-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man is admitted to your psychiatric ward in a state of distress saying that he knows for certain that his colleagues are plotting to have him dismissed from work. He says they are spreading malicious rumours about his sexuality and, with the help of the CIA, have bugged his office. In the first week of his admission, he is observed to be responding to unseen stimuli when alone in his room. His family state that he is a lovely lad who never gets into any trouble with drink or drugs. They are very worried because in the last 3 months he has told them he can hear people talking about him to each other when he lies in bed at night. He has no significant medical history.
Which one of the following courses of action would be most appropriate?Your Answer: Commence chlorpromazine
Correct Answer: Commence olanzapine with lorazepam and procyclidine as required
Explanation:Treatment Options for Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a serious mental disorder that requires prompt treatment. The following are some treatment options for schizophrenia:
Commence Olanzapine with Lorazepam and Procyclidine as Required
Olanzapine is an atypical anti-psychotic that carries a lower risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. However, it is appropriate to prescribe anticholinergic medication such as procyclidine to reduce the risk further. The anti-psychotic action of olanzapine may take up to 10 days to begin, so short-acting benzodiazepines such as lorazepam may be prescribed for sedation.Do Not Just Observe with Sedation as Required
Observing with sedation is not a definitive treatment for schizophrenia. It is essential to commence anti-psychotic medication promptly.Commence Chlorpromazine
Chlorpromazine is a typical anti-psychotic that carries a higher risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. Therefore, atypical anti-psychotics are usually preferred as first-line treatment.Commence Clozapine
Clozapine is the most effective medication for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. However, it carries a small risk of serious complications such as fatal agranulocytosis, myocarditis or cardiomyopathy, and pulmonary embolus. Therefore, it is usually reserved for patients who have not responded to two anti-psychotics given at an appropriate dose for 6-8 weeks.Commence Chlorpromazine with Lorazepam and Procyclidine as Required
Chlorpromazine is a typical anti-psychotic that carries a higher risk of extrapyramidal side-effects. Therefore, it is appropriate to prescribe anticholinergic medication such as procyclidine to reduce the risk. Short-acting benzodiazepines such as lorazepam may also be prescribed for sedation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
Which of the following interventions is most likely to be beneficial for a patient with early-onset schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Supportive psychotherapy
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Management of Schizophrenia: NICE Guidelines
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires careful management. In 2009, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines on the management of schizophrenia. According to these guidelines, oral atypical antipsychotics should be the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients to help them manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
It is also important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification in patients with schizophrenia. This is because schizophrenic patients have high rates of cardiovascular disease, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare providers should work with patients to modify their lifestyle habits and reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing schizophrenia. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help patients with schizophrenia achieve better outcomes and improve their overall health and well-being.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 40-year-old Afro-Caribbean male has been diagnosed with schizophrenia for 3 years. To address his history of non-compliance, he has been prescribed a monthly 250 mg depo injection of zuclopenthixol. What is a typical side effect of this type of antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer: Parkinsonian symptoms
Explanation:Anti-psychotics often lead to Parkinsonian symptoms, while neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but severe side effect that can be fatal.
Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 49-year-old male with schizophrenia is being evaluated by his psychiatrist. According to his family, he has become increasingly apathetic and neglectful of his personal hygiene and household chores. When asked about his behavior, he responds with statements such as it doesn't matter and why bother? What symptom of schizophrenia is this patient exhibiting?
Your Answer: Apathy
Explanation:Common Symptoms of Schizophrenia
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that affects a person’s ability to think, feel, and behave clearly. It is characterized by a range of symptoms, including apathy, affective flattening, alogia, anhedonia, and catatonia. Apathy is a feeling of indifference and lack of interest in things that would normally be enjoyable or important. Affective flattening refers to a reduced range of emotional expression, making it difficult for the person to express their feelings appropriately. Alogia is a lack of spontaneous speech, making it difficult for the person to communicate effectively. Anhedonia is the inability to experience pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. Finally, catatonia is a disturbance in motor function, which can cause the person to become unresponsive to their environment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 5
Incorrect
-
A patient with a known history of schizophrenia presents to the Emergency Department with nausea, diarrhoea, coarse tremor and unsteadiness on her feet. She is taking the following prescribed medications: clozapine 150 mg mane and 300 mg nocte, lithium carbonate 200 mg bd and sertraline 50 mg od. Blood results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal Value
Clozapine level 444 ng/ml 250 to 350 ng/ml
Lithium level 2.3 mmol/l 0.4–1.2 mmol/l
Blood glucose 6.1 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.0 × 109 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 4.5 × 109 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient in their 30s with these symptoms and medication history?Your Answer: Gastrointestinal infection secondary to clozapine-induced neutropenia
Correct Answer: Lithium toxicity
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms and Causes of Lithium and Clozapine Toxicity
Lithium toxicity occurs when levels exceed 1.5 mmol/l, leading to gastrointestinal and central nervous system symptoms. At levels above 2.0 mmol/l, confusion, coma, and death may occur. Clozapine and lithium are not commonly co-prescribed, and lithium is not typically used to augment clozapine for psychotic symptoms. Clozapine toxicity causes lethargy, confusion, tachycardia, hypotension, and hypersalivation. Gastrointestinal infection due to clozapine-induced neutropenia is unlikely if the neutrophil count is normal. Hypoglycemia is not suggested with a blood sugar level of 6.1. Serotonin syndrome presents with tachycardia, hypertension, tachypnea, confusion, seizures, fever, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and renal failure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
You are evaluating a 22-year-old male with depression who has had limited success with various antidepressants and counseling. You opt to initiate a trial of mirtazapine. What side effect of this antidepressant can you advise him is a common feature?
Your Answer: The tyramine cheese reaction
Correct Answer: Increase in appetite
Explanation:Mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that works by blocking alpha-2 receptors, but it often causes unwanted side effects such as increased appetite and sedation, which can make it difficult for patients to tolerate. On the other hand, MAOI antidepressants like phenelzine can cause a dangerous reaction when consuming foods high in tyramine, such as cheese, leading to a hypertensive crisis. While tardive dyskinesia is typically associated with typical antipsychotics, it can rarely occur as a result of some antidepressants. It’s worth noting that headache is a common withdrawal symptom of mirtazapine, rather than a side effect during its use.
Mirtazapine: An Effective Antidepressant with Fewer Side Effects
Mirtazapine is an antidepressant medication that functions by blocking alpha2-adrenergic receptors, which leads to an increase in the release of neurotransmitters. Compared to other antidepressants, mirtazapine has fewer side effects and interactions, making it a suitable option for older individuals who may be more susceptible to adverse effects or are taking other medications.
Mirtazapine has two side effects that can be beneficial for older individuals who are experiencing insomnia and poor appetite. These side effects include sedation and an increased appetite. As a result, mirtazapine is typically taken in the evening to help with sleep and to stimulate appetite.
Overall, mirtazapine is an effective antidepressant that is well-tolerated by many individuals. Its unique side effects make it a valuable option for older individuals who may have difficulty sleeping or eating.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 38-year-old woman, who lived alone, scheduled a follow-up appointment with her GP. She had been self-isolating at home for several months due to the COVID-19 pandemic and continued to feel anxious about going out even after the lockdown was lifted.
Prior to the pandemic, she had experienced a traumatic event and was struggling with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). She had also recently lost her job and was facing financial difficulties.
During a telephone consultation with her GP 4 weeks ago, she was diagnosed with moderate depression and referred for computerised cognitive behavioural therapy. She was also advised to increase her physical activity levels.
However, her mental health had since deteriorated, and she was experiencing difficulty sleeping, early morning awakening, and occasional thoughts of self-harm. She expressed reluctance to engage in one-to-one psychological treatments.
The GP discussed the next steps in managing her depression and PTSD.
What treatment options should be considered for this patient?Your Answer: Commence citalopram
Explanation:For patients with ‘less severe’ depression, SSRIs are the recommended first-line antidepressant. However, in the case of a patient with moderate depression who is not responding well to low-level therapy and has refused psychological treatments, an antidepressant should be offered. While mirtazapine and venlafaxine are valid options, they are not considered first-line. NICE recommends considering the higher likelihood of patients stopping treatment with venlafaxine due to side effects and its higher cost compared to SSRIs, which are equally effective. Mirtazapine and venlafaxine are typically reserved as second-line agents when the response to an SSRI has been poor. NICE advises offering an SSRI first-line as they have fewer side effects than other antidepressants and are just as effective. In this patient’s case, referral to a crisis team is unlikely as he has not expressed any true suicidal plans or intent.
In 2022, NICE updated its guidelines on managing depression and now classifies it as either less severe or more severe based on a patient’s PHQ-9 score. For less severe depression, NICE recommends discussing treatment options with patients and considering the least intrusive and resource-intensive treatment first. Antidepressant medication should not be routinely offered as first-line treatment unless it is the patient’s preference. Treatment options for less severe depression include guided self-help, group cognitive behavioral therapy, group behavioral activation, individual CBT or BA, group exercise, group mindfulness and meditation, interpersonal psychotherapy, SSRIs, counseling, and short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy. For more severe depression, NICE recommends a shared decision-making approach and suggests a combination of individual CBT and an antidepressant as the preferred treatment option. Other treatment options for more severe depression include individual CBT or BA, antidepressant medication, individual problem-solving, counseling, short-term psychodynamic psychotherapy, interpersonal psychotherapy, guided self-help, and group exercise.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
A 28-year-old man comes to see his doctor complaining of feeling down for the past two weeks. He has been having nightmares and difficulty sleeping. These symptoms started after he was violently robbed outside of his workplace. He has been avoiding going to work and often feels disconnected from reality.
What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Acute stress disorder
Explanation:Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first 4 weeks after a person experiences a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is different from PTSD, which is diagnosed after 4 weeks. The symptoms of acute stress disorder are similar to PTSD, including intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and phobic disorder are not the same as acute stress disorder and have their own distinct characteristics.
Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.
To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
A 23-year-old woman is scheduled for a routine phone consultation. Her father is worried about her well-being, but she insists that she is fine and has no issues. Her father believes that she is socially withdrawn as she does not have any friends and spends most of her time indoors using her phone. Upon further inquiry, you discover that this woman has a strong belief that her phone is being monitored by the government, which is contributing to her isolation. She does not exhibit any psychotic symptoms, and her speech, tone, and mood are all normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder
Explanation:Individuals with schizotypal personality disorder exhibit peculiar behavior, speech, and beliefs and typically do not have any close friends outside of their family.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 28-year-old woman experiences chest pain following an argument with her 16-year-old daughter. She is brought to your clinic for evaluation. Upon examination, she appears anxious and is hyperventilating. She exhibits tenderness to light pressure on the front of her chest, but her oxygen saturation is 99% while breathing room air. An ECG reveals no abnormalities. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Explain that she has had a panic attack and that her symptoms are a consequence of this. Help her to control her breathing rate, and say that you think everything will settle down and she will be able to go home.
Explanation:The causes of septic shock are important to understand in order to provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes. Septic shock can cause fever, hypotension, and renal failure, as well as tachypnea due to metabolic acidosis. However, it is crucial to rule out other conditions such as hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state or diabetic ketoacidosis, which have different symptoms and diagnostic criteria.
While metformin can contribute to acidosis, it is unlikely to be the primary cause in this case. Diabetic patients may be prone to renal tubular acidosis, but this is not likely to be the cause of an acute presentation. Instead, a type IV renal tubular acidosis, characterized by hyporeninaemic hypoaldosteronism, may be a more likely association.
Overall, it is crucial to carefully evaluate patients with septic shock and consider all possible causes of their symptoms. By ruling out other conditions and identifying the underlying cause of the acidosis, healthcare providers can provide targeted treatment and improve patient outcomes. Further research and education on septic shock and its causes can also help to improve diagnosis and treatment in the future.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 11
Incorrect
-
A 29-year-old man with bipolar disorder presents at the psychiatric outpatients clinic. He has been stable on lamotrigine for the past six months but is now reporting symptoms of elevated mood. How can you differentiate between symptoms of mania and hypomania in this case?
Your Answer: Feelings of happiness despite upsetting events occurring
Correct Answer: Delusional beliefs of being the leader of their own kingdom
Explanation:Mania is a state of elevated mood that persists and is accompanied by psychotic symptoms.
Bipolar disorder is characterized by highs that can be classified into two categories: mania and hypomania. Mania is the more severe form, and it is diagnosed based on two criteria: a prolonged time course (hypomania lasts less than 7-10 days) and the presence of psychotic symptoms. These symptoms can include mood congruent hallucinations or delusional beliefs related to the patient’s elevated mood and feelings of superiority. Delusions of grandeur, such as the belief of owning a kingdom, are common.
Symptoms of elevated mood include increased energy, reduced sleep, rapid or pressured speech, pressured thought, and a non-reactive affect or mood. These symptoms are seen in both hypomania and mania.
Understanding Bipolar Disorder
Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.
Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.
Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.
If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her daughter because ‘she is acting wild again’. She drinks moderately about once a week. She is not sleeping much, talks incessantly about plans to travel the world and has made many impulsive and irrational purchases. She reports hearing voices but refuses to discuss this issue when questioned by the admitting psychiatrist. She begins a task but does not complete it, all the while making lists of things to be done. She has been starting tasks and not finishing them. She had a similar episode 3 years ago. She also has depressive episodes several times over the last few years and recovered in between them.
What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Schizoaffective disorder
Correct Answer: Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features
Explanation:Understanding Psychotic Disorders: Differential Diagnosis
Psychotic disorders are a group of mental illnesses characterized by the presence of psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking. However, differentiating between these disorders can be challenging. Here are some possible diagnoses for a patient presenting with manic and psychotic symptoms:
Bipolar, manic, with mood-congruent psychotic features: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both manic symptoms and mood-congruent psychotic features. The patient’s lack of insight is characteristic of either mania or psychosis. The need to get a history from a third party is typical. What distinguishes this from schizophrenia is that the patient appears to have a normal mood state.
Substance-induced psychosis: The use of substances in this scenario is far too little to account for the patient’s symptoms, ruling out psychosis secondary to substance abuse.
Schizophreniform disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms of schizophrenia of <6 months' duration. Schizophrenia, paranoid type: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with symptoms for >6 months and multiple psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations, bizarre delusions, and social impairment.
Schizoaffective disorder: This diagnosis is appropriate for a patient with both mood disorder and schizophrenic symptoms. However, the patient in this scenario is not expressing enough schizophrenic symptoms to establish a diagnosis of schizoaffective disorder.
In conclusion, accurate diagnosis of psychotic disorders requires careful evaluation of the patient’s symptoms, history, and social functioning. A thorough understanding of the differential diagnosis is essential for effective treatment and management of these complex conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 13
Correct
-
A 27-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of depressed mood. He reports feeling fatigued and having suicidal thoughts on a daily basis. His appearance is disheveled and he has made multiple suicide attempts in the past few months. The psychiatrist decides to initiate electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for his depression, scheduled to begin in a week. The patient is currently taking 100 mg of sertraline daily. What is the appropriate course of action regarding his medication prior to ECT treatment?
Your Answer: Reduce the sertraline daily dose
Explanation:Before commencing ECT treatment, it is important to reduce the dosage of antidepressant medication, but not to stop it completely. The recommended approach is to gradually decrease the dosage to the minimum level. In some cases, an increased dosage of antidepressants may be added towards the end of the ECT course. It is not advisable to increase the dosage or discontinue the medication altogether. Switching to an alternative psychiatric drug, such as another SSRI or lithium, is also not recommended as it can be risky before ECT treatment.
Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.
Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.
Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic with her father. He suspects that his daughter may have autism as she spends most of her time in her room playing video games. He mentions that she is emotionally distant and unresponsive when he tries to talk to her about his concerns. She has no close friends and has never been in a romantic relationship. However, she has recently been promoted at work. When asked for her thoughts on the matter, she seems disinterested and just wants to leave. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Antisocial personality disorder
Correct Answer: Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation:The patient in question appears to have schizoid personality disorder, as he displays a lack of interest in social interaction, emotional detachment, and indifference to both positive and negative feedback. This diagnosis is more likely than others such as antisocial personality disorder, autism spectrum disorder, or avoidant personality disorder, as the patient does not exhibit the specific characteristics associated with these disorders.
Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.
Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspiratorial beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.
Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 20-year-old man with moderate learning difficulty visits your clinic with his father. His father complains that he has trouble sleeping at night and frequently wakes up, disrupting his own sleep and causing him to be excessively drowsy during the day. He frequently takes a nap in the late afternoon, which is impacting his ability to participate in local community services. They have already attempted conventional sleep hygiene recommendations. Given the history of learning difficulty, what would be the most appropriate medication to assist with his sleep problems?
Your Answer: Melatonin
Explanation:Medication Options for Sleep Disturbance in Patients with Learning Disabilities
Patients with learning disabilities often experience chronic sleep-wake cycle disruption, leading to insomnia. Melatonin has been found to be effective in regulating natural sleep-wake cycles and treating insomnia in these patients. However, it is not licensed for use in individuals under 55 years old and should only be prescribed by a psychiatrist with expertise in sleep disturbance in learning disability.
Other medications, such as zopiclone, diazepam, promethazine, and trazodone, can also be used for insomnia. Zopiclone is helpful for patients with trouble falling asleep, while diazepam can be used for anxiety and sedation but may lead to dependence. Promethazine is useful for maintaining sleep, particularly in cases of agitation or insomnia. Trazodone, on the other hand, is an antidepressant medication with sedating properties and is typically used for patients with depression and sleep disturbance.
However, given the history of learning disability in the stem, melatonin would be the most appropriate medication to trial in this patient. It is important to consult with a psychiatrist with expertise in sleep disturbance in learning disability to determine the best course of treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 16
Incorrect
-
A patient who has been attending your GP surgery with a worsening depressive episode on a background of known depression presents with occasional suicidal thoughts and is finding it difficult to cope with some daily activities despite use of psychological therapies and regular consultation with the GP. You agree to trial use of an antidepressant.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate choice for a patient in their 60s?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Depression: Understanding Antidepressants
Depression is a common mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. While psychological interventions are the first line of treatment, drug therapy may be necessary in some cases. This article discusses the different types of Antidepressants and their suitability for treating depression.
Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and is the first line choice for treating depression. It is well-tolerated and effective in improving depression symptoms. However, it should be used in conjunction with psychological therapies.
Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) that has largely been replaced by SSRIs due to its toxicity in overdose.
Paroxetine is also an SSRI, but it is only licensed for treating major depressive episodes, not moderate ones.
Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that is not recommended for treating depression due to issues with dependence and addiction.
Selegiline is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that is primarily used for Parkinson’s disease but can be used for treatment-resistant depression under the guidance of a multidisciplinary psychiatric team.
In conclusion, understanding the different types of Antidepressants and their suitability for treating depression is crucial in providing effective care for patients. Primary care providers should work closely with mental health professionals to determine the best course of treatment for each individual.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 30-year-old woman, with a history of hearing voices, was brought to the Emergency Department by her family. She described the voices as telling her to kill her father as ‘he has the devil in him’. She also reported noting her intelligence being tapped through the Internet by a higher power. This has been going on for the past 6 months. Her family denies either depression or manic episodes. The patient was admitted to an inpatient Psychiatry Unit and started on haloperidol for her symptoms, after an evaluation and diagnosis of schizophrenia. Twelve hours after initiation of therapy, the patient started to have stiffness in the neck muscles and spine. Physical examination revealed muscular spasms in the neck and spine, a temperature of 37.2 °C, blood pressure 125/70 mmHg and a pulse of 80 bpm.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute dystonia
Explanation:Complications of Haloperidol: Acute Dystonia, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome, Serotonin Syndrome, and Meningitis
Haloperidol is an anti-psychotic medication commonly used to treat schizophrenia. However, it can also cause various complications. Acute dystonia is a condition where the patient experiences muscle spasms in different muscle groups, which can occur shortly after taking haloperidol. Treatment for acute dystonia involves administering anticholinergics.
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is another complication that can occur as a result of taking anti-psychotic medication, particularly high-potency ones like haloperidol. Symptoms include abnormal vital signs, such as high fever, and treatment involves discontinuing the medication and managing symptoms with cooling measures and medications like dantrolene or bromocriptine.
Serotonin syndrome is a condition that can occur when a patient takes multiple doses or an overdose of medications like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs), or serotonin agonists like sumatriptans. Symptoms include muscular twitching, agitation, confusion, hyperthermia, sweating, hypertension, tachycardia, and diarrhea.
Meningitis, on the other hand, is not a complication of haloperidol. It is an inflammation of the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord, usually caused by a bacterial or viral infection.
Finally, malignant hyperthermia is a condition that can manifest with similar symptoms to neuroleptic malignant syndrome, but it usually occurs during anesthesia administration and is caused by an inherited autosomal dominant disorder of the ryanodine receptor gene in the skeletal muscle. Treatment involves using dantrolene and providing supportive care.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A 21-year-old student has been diagnosed with schizophrenia.
What is the most frequent type of hallucination experienced in schizophrenia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Auditory
Explanation:Understanding the Characteristics of Psychosis: Types of Hallucinations
Psychosis is a mental health condition that can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations. Hallucinations are sensory experiences that occur without any corresponding sensory stimulation. While they can occur in any sensory modality, auditory hallucinations are particularly common in patients with schizophrenia. However, it is important to note that the presence or absence of one symptom or type of symptom does not determine the psychiatric diagnosis.
Visual hallucinations are more common in delirium or psychedelic drug intoxication than in schizophrenia. Olfactory and gustatory hallucinations are associated with partial complex seizures, while tactile hallucinations are characteristic of delirium tremens, a severe form of alcohol withdrawal.
To aid in the diagnosis of schizophrenia, clinicians often use mnemonics. Negative symptoms, also known as type II schizophrenic symptoms, can be remembered with the acronym LESS. Diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia, in the absence of cerebral damage, intoxication, epilepsy, or mania, can be remembered with the acronym DEAD. Positive symptoms, also known as type I schizophrenic symptoms, can be remembered with the acronym THREAD.
Overall, understanding the characteristics of different types of hallucinations can aid in the evaluation and diagnosis of psychotic patients. However, it is important to consider the overall spectrum of symptoms and the course of the disease when making a diagnosis.
Understanding the Characteristics of Psychosis: Types of Hallucinations
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman visits her GP with her husband, reporting that she has been experiencing a racing heart for the past year. She also feels sweaty and sometimes has difficulty breathing. Despite seeing a cardiologist, no abnormalities were found in her heart. The patient admits to worrying about various things, which has affected her relationships with her loved ones. She also suffers from insomnia 3-4 nights a week. The patient has no significant medical history, but her cousin has a history of depression. On examination, the patient's heart rate is 89 bpm, and her palms are sweaty. Blood tests show no abnormalities, including normal thyroid function and calcium levels. Which neuroendocrine axis is involved in the patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothalamic–pituitary–adrenal (HPA)
Explanation:The Role of Hypothalamic-Pituitary Axes in Health and Disease
The hypothalamic-pituitary axes play a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis in the body. Among these axes, the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis is particularly important in the pathophysiology of anxiety disorders. Overactivation of the HPA axis leads to the release of catecholamines, resulting in the fight or flight response. Environmental factors and genetics may contribute to the development of anxiety disorders, but the final common pathway is the dysregulation of the HPA axis.
The hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid (HPT) axis is involved in thyroid disorders, such as hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism. However, normal thyroid function rules out this axis as a cause of the patient’s symptoms.
The hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is responsible for the release of sex hormones, such as oestrogen and testosterone. Disorders affecting the HPG axis can impact puberty and sexual development.
The hypothalamic-pituitary-prolactin (HPP) axis regulates the release of prolactin, which acts on the mammary glands. Medications can cause dysregulation of the HPP axis, resulting in hyperprolactinaemia or hypoprolactinaemia.
Finally, the hypothalamic-pituitary-somatotropic (HPS) axis is involved in the release of growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1. Dysregulation of the HPS axis can lead to growth hormone deficiency and Laron syndrome.
Understanding the role of these hypothalamic-pituitary axes is crucial in diagnosing and treating various health conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
In clozapine-treated patients, what is the treatment for hypersalivation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyoscine
Explanation:Treatment for Clozapine-Induced Hypersalivation: Hyoscine and Other Options
Hypersalivation, or excessive saliva production, is a common side effect of clozapine treatment. While it usually subsides over time, it can be distressing for patients and may even pose a risk of aspiration pneumonia. Limited trial data exists on treatments for clozapine-induced hypersalivation, but hyoscine, a type of anticholinergic medication, is commonly used. Other options include pirenzepine and benzhexol. It’s important to note that procyclidine is typically used for acute dystonia, not hypersalivation, and medications like propranolol, risperidone, and lorazepam are not indicated for this side effect.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old woman who is a law student has severe anxiety about public speaking and in informal social settings. She avoids situations where she might have to enter into conversations with strangers. She reports that she thinks others are frustrated by her inability in casual social interactions and that she ‘feels stupid and awkward’. Her social problems are also affecting her academic performance. She is considering leaving university for a less stressful environment.
Which is the most appropriate form of psychotherapy for this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Choosing the Right Treatment for Social Phobia: Cognitive Behavioural Therapy
Social phobia is a type of anxiety disorder that can cause panic and avoidance of social situations. For patients with this condition, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is often the best treatment option. CBT can help patients identify and change negative thought patterns that contribute to their anxiety, and it often includes exposure therapy as a component.
Other treatment options, such as vocational counselling or psychoanalytic psychotherapy, may not be as effective for social phobia. Suggesting these options could reinforce the patient’s belief that their symptoms cannot be treated therapeutically. Network therapy is designed for substance abusers, and self-help groups may be helpful for some patients, but only if they can manage their anxiety enough to participate effectively.
In summary, for patients with social phobia, cognitive behavioural therapy is the most effective treatment option. It can help patients overcome their anxiety and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 22
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man presents to the hospital in a confused state. He is unable to explain his condition but insists that he was admitted for 10 days last month despite records showing his last admission to be 7 months ago. He cannot recall which secondary school he attended and, after being on the ward for a week, he does not recognize his primary doctor's face. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, ischemic stroke, and alcoholic liver disease.
Upon examination, the patient has normal tone, upgoing plantar reflexes on the right, and a broad-based gait. There are bilateral cranial nerve 6 (CN 6) palsies associated with nystagmus.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Korsakoff's syndrome
Explanation:Korsakoff’s syndrome is a complication that can arise from Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and it is characterized by anterograde amnesia, retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. In this case, the patient displays confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia, as well as anterograde and retrograde amnesia with confabulation, which suggests that they have progressed to Korsakoff’s syndrome. Wernicke’s encephalopathy is caused by a deficiency in thiamine (vitamin B1), which is often due to chronic alcohol abuse or malnutrition. It presents with confusion, ataxia, and oculomotor dysfunction, which can lead to Korsakoff’s syndrome if left untreated. Brain tumors typically present with symptoms of increased intracranial pressure and focal neurological deficits, which are not present in this case. Lewy body dementia can be diagnosed if a patient with decreased cognition displays two or more of the following symptoms: parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, waxing-and-waning levels of consciousness, and rapid-eye-movement (REM) sleep behavior disorder. Transient global amnesia is a temporary condition that involves retrograde and anterograde amnesia following a stressful event, lasting between 2-8 hours but less than 24 hours. Based on the patient’s symptoms and history of alcohol abuse, Korsakoff’s syndrome is the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Korsakoff’s Syndrome
Korsakoff’s syndrome is a memory disorder that is commonly observed in individuals who have a history of alcoholism. The condition is caused by a deficiency of thiamine, which leads to damage and bleeding in the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus and the medial thalamus. Korsakoff’s syndrome often develops after untreated Wernicke’s encephalopathy.
The symptoms of Korsakoff’s syndrome include anterograde amnesia, which is the inability to form new memories, and retrograde amnesia. Individuals with this condition may also experience confabulation, which is the production of fabricated or distorted memories to fill gaps in their recollection.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A middle-aged couple visits the clinic with concerns about the husband's behavior. The wife reports that her partner has been acting strangely, constantly checking on their son throughout the day and night, sometimes up to twenty times. When questioned, he reveals that he had a frightening experience with his son last month and cannot stop reliving it in his mind. He avoids going to places where he might lose sight of his son and has trouble sleeping. There is no significant medical or psychiatric history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Post traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
Explanation:Understanding Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental health condition that can develop in individuals of any age following a traumatic event. This can include experiences such as natural disasters, accidents, or even childhood abuse. PTSD is characterized by a range of symptoms, including re-experiencing the traumatic event through flashbacks or nightmares, avoidance of situations or people associated with the event, hyperarousal, emotional numbing, depression, and even substance abuse.
Effective management of PTSD involves a range of interventions, depending on the severity of the symptoms. Single-session interventions are not recommended, and watchful waiting may be used for mild symptoms lasting less than four weeks. Military personnel have access to treatment provided by the armed forces, while trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) therapy may be used in more severe cases.
It is important to note that drug treatments for PTSD should not be used as a routine first-line treatment for adults. If drug treatment is used, venlafaxine or a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), such as sertraline, should be tried. In severe cases, NICE recommends that risperidone may be used. Overall, understanding the symptoms and effective management of PTSD is crucial in supporting individuals who have experienced traumatic events.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old male with depression is evaluated by his psychiatrist. He expresses his ongoing depressed mood and shares with his psychiatrist that he experiences a sense of detachment from reality.
Which term best describes the abnormality exhibited by the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depersonalisation
Explanation:Depersonalisation and Derealisation
Depersonalisation and derealisation are two distinct experiences that can occur in individuals with mental health conditions. Depersonalisation refers to the feeling that one’s own self is not real, while derealisation refers to the feeling that the world around them is not real.
In depersonalisation, individuals may feel as though they are observing themselves from outside of their body or that they are disconnected from their thoughts and emotions. This can be a distressing experience and may lead to feelings of detachment and isolation.
On the other hand, derealisation can cause individuals to feel as though the world around them is unreal or dreamlike. This can lead to feelings of confusion and disorientation, as well as difficulty with concentration and memory.
It is important to note that these experiences can occur in a variety of mental health conditions, including anxiety, depression, and dissociative disorders. While anhedonia, delusions of guilt, and reduced affect display may be present in some individuals with depression, they are not necessarily associated with depersonalisation or derealisation.
Overall, these experiences can help individuals and their loved ones better recognize and manage symptoms of mental illness.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman complains that she is unable to leave the house and as a result, her children are missing out and she is a bad mother. She reports feeling anxious most of the time, but when she is in public, she experiences a rapid heartbeat, fast breathing, and believes that everyone is staring at her. These symptoms began approximately three weeks after she lost her job when the company she worked for shut down. Since then, she has been unable to find enjoyment in anything and feels constantly fatigued. What is her diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Depression with secondary anxiety
Explanation:Understanding the Relationship Between Depression and Anxiety: A Clinical Perspective
Depression and anxiety are two common mental health conditions that often co-occur. However, it is important to distinguish between the two and determine which is the primary diagnosis, as this will guide treatment. In cases where depression is the underlying main diagnosis, patients may develop secondary symptoms such as anxiety and panic attacks. On the other hand, in cases where anxiety is the primary diagnosis, patients may also experience secondary depressive symptoms.
One key factor in determining the primary diagnosis is the temporal development of symptoms. In cases where depressive symptoms clearly started first, a correct diagnosis of depression is important, as treating the underlying disorder can also improve secondary anxiety symptoms. Symptoms of depression include low mood, anhedonia, and anergia.
Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by uncontrollable and irrational worry or anxiety about a wide range of issues and situations, while agoraphobia is an excessive fear of being in a situation where a person cannot freely escape or where help may not be available. Panic disorder is diagnosed when a person has recurrent, severe panic attacks without an obvious precipitant.
In cases where anxiety is secondary to depression, it is important to address the underlying depressive symptoms in order to improve the abnormal anxiety. Symptoms of abnormal anxiety and depression frequently present co-morbidly, and careful history-taking is necessary to determine which is the primary diagnosis. By understanding the relationship between depression and anxiety, clinicians can provide more effective treatment for their patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 78-year-old, frail elderly man on the geriatric ward is experiencing difficulty sleeping and asks for medication to aid his insomnia. The doctor prescribes a brief course of zopiclone.
What is one of the potential hazards linked to the use of zopiclone in older adults?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of falls
Explanation:Elderly patients taking zopiclone are at an increased risk of falling due to its mode of action on GABA-containing receptors, which enhances the effects of GABA. This is similar to benzodiazepines. Zopiclone can cause adverse effects such as agitation, constipation, dry mouth, dizziness, and decreased muscle tone. However, diarrhea is not a known side effect. Withdrawal from zopiclone may lead to convulsions, tremors, and hyperventilation.
Understanding Z Drugs and Their Adverse Effects
Z drugs are a class of medications that have similar effects to benzodiazepines, but they differ in their chemical structure. These drugs work by acting on the α2-subunit of the GABA receptor. There are three groups of Z drugs: imidazopyridines, cyclopyrrolones, and pyrazolopyrimidines. Examples of these drugs include zolpidem, zopiclone, and zaleplon.
Despite their effectiveness in treating sleep disorders, Z drugs have adverse effects that are similar to benzodiazepines. One of the most significant risks associated with these drugs is an increased risk of falls in the elderly. Therefore, it is essential to use these medications with caution, especially in older adults. It is also important to follow the prescribed dosage and not to mix them with other medications or alcohol. By understanding the potential risks and benefits of Z drugs, patients can make informed decisions about their use and work with their healthcare providers to manage any adverse effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with her husband who is worried about her unusual behavior. The patient discloses that her sister passed away in a car accident recently and the funeral was held last week. She expresses her deep love and closeness with her sister and admits to feeling very sad. The psychiatrist confirms this sentiment with the husband. However, while recounting the events of her sister's death and funeral, she begins to smile and laugh, describing the events in a cheerful tone. What is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's abnormal behavior?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Incongruity of affect
Explanation:Common Psychiatric Terms Explained
Psychiatric terms can be difficult to understand, but it’s important to know what they mean. Incongruity of affect is when a patient’s emotional expression does not match the situation they are describing. This can be confusing for both the patient and the clinician. Anhedonia is another term that is commonly used in psychiatry. It refers to the inability to feel pleasure from activities that were once enjoyable. This can be a symptom of depression or other mental health conditions. Depersonalisation and derealisation are two terms that are often used interchangeably, but they have different meanings. Depersonalisation is the feeling that one’s self is not real, while derealisation is the feeling that the world is not real. Finally, thought blocking is when a person suddenly stops their train of thought. This can be a symptom of schizophrenia or other mental health conditions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
Following the 2011 NICE guidelines for managing panic disorder, what is the most suitable initial drug therapy for treating the condition in younger patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:Anxiety is a common disorder that can manifest in various ways. According to NICE, the primary feature is excessive worry about multiple events associated with heightened tension. It is crucial to consider potential physical causes when diagnosing anxiety disorders, such as hyperthyroidism, cardiac disease, and medication-induced anxiety. Medications that may trigger anxiety include salbutamol, theophylline, corticosteroids, antidepressants, and caffeine.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for managing generalised anxiety disorder (GAD). This includes education about GAD and active monitoring, low-intensity psychological interventions, high-intensity psychological interventions or drug treatment, and highly specialist input. Sertraline is the first-line SSRI for drug treatment, and if it is ineffective, an alternative SSRI or a serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) such as duloxetine or venlafaxine may be offered. If the patient cannot tolerate SSRIs or SNRIs, pregabalin may be considered. For patients under 30 years old, NICE recommends warning them of the increased risk of suicidal thinking and self-harm and weekly follow-up for the first month.
The management of panic disorder also follows a stepwise approach, including recognition and diagnosis, treatment in primary care, review and consideration of alternative treatments, review and referral to specialist mental health services, and care in specialist mental health services. NICE recommends either cognitive behavioural therapy or drug treatment in primary care. SSRIs are the first-line drug treatment, and if contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks, imipramine or clomipramine should be offered.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old man has been admitted to the psychiatric ward under section 2 of the mental health act for suspected first-episode psychosis. During his mental state examination, burns are observed on his arms and he claims that insects are burrowing into his skin. He suggests that the burns are caused by bleach. The evaluating psychiatrist could not detect any insects, and when questioned, the patient became agitated and insisted that his skin was infested. What is the most probable disorder being described?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional parasitosis
Explanation:The patient in the scenario is experiencing delusional parasitosis, a psychiatric disorder characterized by a fixed, false belief that one is infested by parasites or ‘bugs’. This delusion can lead to extreme measures to try to eradicate the perceived infestation. Delusional parasitosis is also known as Ekbom syndrome. Capgras delusion, Cotard’s delusion, and formication are not applicable in this case.
Understanding Delusional Parasitosis
Delusional parasitosis is a condition that is not commonly known but can be debilitating for those who suffer from it. It is characterized by a persistent and false belief that one is infested with bugs, parasites, mites, bacteria, or fungus. This delusion can occur on its own or in conjunction with other psychiatric conditions. Despite the delusion, patients may still be able to function normally in other aspects of their lives.
In simpler terms, delusional parasitosis is a rare condition where a person believes they have bugs or other organisms living on or inside their body, even though there is no evidence to support this belief. This can cause significant distress and anxiety for the individual, and they may go to great lengths to try and rid themselves of the perceived infestation. It is important for those who suspect they may be suffering from delusional parasitosis to seek professional help, as treatment can greatly improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man contacts his primary care physician for guidance. He lost his wife to cancer and has been a widower for 6 months. The patient has a supportive family and is not experiencing clinical depression, but he was very emotional after his wife's passing. He occasionally feels indifferent and disheartened, but this has improved significantly over time. However, he has heard his late wife speaking to him on several occasions over the last 2 weeks. He also believed he saw her once while shopping with a friend, but he acknowledges that this is impossible. What is the most appropriate course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure and safety-net
Explanation:It is possible for pseudo hallucinations to be a normal part of the grieving process. People who are grieving may experience hearing, seeing, or smelling their deceased loved one, especially during acute grief. This can happen at any stage of bereavement. Therefore, the patient in question can be reassured that this is a common experience.
Since there is no evidence of an organic cause for the patient’s symptoms, it would not be appropriate to arrange blood tests or urinalysis.
While antidepressants may be used to treat severe or atypical cases of grief, the patient is not clinically depressed and is unlikely to benefit from them. In fact, they may cause harm due to their adverse effects.
The patient is fully aware of the situation and has insight into their condition. Therefore, there is no need for urgent psychiatric involvement or sectioning under the Mental Health Act 1983.
Understanding Pseudohallucinations
Pseudohallucinations are false sensory perceptions that occur in the absence of external stimuli, but with the awareness that they are not real. While not officially recognized in the ICD 10 or DSM-5, there is a general consensus among specialists about their definition. Some argue that it is more helpful to view hallucinations on a spectrum, from mild sensory disturbances to full-blown hallucinations, to avoid misdiagnosis or mistreatment.
One example of a pseudohallucination is a hypnagogic hallucination, which occurs during the transition from wakefulness to sleep. These vivid auditory or visual experiences are fleeting and can happen to anyone. It is important to reassure patients that these experiences are normal and do not necessarily indicate the development of a mental illness.
Pseudohallucinations are particularly common in people who are grieving. Understanding the nature of these experiences can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate support and reassurance to those who may be struggling with them. By acknowledging the reality of pseudohallucinations and their potential impact on mental health, we can better equip ourselves to provide compassionate care to those who need it.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)