conducting an ECG, it is observed that lead I shows positively directed sawtooth deflections, while leads II, III, and aVF show negatively directed sawtooth deflections. What pathology does this finding suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrial flutter

      Explanation:

      Atrial flutter is identified by a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and is a type of supraventricular tachycardia. It occurs when electrical activity from the sinoatrial node reenters the atria instead of being conducted to the ventricles. Valvular heart disease is a risk factor, and atrial flutter is managed similarly to atrial fibrillation.

      Left bundle branch block causes a delayed contraction of the left ventricle and is identified by a W pattern in V1 and an M pattern in V6 on an ECG. It does not produce a sawtooth pattern on the ECG.

      Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by chaotic electrical conduction in the ventricles, resulting in a lack of normal ventricular contraction. It can cause cardiac arrest and requires advanced life support management.

      Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is caused by an accessory pathway between the atria and the ventricles and is identified by a slurred upstroke at the beginning of the QRS complex, known as a delta wave. It can present with symptoms such as palpitations, shortness of breath, and syncope.

      Atrial flutter is a type of supraventricular tachycardia that is characterized by a series of rapid atrial depolarization waves. This condition can be identified through ECG findings, which show a sawtooth appearance. The underlying atrial rate is typically around 300 beats per minute, which can affect the ventricular or heart rate depending on the degree of AV block. For instance, if there is a 2:1 block, the ventricular rate will be 150 beats per minute. Flutter waves may also be visible following carotid sinus massage or adenosine.

      Managing atrial flutter is similar to managing atrial fibrillation, although medication may be less effective. However, atrial flutter is more sensitive to cardioversion, so lower energy levels may be used. For most patients, radiofrequency ablation of the tricuspid valve isthmus is curative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 13 - As a medical student in a cardiology clinic, you encounter a 54-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student in a cardiology clinic, you encounter a 54-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation by her GP after experiencing chest pain for 12 hours. She informs you that she had a blood clot in her early 30s following lower limb surgery and was previously treated with warfarin. Her CHA2DS2‑VASc score is 3. What is the first-line anticoagulant recommended to prevent future stroke in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edoxaban

      Explanation:

      According to the 2021 NICE guidelines on preventing stroke in individuals with atrial fibrillation, DOACs should be the first-line anticoagulant therapy offered. The correct answer is ‘edoxaban’. ‘Aspirin’ is not appropriate for managing atrial fibrillation as it is an antiplatelet agent. ‘Low molecular weight heparin’ and ‘unfractionated heparin’ are not recommended for long-term anticoagulation in this case as they require subcutaneous injections.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 14 - A 50-year-old man is undergoing a benign tumour resection via an anterior skull...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is undergoing a benign tumour resection via an anterior skull base approach. The consultant neurosurgeon is being assisted by a surgical trainee. The artery being compressed by the tumour is challenging to identify, but the ophthalmic artery is observed to branch off from it. What is the name of the artery being compressed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic artery originates from the internal carotid artery, while the vertebral artery gives rise to the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. The internal carotid artery also has other branches, which can be found in the attached notes. Similarly, the basilar artery has its own set of branches.

      The Circle of Willis is an anastomosis formed by the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries on the bottom surface of the brain. It is divided into two halves and is made up of various arteries, including the anterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, internal carotid artery, posterior communicating artery, and posterior cerebral arteries. The circle and its branches supply blood to important areas of the brain, such as the corpus striatum, internal capsule, diencephalon, and midbrain.

      The vertebral arteries enter the cranial cavity through the foramen magnum and lie in the subarachnoid space. They then ascend on the anterior surface of the medulla oblongata and unite to form the basilar artery at the base of the pons. The basilar artery has several branches, including the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, pontine arteries, superior cerebellar artery, and posterior cerebral artery.

      The internal carotid arteries also have several branches, such as the posterior communicating artery, anterior cerebral artery, middle cerebral artery, and anterior choroid artery. These arteries supply blood to different parts of the brain, including the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. Overall, the Circle of Willis and its branches play a crucial role in providing oxygen and nutrients to the brain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 15 - You perform venepuncture on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa.

    At which point...

    Incorrect

    • You perform venepuncture on the basilic vein in the cubital fossa.

      At which point does this vein pass deep under muscle?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Midway up the humerus

      Explanation:

      When the basilic vein is located halfway up the humerus, it travels beneath muscle. At the cubital fossa, the basilic vein connects with the median cubital vein, which in turn interacts with the cephalic vein. Contrary to popular belief, the basilic vein does not pass through the medial epicondyle. Meanwhile, the cephalic vein can be found in the deltopectoral groove.

      The Basilic Vein: A Major Pathway of Venous Drainage for the Arm and Hand

      The basilic vein is one of the two main pathways of venous drainage for the arm and hand, alongside the cephalic vein. It begins on the medial side of the dorsal venous network of the hand and travels up the forearm and arm. Most of its course is superficial, but it passes deep under the muscles midway up the humerus. Near the region anterior to the cubital fossa, the basilic vein joins the cephalic vein.

      At the lower border of the teres major muscle, the anterior and posterior circumflex humeral veins feed into the basilic vein. It is often joined by the medial brachial vein before draining into the axillary vein. The basilic vein is continuous with the palmar venous arch distally and the axillary vein proximally. Understanding the path and function of the basilic vein is important for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating conditions related to venous drainage in the arm and hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 16 - A 39-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations and is diagnosed with monomorphic ventricular tachycardia. What electrolyte is responsible for maintaining the resting potential of ventricular myocytes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Potassium

      Explanation:

      The resting potential of cardiac myocytes is maintained by potassium, while depolarization is initiated by a sudden influx of sodium ions and repolarization is caused by the outflow of potassium. The extended duration of a cardiac action potential, in contrast to skeletal muscle, is due to a gradual influx of calcium.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 17 - A 58-year-old man has an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest and is pronounced dead at...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man has an out-of-hospital cardiac arrest and is pronounced dead at the scene. A post-mortem examination is carried out to determine the cause of death, which demonstrates 90% stenosis of the left anterior descending artery.

      What is the ultimate stage in the development of this stenosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 18 - A woman with longstanding angina visits her doctor and reports persistent symptoms. The...

    Incorrect

    • A woman with longstanding angina visits her doctor and reports persistent symptoms. The patient was previously prescribed a calcium channel blocker, but due to her asthma, a beta blocker cannot be prescribed. The doctor decides to prescribe ivabradine. What is the site of action of ivabradine in the heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sinoatrial node

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of action of Ivabradine in heart failure involves targeting the If ion current present in the sinoatrial node to lower the heart rate.

      Ivabradine: An Anti-Anginal Drug

      Ivabradine is a type of medication used to treat angina by reducing the heart rate. It works by targeting the If (‘funny’) ion current, which is found in high levels in the sinoatrial node. By doing so, it decreases the activity of the cardiac pacemaker.

      However, Ivabradine is not without its side effects. Many patients report experiencing visual disturbances, such as luminous phenomena, as well as headaches, bradycardia, and heart block.

      Despite its potential benefits, there is currently no evidence to suggest that Ivabradine is superior to existing treatments for stable angina. As with any medication, it is important to weigh the potential benefits against the risks and side effects before deciding whether or not to use it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 19 - A 23-year-old male university student presents to the emergency department with lightheadedness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old male university student presents to the emergency department with lightheadedness and a fall an hour earlier, associated with loss of consciousness. He admits to being short of breath on exertion with chest pain for several months. The patient denies vomiting or haemoptysis. The symptoms are not exacerbated or relieved by any positional changes or during phases of respiration.

      He has no relevant past medical history, is not on any regular medications, and has no documented drug allergies. There is no relevant family history. He is a non-smoker and drinks nine unite of alcohol a week. He denies any recent travel or drug use.

      On examination, the patient appears to be comfortable at rest. His heart rate is 68/min, blood pressure 112/84 mmHg, oxygen saturation 99% on air, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, temperature 36.7ºC.

      An ejection systolic murmur is audible throughout the praecordium, loudest over the sternum bilaterally. No heaves or thrills are palpable, and there are no radiations. The murmur gets louder when the patient is asked to perform the Valsalva manoeuvre. The murmur is noted as grade II. Lung fields are clear on auscultation. The abdomen is soft and non-tender, with bowel sounds present. His body mass index is 20 kg/m².

      His ECG taken on admission reveals sinus rhythm, with generalised deep Q waves and widespread T waves. There is evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and findings suggest the possibility of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM), which is characterized by exertional dyspnea, chest pain, syncope, and ejection systolic murmur that is louder during Valsalva maneuver and quieter during squatting. The ECG changes observed are also consistent with HOCM. Given the patient’s young age, it is crucial to rule out this diagnosis as HOCM is a leading cause of sudden cardiac death in young individuals.

      Brugada syndrome, an autosomal dominant cause of sudden cardiac death in young people, may also present with unexplained falls. However, the absence of a family history of cardiac disease and the unlikely association with the murmur and ECG changes described make this diagnosis less likely. It is important to note that performing Valsalva maneuver in a patient with Brugada syndrome can be life-threatening due to the risk of arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation.

      Chagas disease, a parasitic disease prevalent in South America, is caused by an insect bite and has a long dormant period before causing ventricular damage. However, the patient’s age and absence of exposure to the disease make this diagnosis less likely.

      Myocardial infarction can cause central chest pain and ECG changes, but it is rare for it to present with falls. Moreover, the ECG changes observed are not typical of myocardial infarction. The patient’s young age and lack of cardiac risk factors also make this diagnosis less likely.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. It is caused by mutations in genes that encode contractile proteins, with the most common defects involving the β-myosin heavy chain protein or myosin-binding protein C. HOCM is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, which leads to decreased compliance and cardiac output, resulting in predominantly diastolic dysfunction. Biopsy findings show myofibrillar hypertrophy with disorganized myocytes and fibrosis. HOCM is often asymptomatic, but exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, and sudden death can occur. Jerky pulse, systolic murmurs, and double apex beat are also common features. HOCM is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves. Atrial fibrillation may occasionally be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 20 - A 73-year-old male arrives at the ER with ventricular tachycardia and fainting. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old male arrives at the ER with ventricular tachycardia and fainting. Despite defibrillation, the patient's condition does not improve and amiodarone is administered. Amiodarone is a class 3 antiarrhythmic that extends the plateau phase of the myocardial action potential.

      What is responsible for sustaining the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Slow influx of calcium and efflux of potassium

      Explanation:

      The plateau phase (phase 2) of the cardiac action potential is sustained by the slow influx of calcium and efflux of potassium ions. Rapid efflux of potassium and chloride occurs during phase 1, while rapid influx of sodium occurs during phase 0. Slow efflux of calcium is not a characteristic of the plateau phase.

      Understanding the Cardiac Action Potential and Conduction Velocity

      The cardiac action potential is a series of electrical events that occur in the heart during each heartbeat. It is responsible for the contraction of the heart muscle and the pumping of blood throughout the body. The action potential is divided into five phases, each with a specific mechanism. The first phase is rapid depolarization, which is caused by the influx of sodium ions. The second phase is early repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The third phase is the plateau phase, which is caused by the slow influx of calcium ions. The fourth phase is final repolarization, which is caused by the efflux of potassium ions. The final phase is the restoration of ionic concentrations, which is achieved by the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.

      Conduction velocity is the speed at which the electrical signal travels through the heart. The speed varies depending on the location of the signal. Atrial conduction spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibers at a speed of 1 m/sec. AV node conduction is much slower, at 0.05 m/sec. Ventricular conduction is the fastest in the heart, achieved by the large diameter of the Purkinje fibers, which can achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec. This allows for a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles, which is essential for the proper functioning of the heart. Understanding the cardiac action potential and conduction velocity is crucial for diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 21 - A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe crushing chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of severe crushing chest pain that radiates to his jaw and is accompanied by profuse sweating and nausea. Upon conducting an ECG, you observe ST-segment elevation in leads V2-V4, leading you to diagnose an anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction (MI). Can you identify the coronary vessel that runs along the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery

      Explanation:

      The coronary arteries supply blood to the heart muscle, and blockages in these arteries can lead to heart attacks. The right coronary artery supplies the right side of the heart and is often associated with arrhythmias when blocked. The left circumflex artery supplies the left side of the heart and can cause lateral, posterior, or anterolateral heart attacks when blocked. The right marginal artery arises from the right coronary artery and travels along the bottom of the heart, while the left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery and travels along the curved edge of the heart.

      The walls of each cardiac chamber are made up of the epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium. The heart and roots of the great vessels are related anteriorly to the sternum and the left ribs. The coronary sinus receives blood from the cardiac veins, and the aortic sinus gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries. The left ventricle has a thicker wall and more numerous trabeculae carnae than the right ventricle. The heart is innervated by autonomic nerve fibers from the cardiac plexus, and the parasympathetic supply comes from the vagus nerves. The heart has four valves: the mitral, aortic, pulmonary, and tricuspid valves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old male is admitted for elective surgery for a lymph node biopsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted for elective surgery for a lymph node biopsy in the supraclavicular region. Following the surgery, the patient experiences difficulty in shrugging his left shoulder. What could be the probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      The posterior triangle is where the accessory nerve is located, and it is susceptible to injury in this area. In addition to experiencing issues with shoulder shrugging, the individual may also encounter challenges when attempting to raise their arm above their head.

      The posterior triangle of the neck is an area that is bound by the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, the occipital bone, and the middle third of the clavicle. Within this triangle, there are various nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymph nodes. The nerves present include the accessory nerve, phrenic nerve, and three trunks of the brachial plexus, as well as branches of the cervical plexus such as the supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, and lesser occipital nerve. The vessels found in this area are the external jugular vein and subclavian artery. Additionally, there are muscles such as the inferior belly of omohyoid and scalene, as well as lymph nodes including the supraclavicular and occipital nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old male presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain on the left...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old male presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain on the left side that radiates to his back. He also reports vomiting. The patient has no significant medical history.

      Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.5°C, a respiratory rate of 28/min, a pulse of 110/min, and a blood pressure of 160/82 mmHg. The abdomen is tender to touch, especially over the hypochondrium, and bowel sounds are present. Urinalysis reveals amylase 3+ with glucose 2+.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Acute Abdominal Pain with Radiation to the Back

      The occurrence of acute abdominal pain with radiation to the back can be indicative of two possible conditions: a dissection or rupture of an aortic aneurysm or pancreatitis. However, the presence of amylase in the urine suggests that the latter is more likely. Pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the pancreas, which can cause severe abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The presence of amylase in the urine is a common diagnostic marker for pancreatitis.

      In addition, acute illness associated with pancreatitis can lead to impaired insulin release and increased gluconeogenesis, which can cause elevated glucose levels. Therefore, glucose levels may also be monitored in patients with suspected pancreatitis. It is important to promptly diagnose and treat pancreatitis as it can lead to serious complications such as pancreatic necrosis, sepsis, and organ failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 24 - A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the acute surgical unit with profuse vomiting....

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the acute surgical unit with profuse vomiting. Admission bloods show the following:

      Na+ 131 mmol/l
      K+ 2.2 mmol/l
      Urea 3.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 56 mol/l
      Glucose 4.3 mmol/l

      What ECG feature is most likely to be seen in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: U waves

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, can be detected through ECG features. These include the presence of U waves, small or absent T waves (which may occasionally be inverted), a prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and a long QT interval. The ECG image provided shows typical U waves and a borderline PR interval. To remember these features, one user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 25 - Each of the following increases the production of endothelin, except for which one?...

    Incorrect

    • Each of the following increases the production of endothelin, except for which one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostacyclin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Endothelin and Its Role in Various Diseases

      Endothelin is a potent vasoconstrictor and bronchoconstrictor that is secreted by the vascular endothelium. Initially, it is produced as a prohormone and later converted to ET-1 by the action of endothelin converting enzyme. Endothelin interacts with a G-protein linked to phospholipase C, leading to calcium release. This interaction is thought to be important in the pathogenesis of many diseases, including primary pulmonary hypertension, cardiac failure, hepatorenal syndrome, and Raynaud’s.

      Endothelin is known to promote the release of angiotensin II, ADH, hypoxia, and mechanical shearing forces. On the other hand, it inhibits the release of nitric oxide and prostacyclin. Raised levels of endothelin are observed in primary pulmonary hypertension, myocardial infarction, heart failure, acute kidney injury, and asthma.

      In recent years, endothelin antagonists have been used to treat primary pulmonary hypertension. Understanding the role of endothelin in various diseases can help in the development of new treatments and therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old woman who was discharged from the hospital 3 days ago presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman who was discharged from the hospital 3 days ago presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest tightness and severe shortness of breath. While being evaluated, the patient suddenly becomes unresponsive and experiences cardiac arrest. Despite receiving appropriate life-saving measures, there is no return of spontaneous circulation and the patient is declared dead. Upon autopsy, a slit-like tear is discovered in the anterior wall of the left ventricle.

      What factors may have contributed to the cardiac finding observed in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coronary atherosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Left Ventricular Free Wall Rupture Post-MI

      Following a myocardial infarction (MI), the weakened myocardial wall may be unable to contain high left ventricular (LV) pressures, leading to mechanical complications such as left ventricular free wall rupture. This occurs 3-14 days post-MI and is characterized by macrophages and granulation tissue at the margins. Patients are also at high risk of papillary muscle rupture and left ventricular pseudoaneurysm. The patient’s autopsy finding of a slit-like tear in the anterior LV wall is consistent with this complication.

      Coronary atherosclerosis is the most likely cause of the patient’s MI, as it is a common underlying condition. Prolonged alcohol consumption and recent viral infection can lead to dilated cardiomyopathy, while recurrent bacterial pharyngitis can cause inflammatory damage to both the myocardium and valvular endocardium. Repeated blood transfusion is not a known risk factor for left ventricular free wall rupture.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 27 - A 75-year-old collapses at home and is rushed to the Emergency Room but...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old collapses at home and is rushed to the Emergency Room but dies despite resuscitation efforts. He had a myocardial infarction five weeks prior. What histological findings would be expected in his heart?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contracted scar

      Explanation:

      The histology findings of a myocardial infarction (MI) vary depending on the time elapsed since the event. Within the first 24 hours, early coagulative necrosis, neutrophils, wavy fibres, and hypercontraction of myofibrils are observed, which increase the risk of ventricular arrhythmia, heart failure, and cardiogenic shock. Between 1-3 days post-MI, extensive coagulative necrosis and neutrophils are present, which can lead to fibrinous pericarditis. From 3-14 days post-MI, macrophages and granulation tissue are seen at the margins, and there is a high risk of complications such as free wall rupture (resulting in mitral regurgitation), papillary muscle rupture, and left ventricular pseudoaneurysm. Finally, from 2 weeks to several months post-MI, a contracted scar is formed, which is associated with Dressler syndrome, heart failure, arrhythmias, and mural thrombus.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 28 - A 65-year-old man with a history of claudication for several years is evaluated...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of claudication for several years is evaluated in the clinic. A duplex scan reveals an 85% stenosis of the superficial femoral artery. After two weeks, he returns with a sudden onset of severe leg pain that has been present for an hour. Upon examination, absent pulses are noted in the affected limb, and it is significantly cooler than the opposite limb. What is the most likely cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thrombosis

      Explanation:

      When dealing with an already present lesion, the probability of encountering a complication like thrombosis is higher than that of an embolus. To address this, patients should be administered heparin and undergo imaging with duplex scanning. Although an early surgical bypass or intra-arterial thrombolysis may be necessary, performing an embolectomy is generally not recommended as the lesion is not an embolus, rendering the operation ineffective.

      Understanding Claudication

      Claudication is a medical condition that causes pain in the limbs during physical activity. It is usually caused by arterial insufficiency, which occurs when atheroma develops in the arterial wall and blocks the blood flow to the tissues. The most common symptom of claudication is calf pain that worsens during exercise and improves with rest. However, if the disease is located in more proximal areas, other symptoms such as buttock claudication and impotence may occur.

      The condition usually develops progressively, and in severe cases, it can lead to critical limb ischemia, which is characterized by severe pain, diminished sensation, pallor, and absent pulses. Risk factors for claudication include smoking, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia.

      To diagnose claudication, doctors may measure ankle-brachial pressure indices, perform duplex scanning, or conduct formal angiography. Treatment options depend on the severity of the condition. Patients with long claudication distances and no ulceration or gangrene may be managed conservatively, while those with rest pain, ulceration, or gangrene will require intervention. All patients should receive an antiplatelet agent and a statin, unless there are compelling contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 29 - A 68-year-old female complains of fatigue and occasional palpitations. During one of these...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female complains of fatigue and occasional palpitations. During one of these episodes, an ECG shows atrial fibrillation that resolves within half an hour. What would be the most suitable subsequent investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Potential Causes of Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation

      Paroxysmal atrial fibrillation (AF) can have various underlying causes, including thyrotoxicosis, mitral stenosis, ischaemic heart disease, and alcohol consumption. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct thyroid function tests to aid in the diagnosis of AF, as it can be challenging to identify based solely on clinical symptoms. Additionally, an echocardiogram should be requested to evaluate the function of the left ventricle and valves, which would typically be performed by a cardiologist. However, coronary angiography is unlikely to be necessary.

      Conversely, a full blood count, calcium, erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), or lipid profile would not be useful in determining the nature of AF or its potential treatment. It is essential to consider the various causes of AF to determine the most effective course of treatment. The sources cited in this article provide further information on the diagnosis and management of AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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  • Question 30 - A 45-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic complaining of palpitations and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic complaining of palpitations and shortness of breath for the past 6 weeks. She has a medical history of rheumatic fever and eczema.

      During the physical examination, the patient exhibits a malar flush and a loud S1 with an opening snap is heard upon auscultation. Her heart rhythm is irregularly irregular. A chest x-ray is ordered and reveals a double heart border.

      What other symptom is this patient likely to encounter?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Difficulty swallowing

      Explanation:

      The statement about left atrial enlargement compressing the esophagus in mitral stenosis is correct. This can lead to difficulty swallowing. The patient’s medical history of rheumatic fever, along with clinical signs such as malar flush, a loud S1 with opening snap, and an irregularly irregular heart rhythm (likely atrial fibrillation), suggest a diagnosis of mitral stenosis. This condition obstructs the outflow of blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle, causing the left atrium to enlarge and compress surrounding structures. Left atrial enlargement can also increase the risk of developing arrhythmias like atrial fibrillation.

      The statements about arm and facial swelling, constipation, and neck pain are incorrect. Arm and facial swelling occur due to compression of the superior vena cava, which is not caused by left atrial enlargement. Constipation is not a symptom of mitral stenosis, but patients may experience abdominal discomfort due to right-sided heart failure. Neck pain is not associated with mitral stenosis, but neck vein distention may be observed.

      Understanding Mitral Stenosis

      Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.

      Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.

      Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.

      Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

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