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  • Question 1 - A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 60 develops...

    Correct

    • A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus at the age of 60 develops urinary microalbuminuria (urinary albumin : creatinine ratio > 2.5 mg/mmol for men and > 3.5 mg/mmol for women).
      Which of the following options is likely to confer the most benefit in terms of prognosis?

      Your Answer: Reduce blood pressure to 130/80 mmHg or less using angiotensin converting enzyme(ACE)inhibitors

      Explanation:

      Microalbuminuria in Diabetes Mellitus

      Microalbuminuria is a common occurrence in both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is caused by damage to the renal basement membranes, which allows excess protein to leak into the affected nephrons. In type 1 diabetes, microalbuminuria is a prognostic indicator of chronic kidney disease, while in type 2 diabetes, it is associated with ischaemic heart disease.

      To improve outcomes, it is crucial to aggressively control blood pressure, which is more important than other factors such as HbA1c control. However, HbA1c control should not be ignored. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors are particularly helpful in controlling blood pressure and can even reverse microalbuminuria in affected patients. Therefore, it is essential to monitor and manage microalbuminuria in patients with diabetes mellitus to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You are conducting a diabetic annual review on a 63-year-old man with type...

    Correct

    • You are conducting a diabetic annual review on a 63-year-old man with type 2 diabetes. As part of the review, you are checking for any indications of depression. NICE suggests using two questions to screen for depression in at-risk patients, such as those with chronic illnesses. What is one of the questions that should be asked as part of the evaluation?

      Your Answer: During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?

      Explanation:

      Managing Chronic Medical Conditions in Primary Care

      More and more patients with complex, chronic medical conditions are being managed in primary care, such as diabetes where some practices are initiating and managing patients on insulin and newer injectable treatments. However, with this greater workload comes the need for structured regular reviews. Part of reviewing a patient with a chronic medical problem is to consider the psychological impact of their disease and to elicit any depression or mood disorder that may be present.

      To approach this scenario, NICE has provided a framework that advises asking two questions. If either question is answered with a ‘yes,’ further inquiry is needed into specific symptoms of depression. The two questions are: During the last month, have you been feeling down, depressed, or hopeless? During the last month, have you often been bothered by having little interest or pleasure in doing things?

      By regularly reviewing patients with chronic medical conditions and considering their psychological well-being, primary care providers can provide comprehensive care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      115.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 28-year-old army captain has returned to the United Kingdom after a tour...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old army captain has returned to the United Kingdom after a tour of duty overseas and presents to his General Practitioner. He complains of intense itching, mainly affecting his finger webs and the flexural aspect of his wrists. The itching is worse in bed. There was some itching around the groin, but this settled after repeated bathing.
      On examination, there appears to be excoriation in the finger webs.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Scabies from Other Itchy Skin Conditions

      Scabies is a highly contagious skin condition caused by Sarcoptes scabiei mites. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly in the finger webs, wrists, elbows, perineum, and areolar regions. The rash may appear as erythematous papules, diffuse dermatitis, or urticated erythema. The pathognomonic sign of scabies is the presence of burrows, which are intraepidermal tunnels created by the female mite.

      When differentiating scabies from other itchy skin conditions, it is important to consider the location and appearance of the rash. Contact dermatitis, for instance, doesn’t typically present with an eczematous rash on the hands. Lichen planus, on the other hand, is characterized by violaceous papules and tends to affect the wrists more than other areas. Pompholyx eczema is limited to the hands and soles of the feet, while psoriasis is characterized by white, scaly plaques and mild itching. By carefully examining the symptoms and physical presentation, healthcare providers can accurately diagnose and treat scabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      26.2
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  • Question 4 - A Health Visitor has requested a review of a 9-month-old girl who is...

    Incorrect

    • A Health Visitor has requested a review of a 9-month-old girl who is not reaching out for objects. The mother reports that the child is able to sit with support and has started to crawl.
      Which is the single most appropriate initial intervention?

      Your Answer: Offer reassurance

      Correct Answer: Refer to Paediatrics

      Explanation:

      Referral and Support for Children with Developmental Delays

      Children who present with delays in their development require a thorough assessment to identify the underlying cause. In cases where delays are observed in one area, such as fine motor development, a full developmental assessment with a Paediatrician is recommended. The Paediatrician can then refer the child to other services, such as Physiotherapy, Audiology, and Speech and Language Therapy, as needed.

      Concerns regarding hearing, speech, and language development should prompt a referral to Audiology. While congenital hearing problems are usually detected via newborn screening tests, it is important to consider hearing loss in children presenting with developmental concerns.

      Offering reassurance is not always sufficient, especially if a child is unable to reach out for objects by six months. In such cases, further assessment is necessary.

      Health Visitors play a crucial role in monitoring children with developmental concerns and offering support to parents. Parents can contact the Health Visiting service directly without a referral from primary care.

      Physiotherapy can be helpful in children presenting with delays in gross motor development. However, for children with concerns regarding fine motor development, a review by a Paediatrician is necessary before considering a referral to Physiotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      53.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple...

    Correct

    • When conducting a yearly evaluation for a senior living facility resident with multiple comorbidities, you observe that he has a heart rate of 57, indicating bradycardia. Which of his medications could be causing this side effect?

      Your Answer: Donepezil

      Explanation:

      Donepezil is a drug used for treating Alzheimer’s disease, but it may cause bradycardia as a side effect, along with other adverse reactions such as gastrointestinal problems, agitation, hallucinations, and syncope. Patients with conduction abnormalities or those taking negatively chronotropic medications like beta blockers, rate-limiting calcium channel blockers, or digoxin should use caution when taking these drugs. Although specialists like psychiatrists, elderly care specialists, and neurologists typically initiate the use of these medications, GPs may be asked to prescribe and monitor them under Shared Care Agreements, so it’s important to be aware of potential prescribing issues. The BNF lists neuroleptic malignant syndrome as a very rare adverse reaction.

      Dementia is a condition that affects a significant number of people in the UK, with Alzheimer’s disease being the most common cause followed by vascular and Lewy body dementia. Diagnosis can be challenging and often delayed, but assessment tools such as the 10-point cognitive screener and 6-Item cognitive impairment test are recommended by NICE for non-specialist settings. However, tools like the abbreviated mental test score, General practitioner assessment of cognition, and mini-mental state examination are not recommended. A score of 24 or less out of 30 on the MMSE suggests dementia.

      In primary care, a blood screen is usually conducted to exclude reversible causes like hypothyroidism. NICE recommends tests such as FBC, U&E, LFTs, calcium, glucose, ESR/CRP, TFTs, vitamin B12, and folate levels. Patients are often referred to old-age psychiatrists working in memory clinics. In secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to exclude other reversible conditions like subdural haematoma and normal pressure hydrocephalus and provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. The 2011 NICE guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in investigating dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      30.4
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  • Question 6 - A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman has chronic diarrhoea and is suspected to have irritable bowel syndrome. What is the most suitable test to diagnose bile acid malabsorption?

      Your Answer: Faecal fat estimation

      Correct Answer: SeHCAT (tauroselcholic [75 selenium] acid) test

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bile Acid Malabsorption and Coeliac Disease

      Bile acids play a crucial role in the absorption of lipids, and their malabsorption can lead to gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, bloating, and faecal incontinence. Bile acid malabsorption can be classified into three types, with primary idiopathic malabsorption being particularly common in patients with irritable bowel syndrome. Crohn’s disease and certain surgeries or diseases can also cause bile acid malabsorption.

      The SeHCAT test is a diagnostic tool that tracks the retention and loss of bile acids through the enterohepatic circulation. A capsule containing radiolabeled 75 SeHCAT is ingested, and the percentage retention of SeHCAT at seven days is calculated. A value less than 15% indicates excessive bile acid loss and suggests bile acid malabsorption.

      Faecal fat estimation is a standard test for malabsorption, but it is not specific for bile acids. Anti-transglutaminase antibodies are found in coeliac disease, and higher levels of these antibodies suggest a diagnosis of that condition. Small bowel biopsy is performed to confirm a diagnosis of coeliac disease. The urea breath test is a rapid diagnostic procedure used in retesting for infections by Helicobacter pylori, which requires the triple-therapy regimen for treatment.

      In summary, the SeHCAT test, faecal fat estimation, anti-transglutaminase antibodies, small bowel biopsy, and urea breath test are all diagnostic tools that can aid in the diagnosis of bile acid malabsorption and coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      33.6
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  • Question 7 - In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas,...

    Incorrect

    • In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas, Concerns, and Expectation).
      Why do teachers use this phrase?

      Your Answer: To elicit the patient agenda

      Correct Answer: To meet the criteria on the MRCGP marking schedule

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Patient Agenda with ICE

      Patients attend medical appointments for various reasons, and it is crucial for doctors to address their concerns and expectations to be effective communicators. This is known as the Patient Agenda, which can be explored using the Ideas, Concerns, and Expectations (ICE) instrument.

      For instance, a patient with a sore throat may have different reasons for attending. It could be due to their belief that any illness should be brought to the doctor’s attention or a worry that the sore throat is a symptom of a more severe condition.

      As doctors, it is essential to understand the patient’s agenda to provide appropriate care. However, asking patients what they think is wrong may not always yield helpful responses. Some patients may respond with You’re the doctor, you tell me, which can be uncomfortable.

      In conclusion, understanding the patient agenda and using ICE can help doctors address patients’ concerns and expectations effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
      47.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You encounter a 60-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension who reports experiencing erectile...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 60-year-old man with diabetes and hypertension who reports experiencing erectile dysfunction for the past 6 months. After prescribing sildenafil, which provided some relief, you increased the dosage but the patient is now experiencing adverse effects. He is curious about other treatment options available to him through the NHS. What medications can be prescribed for his condition?

      Your Answer: Generic sildenafil, other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil

      Explanation:

      Men who have diabetes may be prescribed other PDE5 inhibitors and alprostadil on the NHS. Generic sildenafil is available without any restrictions on the NHS. However, Viagra®, tadalafil (Cialis®), vardenafil (Levitra®), avanafil (Spedra®), and alprostadil cannot be prescribed on an NHS prescription, except for men who have certain medical conditions or have undergone specific medical procedures. Additionally, specialist centers may prescribe PDE-5 inhibitors on the NHS if the man is experiencing severe distress due to impotence.

      Erectile dysfunction (ED) is a condition where a man is unable to achieve or maintain an erection that is sufficient for sexual performance. It is not a disease but a symptom that can be caused by organic, psychogenic, or mixed factors. It is important to differentiate between the causes of ED, with factors such as a gradual onset of symptoms and lack of tumescence favoring an organic cause, while sudden onset of symptoms and decreased libido favoring a psychogenic cause. Risk factors for ED include cardiovascular disease, alcohol use, and certain medications.

      To assess for ED, it is recommended to measure lipid and fasting glucose serum levels to calculate cardiovascular risk. Free testosterone should also be measured in the morning, and if low or borderline, further assessment may be needed. PDE-5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the first-line treatment for ED and should be prescribed to all patients regardless of the cause. Vacuum erection devices can be used as an alternative for those who cannot or will not take PDE-5 inhibitors. Referral to urology may be appropriate for young men who have always had difficulty achieving an erection, and those who cycle for more than three hours per week should be advised to stop.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      43
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male is being reviewed after being admitted six weeks ago with an inferior myocardial infarction (MI) and treated with thrombolysis. He has been prescribed atenolol 50 mg daily, aspirin, and rosuvastatin 10 mg daily upon discharge. He has quit smoking after his MI and is now asking which foods he should avoid.

      Your Answer: Kippers

      Explanation:

      Diet Recommendations Following a Heart Attack

      Following a heart attack, it is important for patients to make dietary changes to reduce the risk of another cardiac event. One of the key recommendations is to avoid foods high in saturated fat, such as cheese, milk, and fried foods. Instead, patients should switch to a diet rich in high-fiber, starch-based foods, and aim to consume five portions of fresh fruits and vegetables daily, as well as oily fish.

      However, it is important to note that NICE guidance on Acute Coronary Syndromes (NG185) advises against the use of omega-3 capsules and supplements to prevent another heart attack. While oily fish is still recommended as a source of omega-3, patients should not rely on supplements as a substitute for a healthy diet. By making these dietary changes, patients can improve their heart health and reduce the risk of future cardiac events.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - The director of a nearby assisted living facility reaches out to your practice...

    Incorrect

    • The director of a nearby assisted living facility reaches out to your practice to notify you of the sudden passing of an 80-year-old man. He had a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and advanced dementia. Your last interaction with him was during a home visit 2 months ago to discuss advanced care planning, which included avoiding hospitalization and establishing a do not resuscitate order.

      What is the best course of action to take following his death?

      Your Answer: Call 999 to inform the police

      Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner

      Explanation:

      If a doctor has not seen the deceased in the 28 days prior to their death, the death must be referred to the coroner. This is a notifiable death and may require further investigation and a post-mortem. However, the first step is to refer the death to the coroner’s office. Alerting the safeguarding lead or calling 999 is not necessary in this situation, and completing the death certificate should not be done until after the coroner’s investigation is complete.

      Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner

      When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.

      It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
      61.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old unemployed woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with a persistent...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old unemployed woman presents to the General Practice Surgery with a persistent productive cough that has so far lasted six weeks, associated with shortness of breath and episodes of haemoptysis, as well as malaise and fatigue.
      She is on lisinopril and amlodipine for hypertension. Her weight is 75 kg, a loss of 6 kg since it was last recorded at a hypertension check three months ago. She is a non-smoker and lives alone in a rented flat in a deprived area.
      What is the most appropriate initial management option?

      Your Answer: Arrange Mantoux test

      Correct Answer: Send sputum samples and request a chest X-ray (CXR)

      Explanation:

      The patient is at high risk for tuberculosis (TB) due to his unemployment, living in a deprived area, and having diabetes. His symptoms, including a persistent cough with blood, shortness of breath, weight loss, and fatigue, suggest active TB. To diagnose TB, multiple sputum samples should be sent for analysis and a chest X-ray (CXR) should be performed urgently. A Mantoux test is not necessary in a symptomatic individual like this. A blood serology test for TB is not the recommended first-line investigation. A CT scan of the chest is not the first-line test for TB. The patient doesn’t meet the criteria for an urgent referral for suspected cancer, but if he were over 40 years of age, he would meet criteria for a CXR to look for lung cancer. However, even if he were over 40 years of age, his clinical picture with risk factors would still warrant sending sputum samples and arranging a CXR. The role of primary care is to make the diagnosis and refer the patient promptly for appropriate management and contact tracing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy And Immunology
      34.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man has just joined your practice and came in for a routine medical check-up. He is in good health but has a history of sickle cell disease. According to his immunisation record, he received the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine five years ago.

      What is the recommended frequency for administering this vaccine to him?

      Your Answer: Every 5 years

      Explanation:

      Individuals with sickle cell disease should be administered the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every 5 years to prevent pneumococcal infections, as they are at a heightened risk due to the hypofunction of their spleen caused by recurrent splenic infarction. Children should receive their first vaccine at 2 years of age, followed by subsequent doses every 5 years.

      Managing Sickle-Cell Anaemia

      Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic blood disorder that causes red blood cells to become misshapen and break down, leading to a range of complications. When a crisis occurs, management involves providing analgesia, rehydration, oxygen, and potentially antibiotics if there is evidence of infection. Blood transfusions may also be necessary, and in some cases, an exchange transfusion may be required if there are neurological complications.

      In the longer term, prophylactic management of sickle-cell anaemia involves the use of hydroxyurea, which increases the levels of HbF to prevent painful episodes. Additionally, it is recommended that sickle-cell patients receive the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine every five years to reduce the risk of infection. By implementing these management strategies, individuals with sickle-cell anaemia can better manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      21.1
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 59-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of cough and blood stained...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of cough and blood stained sputum, shortness of breath on exertion, and a dull ache in the right side of his chest for the past two weeks. He used to smoke 10 cigarettes per day for many years but quit five years ago. He works as a heating engineer and admits to having worked with asbestos in the past before safety measures were mandatory. On examination of the respiratory system, there are no abnormal findings, and he is apyrexial. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to a respiratory physician

      Correct Answer: Arrange a routine chest x ray and review in two weeks

      Explanation:

      Understanding Asbestos Exposure and Mesothelioma

      Asbestos is a group of minerals that occur naturally in the environment as bundles of fibres. Exposure to asbestos can lead to various health problems, including asbestosis, lung cancer, mesothelioma, and other cancers. Smokers who are also exposed to asbestos have a higher risk of developing lung cancer. If you suspect that you have been exposed to asbestos, it is important to inform your physician and report any symptoms.

      Mesothelioma is a type of cancer that is commonly associated with asbestos exposure. Symptoms of mesothelioma may include chest pain, breathlessness, weight loss, fatigue, and sweats. In some cases, there may be evidence of effusion or pleural thickening on a chest X-ray. An occupational history is important in identifying potential exposure to asbestos.

      According to NICE guidelines, individuals aged 40 and over who have unexplained symptoms such as cough, fatigue, shortness of breath, chest pain, weight loss, or appetite loss should be offered an urgent chest X-ray within two weeks to assess for mesothelioma. This is especially important for those who have been exposed to asbestos or have a history of smoking. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes for those with mesothelioma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of rapidly worsening shortness of breath over the past four to five weeks. He reports bilateral ankle swelling and has experienced two episodes of gasping for breath in the past week. The patient has a history of hypertension and takes indapamide and amlodipine. On examination, his BP is 122/72, his pulse is 90 and regular, and he has bibasal crackles on chest auscultation and bilateral pitting edema. Laboratory investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 122 g/L (135-177), white cells of 8.3 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 182 ×109/L (150-400), sodium of 141 mmol/L (135-146), potassium of 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5), creatinine of 122 μmol/L (79-118), and BNP of 520 pg/mL (<100). Based on the latest NICE guidance, what is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Arrange 12 lead ECG, and ECHO. If abnormal, refer to a specialist.

      Correct Answer: Commence ramipril and review in four weeks

      Explanation:

      Referral Guidelines for Suspected Heart Failure with Elevated BNP Levels

      According to NICE CG106, individuals with suspected heart failure and an NT-proBNP level between 400 and 2,000 ng/litre should be referred for specialist assessment and transthoracic echocardiography within 6 weeks. Urgent referral within 2 weeks is recommended for those with NT-proBNP levels above 2,000 ng/litre due to the poor prognosis associated with very high levels of BNP.

      For individuals with NT-proBNP levels below 400 ng/litre, alternative causes for symptoms of heart failure should be reviewed. If there is still concern that the symptoms may be related to heart failure, consultation with a physician with subspeciality training in heart failure is recommended.

      It is important to note that very high levels of BNP carry a poor prognosis with respect to both morbidity and increased risk of hospital admission and mortality from heart failure. If transthoracic echocardiogram images are poor, other imaging methods such as radionucleotide scanning or transoesophageal echo should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Older Adults
      153.7
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty in using his right arm, slow...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old hypertensive man presents with difficulty in using his right arm, slow walking and occasional loss of balance. Symptoms have appeared over 18 months. He also reports urinary incontinence. He has a broad-based gait with cogwheel rigidity and intention tremor of his right arm. His blood pressure is 140/80 mmHg sitting and 100/60 mmHg standing.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease

      Correct Answer: Multi system atrophy

      Explanation:

      Neurodegenerative Disorders: Differentiating Multiple System Atrophy, Progressive Supranuclear Palsy, Corticobasal Ganglionic Degeneration, Multiple Sclerosis, and Parkinson’s Disease

      Neurodegenerative disorders can present with similar symptoms, making it challenging to differentiate between them. Here are some key features to distinguish between multiple system atrophy, progressive supranuclear palsy, corticobasal ganglionic degeneration, multiple sclerosis, and Parkinson’s disease.

      Multiple System Atrophy: This rapidly progressive disease affects multiple systems and presents with akinetic rigid syndrome, cerebellar signs, urinary dysfunction, and autonomic features. No treatment can halt progression, and the mean survival is 6-9 years.

      Progressive Supranuclear Palsy: This disorder affects cognition, eye movements, and posture, resembling multi-system atrophy. However, cardiovascular autonomic dysfunction is not a feature.

      Corticobasal Ganglionic Degeneration: This rare disease involves the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, causing movement and cognitive dysfunction. Signs of apraxia, alien-limb phenomena, cortical sensory loss, and cortical reflex myoclonus can help distinguish it from multi-system atrophy.

      Multiple Sclerosis: This disease presents with symptomatic neurological episodes that occur months or years apart and affect different anatomical locations.

      Parkinson’s Disease: Parkinsonian symptoms can occur in multi-system atrophy, but rapid progression, autonomic features, rigidity, and poor response to levodopa can help differentiate it from Parkinson’s disease.

      In summary, careful evaluation of symptoms and clinical features can aid in distinguishing between these neurodegenerative disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
    Which of the following statements about...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is seen complaining of verrucas.
      Which of the following statements about treatment of verrucas is correct?

      Your Answer: Where verrucas are resistant to over-the-counter treatments they should be excised

      Correct Answer: Untreated verrucas often resolve spontaneously

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatments for Plantar Warts: A Guide

      Plantar warts, also known as verrucas, are notoriously difficult to treat due to their thick cornified layer. This layer makes it harder for treatments to penetrate to the lower epidermis, resulting in lower cure rates compared to other skin warts. However, there are several effective treatments available.

      First-line treatment for plantar warts is over-the-counter salicylic acid. While this treatment can turn the affected area white and cause soreness, it is often effective. Paring the wart before treatment may also help. Glutaraldehyde is another effective option, but it may turn the skin brown and cause sensitization.

      Cryotherapy is a second-line treatment that involves freezing the wart with liquid nitrogen. However, multiple cycles may be needed for it to be effective. Reported cure rates vary widely.

      For more aggressive treatment, salicylic acid and/or cryotherapy can be used with more intensive regimens. However, caution is needed as these treatments can have worse side effects.

      Surgery and bleomycin are not typically used for plantar warts. Instead, the British Association of Dermatologists recommends several other treatments with some evidence base, including dithranol, 5-fluorouracil (5-FU), formaldehyde, laser, photodynamic therapy, topical immunotherapy, and podophyllotoxin.

      In conclusion, while plantar warts can be challenging to treat, there are several effective options available. Consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for your individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 17 - You assess a 23-year-old woman who has been newly diagnosed with ulcerative colitis...

    Correct

    • You assess a 23-year-old woman who has been newly diagnosed with ulcerative colitis on the left side. The gastroenterologists prescribed high-dose oral mesalazine five days ago, but there has been no improvement in her bowel movements, which consist of passing 3-4 loose stools per day with small amounts of blood. She is still in good health, and her abdominal examination is normal. What is the recommended duration of the initial mesalazine treatment before determining its effectiveness?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      Patients with mild-moderate flares of ulcerative colitis are usually evaluated for treatment response over a period of 4 weeks.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      29.9
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  • Question 18 - A 4-year-old boy struggles with temper tantrums, shyness and communication delay. His mother...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy struggles with temper tantrums, shyness and communication delay. His mother is concerned he may have autism.
      What is the SINGLE ‘red flag’ feature that would make you most concerned that this boy might have an autistic spectrum disorder?

      Your Answer: Lack of response to his name

      Explanation:

      Recognizing Early Signs of Autism in Children

      Autistic spectrum disorders are often diagnosed after the age of three years, but parents may have concerns about their child’s development by 18 months. While a specialist diagnosis is required, general practitioners should be aware of warning signs. These include lack of social interactions, impaired communication, repetitive behavior, restricted interests, and difficulty regulating emotions. However, some behaviors that may seem concerning are actually normal parts of child development, such as copying gestures and exhibiting defiant behavior. It is important to note that language delay is a feature of autism, but only linking two words together in speech is a normal milestone that usually occurs between 20 and 24 months. When observing a child, it is crucial to look for a combination of these signs and seek professional evaluation if there are concerns.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 19 - What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant? ...

    Incorrect

    • What could be the cause of stridor in a 6-month-old infant?

      Your Answer: Acute bronchiolitis

      Correct Answer: Laryngomalacia

      Explanation:

      Causes of Stridor: An Overview

      Stridor is a high-pitched, wheezing sound that occurs during breathing and is often a sign of an underlying respiratory problem. One common cause of stridor is laryngomalacia, a congenital condition that results in flaccidity of supraglottic structures. This condition may not present until the child is a few months old.

      It is important to note that stridor doesn’t occur in bronchiolitis, asthma, or reflux. In the UK, viral croup is the most common cause of stridor in general practice, while epiglottitis is a much rarer cause that can produce severe stridor with distress and cyanosis very quickly. Structural abnormalities such as micrognathia and trachea-oesophageal fistula can also cause stridor.

      It is worth noting that stridor doesn’t occur with pertussis but used to be seen with diphtheria. Other causes of stridor include smoke inhalation, angio-oedema, and foreign body. Understanding the various causes of stridor is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 20 - You assess a 32-year-old male with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis. He...

    Correct

    • You assess a 32-year-old male with a 15-year history of ulcerative colitis. He reports passing three bloody stools per day for the past week, but denies any abdominal pain and has maintained a good appetite. Upon examination, there are no notable findings in the abdomen. What is the most probable explanation for this current episode?

      Your Answer: Mild exacerbation of ulcerative colitis

      Explanation:

      Ulcerative colitis flares can occur without any identifiable trigger, but there are several factors that are often associated with them. These include stress, certain medications such as NSAIDs and antibiotics, and cessation of smoking. Flares are typically categorized as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools a person has per day, the presence of blood in the stools, and the level of systemic disturbance. Mild flares involve fewer than four stools daily with or without blood and no systemic disturbance. Moderate flares involve four to six stools a day with minimal systemic disturbance. Severe flares involve more than six stools a day with blood and evidence of systemic disturbance such as fever, tachycardia, abdominal tenderness, distension, reduced bowel sounds, anemia, or hypoalbuminemia. Patients with severe disease should be admitted to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the surgery with her friend seeking an abortion....

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the surgery with her friend seeking an abortion. She has missed her last three periods and took a pregnancy test which came out positive. Her boyfriend is also 16 years old. It is probable that she will need a surgical termination of pregnancy due to her gestation. However, she doesn't wish to inform her parents. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer her for a termination of pregnancy but let her know you have a legal duty to inform her mother

      Correct Answer: Explore why she doesn't want her parents to know, discuss her options and if she wishes refer her for a termination of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Although she is a minor, she can provide consent for medical intervention but cannot refuse it. Her right to confidentiality must be respected regardless of her age.

      If she decides to undergo a surgical termination of pregnancy, it will require hospitalization, and it is unlikely that she can keep it a secret from her parents. Therefore, it is best to address this issue sensitively from the beginning. If a doctor has ethical objections to abortion, they should refer her to another doctor.

      Referring her for counseling will only cause further delay in an already overdue abortion.

      As previously discussed, the patient’s confidentiality must be upheld.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Equality, Diversity And Inclusion
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  • Question 22 - A 68-year-old woman is treated with oral trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman is treated with oral trimethoprim for a urinary tract infection. Her creatinine was checked on the first day of therapy and found to be 122 μmol/l; after five days her renal function is re-assessed and the creatinine has risen to 142 μmol/l.
      Which of the following is the reason for this?

      Your Answer: Competitive inhibition of creatinine secretion

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanism of Trimethoprim-Induced Rise in Serum Creatinine

      Trimethoprim, a commonly used antibiotic, can cause a self-limiting and reversible rise in serum creatinine without affecting the true glomerular filtration rate (GFR). This is due to its competitive inhibition of creatinine secretion by the organic cation secretory pump. Other drugs that interfere with creatinine secretion, such as cimetidine, can also cause a similar effect. It is important to note that trimethoprim doesn’t directly affect renal blood flow, sodium and water excretion, or the distal tubular epithelial sodium channel. Understanding the mechanism of this rise in serum creatinine can help clinicians avoid unnecessary concern and prevent misinterpretation of renal function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      32.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 26-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of retrosternal burning after...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of retrosternal burning after eating. He has no regular medication and is generally healthy. He has never smoked, but drinks 80 units of alcohol per week. Based on these factors, which is the most likely indication that he is dependent on alcohol?

      Your Answer: Was unable to go to work after a birthday night out

      Correct Answer: Feels he needs more alcohol to have the same effect as it would have had last year

      Explanation:

      Identifying Problem Drinking: Symptoms and Screening Tools

      Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and daily life. Here are some common symptoms of alcohol dependence and screening tools that can help identify problem drinking:

      – Tolerance: Needing more alcohol to achieve the same effect as before.
      – Craving: Strong desire to drink.
      – Loss of control: Inability to stop drinking once started.
      – Withdrawal symptoms: Physical symptoms when not drinking.
      – AUDIT questionnaire: Comprehensive screening tool for problem drinking.
      – AUDIT-C: Shortened form of AUDIT questionnaire consisting of three questions.
      – CAGE questionnaire: Screening tool for problem drinking with a score of 2 or more indicating high likelihood of problem drinking.
      – Excessive alcohol consumption linked to over 200 medical conditions.
      – Types of alcohol consumed do not impact dependence.
      – Inability to fulfill responsibilities due to alcohol consumption is a feature of problem drinking.

      It is important to recognize the symptoms of problem drinking and utilize screening tools to identify and address the issue.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
      54.3
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  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of widespread muscular pain that has persisted for several months and was previously diagnosed as osteoarthritis by another GP. She also experiences fatigue, sleep disturbance, and constipation. Despite undergoing routine tests, thyroid function tests, and rheumatological investigations, all results have been normal. Her joint examination is also normal. What is the most appropriate treatment to alleviate her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Naproxen

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Fibromyalgia: Choosing the Right Medication

      Fibromyalgia is a chronic condition characterized by widespread pain, fatigue, and sleep disturbances. While there is no cure for fibromyalgia, there are several treatment options available to manage its symptoms.

      One medication commonly prescribed for fibromyalgia is amitriptyline, an antidepressant that can improve pain, mood, and sleep quality. Aerobic exercise and cognitive behavior therapy can also be effective in improving overall wellbeing.

      However, medications such as methotrexate and prednisolone are not recommended for fibromyalgia as they are used for inflammatory conditions and lack evidence of benefit for this condition. Strong opioids like slow-release morphine sulfate are also not recommended due to their potential for addiction and tolerance. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs like naproxen may provide short-term relief for acute pain, but are not typically used for chronic pain management in fibromyalgia.

      It is important for patients with fibromyalgia to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best treatment plan for their individual needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral inflamed tonsils, an inability to swallow both...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents with bilateral inflamed tonsils, an inability to swallow both solids and liquids, and inflamed cervical lymph nodes.
      Select the most appropriate management option.

      Your Answer: Referral to hospital for admission

      Explanation:

      When to Admit a Patient with a Sore Throat: Indications and Recommendations

      Admission to the hospital for a sore throat is necessary in certain cases. One such case is when the patient cannot swallow, making oral treatments ineffective. A Paul-Bunnell test may be considered, but it is not the first-line management. An ultrasound scan is only necessary for unexplained cervical lymphadenopathy.

      According to NICE, hospital admission is recommended for sore throat cases that are immediately life-threatening, such as acute epiglottitis or Kawasaki disease. Other indications include dehydration or reluctance to take fluids, suppurative complications like quinsy, immunosuppression, and signs of being markedly systemically unwell.

      It is important to be aware of these indications and recommendations to ensure proper management and treatment of sore throat cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old woman is being seen at the genitourinary medicine clinic for vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is being seen at the genitourinary medicine clinic for vaginal discharge and dysuria. Upon examination, an endocervical swab revealed a Gram-negative coccus identified as Neisseria gonorrhoea, marking her third episode of gonorrhoea in the last two years. What is the probable outcome of repeated infections?

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Explanation:

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) resulting in infertility is frequently seen as a complication of gonorrhoea, with Chlamydia being the only cause of PID that is more common. Arthropathy is a rare occurrence in comparison. Chlamydia trachomatis is responsible for causing lymphogranuloma venereum.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. However, rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic. Unfortunately, immunisation is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins.

      If left untreated, gonorrhoea can lead to local complications such as urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which may result in infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults. The pathophysiology of disseminated gonococcal infection is not fully understood but is thought to be due to haematogenous spread from mucosal infection.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If sensitivities are known, a single dose of oral ciprofloxacin 500mg may be given. Disseminated gonococcal infection and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      34.9
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  • Question 27 - What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE)...

    Incorrect

    • What is the accurate statement about the heightened risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE) after air travel for individuals?

      Your Answer: Patients at a moderate or high risk of VTE should be advised to take aspirin 75 mg od, starting two days before the flight

      Correct Answer: Compression stockings have a role in reducing the risk of VTE in moderate or high risk patients

      Explanation:

      For patients at moderate or high risk, compression stockings are the most suitable preventative measure, with low molecular weight heparin potentially necessary for those at very high risk. Aspirin is not recommended by any current UK guidelines. Although it is sensible to maintain good hydration, there is no evidence to suggest that it effectively prevents VTE, as noted by SIGN in their guideline.

      Travel-Related Thrombosis and Guidelines for Prevention

      Long-haul air travel has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), commonly known as economy class syndrome. However, there is no universal agreement on how to advise patients regarding VTE prevention during travel. The British Committee for Standards in Haematology, SIGN, and Clinical Knowledge Summaries have all produced guidelines, but they differ in their recommendations.

      The most recent CKS guidelines suggest a risk-based approach. Patients with no major risk factors for VTE do not require special measures. However, those with major risk factors should consider wearing anti-embolism stockings, which can be bought or prescribed. In cases of very high risk, such as a long-haul flight following recent major surgery, delaying the flight or seeking specialist advice regarding the use of low-molecular weight heparin may be necessary.

      It is important to note that all guidelines agree that there is no role for aspirin in VTE prevention for low, medium, or high-risk patients. A 2001 study in the New England Journal of Medicine showed that the risk of pulmonary embolism increases with travel distance, with 4.8 cases per million for travel over 10,000 km. While the Civil Aviation Authority doesn’t provide specific guidance on VTE prevention, healthcare providers can use these guidelines to help patients make informed decisions about their travel plans.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a rash on his elbows. He has no other medical issues except for occasional migraines, which he has been treating with atenolol. Upon examination, the lesions appear as distinct, elevated, scaly plaques. What is the most suitable initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Dovobet®

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Plaque Psoriasis

      Chronic plaque psoriasis is a skin condition that can be exacerbated by beta-blockers. Therefore, it is important to discontinue the use of beta-blockers and explore alternative prophylactic drugs for migraine in patients with psoriasis. In addition, regular use of emollients is recommended.

      For active therapy, potent corticosteroids, vitamin D analogues, dithranol, and tar preparations are all acceptable first-line options. However, corticosteroids and topical vitamin D analogues are typically preferred due to their ease of application and cosmetic acceptability. A Cochrane review found that combining a potent corticosteroid with a vitamin D analogue was the most effective treatment, with a lower incidence of local adverse events. Dovobet®, which combines betamethasone 0.1% with calcipotriol, is one such option. Calcipotriol used alone is also an acceptable alternative treatment.

      For psoriasis of the face, flexures, and genitalia, calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus and pimecrolimus are second-line options after moderately potent corticosteroids.

      Managing Chronic Plaque Psoriasis: Treatment Options and Considerations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A 44-year-old man presents with acute onset vertigo which started yesterday and has...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man presents with acute onset vertigo which started yesterday and has persisted.

      The presence of which of the following features would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of labyrinthitis rather than vestibular neuronitis?

      Your Answer: Nausea and vomiting

      Correct Answer: Unsteadiness

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Difference between Vestibular Neuronitis and Labyrinthitis

      Vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthitis are two conditions that can cause vertigo, but they have different underlying causes and symptoms. Vestibular neuronitis is caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, while labyrinthitis is caused by inflammation of the labyrinth. Both conditions often develop after a viral infection and can cause acute onset, spontaneous, prolonged vertigo.

      The key difference between the two conditions is that labyrinthitis also causes hearing loss and tinnitus, while hearing is unaffected in vestibular neuronitis and tinnitus doesn’t occur. It is important to differentiate between the two conditions because the treatment and management may differ.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      28.8
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  • Question 30 - You are contemplating recommending a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for a middle-aged patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are contemplating recommending a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor for a middle-aged patient with depression. What category of medication is most prone to interact with a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Triptan

      Explanation:

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the first-line treatment for depression, with citalopram and fluoxetine being the preferred options. They should be used with caution in children and adolescents, and patients should be monitored for increased anxiety and agitation. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and there is an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Citalopram and escitalopram are associated with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation and should not be used in certain patients. SSRIs have a higher propensity for drug interactions, and patients should be reviewed after 2 weeks of treatment. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period. Use of SSRIs during pregnancy should be weighed against the risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Kidney And Urology (2/2) 100%
Mental Health (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Children And Young People (1/3) 33%
Older Adults (1/2) 50%
Gastroenterology (2/3) 67%
Consulting In General Practice (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular Health (1/1) 100%
End Of Life (0/1) 0%
Allergy And Immunology (0/1) 0%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Equality, Diversity And Inclusion (0/1) 0%
Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/2) 0%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (2/2) 100%
Passmed