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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has varicose veins originating from the short saphenous vein. During mobilization of the vein near its origin, which structure is at the highest risk of injury?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Sural nerve
Explanation:Litigation often arises from damage to the sural nerve, which is closely associated with this structure. While the other structures may also sustain injuries, the likelihood of such occurrences is comparatively lower.
Anatomy of the Popliteal Fossa
The popliteal fossa is a diamond-shaped space located at the back of the knee joint. It is bound by various muscles and ligaments, including the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. The floor of the popliteal fossa is formed by the popliteal surface of the femur, posterior ligament of the knee joint, and popliteus muscle, while the roof is made up of superficial and deep fascia.
The popliteal fossa contains several important structures, including the popliteal artery and vein, small saphenous vein, common peroneal nerve, tibial nerve, posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh, genicular branch of the obturator nerve, and lymph nodes. These structures are crucial for the proper functioning of the lower leg and foot.
Understanding the anatomy of the popliteal fossa is important for healthcare professionals, as it can help in the diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting the knee joint and surrounding structures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man has a cannula inserted into his cephalic vein. What is the structure through which the cephalic vein passes?
Your Answer: Tendon of biceps
Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:Preserving the cephalic vein is important for creating an arteriovenous fistula in patients with end stage renal failure, as it is a preferred vessel for this purpose. The vein travels through the calvipectoral fascia, but does not pass through the pectoralis major muscle, before ending in the axillary vein.
The Cephalic Vein: Path and Connections
The cephalic vein is a major blood vessel that runs along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous arch, which drains blood from the hand and wrist, and travels up the arm, crossing the anatomical snuffbox. At the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein is connected to the basilic vein by the median cubital vein. This connection is commonly used for blood draws and IV insertions.
After passing through the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein continues up the arm and pierces the deep fascia of the deltopectoral groove to join the axillary vein. This junction is located near the shoulder and marks the end of the cephalic vein’s path.
Overall, the cephalic vein plays an important role in the circulation of blood in the upper limb. Its connections to other major veins in the arm make it a valuable site for medical procedures, while its path through the deltopectoral groove allows it to contribute to the larger network of veins that drain blood from the upper body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman has a laparoscopic cholecystectomy as a day case procedure. The surgery proves to be more challenging than expected, and a drain is inserted at the surgical site. During recovery, the patient experiences a significant loss of 1800ml of visible blood into the drain. Which of the following outcomes is not expected?
Your Answer: Reduced urinary sodium excretion
Correct Answer: Release of aldosterone via the Bainbridge reflex
Explanation:The Bainbridge reflex is a response where the heart rate is elevated due to the activation of atrial stretch receptors following a sudden infusion of blood.
The heart has four chambers and generates pressures of 0-25 mmHg on the right side and 0-120 mmHg on the left. The cardiac output is the product of heart rate and stroke volume, typically 5-6L per minute. The cardiac impulse is generated in the sino atrial node and conveyed to the ventricles via the atrioventricular node. Parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers project to the heart via the vagus and release acetylcholine and noradrenaline, respectively. The cardiac cycle includes mid diastole, late diastole, early systole, late systole, and early diastole. Preload is the end diastolic volume and afterload is the aortic pressure. Laplace’s law explains the rise in ventricular pressure during the ejection phase and why a dilated diseased heart will have impaired systolic function. Starling’s law states that an increase in end-diastolic volume will produce a larger stroke volume up to a point beyond which stroke volume will fall. Baroreceptor reflexes and atrial stretch receptors are involved in regulating cardiac output.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 4
Correct
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The cephalic vein penetrates the clavipectoral fascia to end in which of the following veins mentioned below?
Your Answer: Axillary
Explanation:The Cephalic Vein: Path and Connections
The cephalic vein is a major blood vessel that runs along the lateral side of the arm. It begins at the dorsal venous arch, which drains blood from the hand and wrist, and travels up the arm, crossing the anatomical snuffbox. At the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein is connected to the basilic vein by the median cubital vein. This connection is commonly used for blood draws and IV insertions.
After passing through the antecubital fossa, the cephalic vein continues up the arm and pierces the deep fascia of the deltopectoral groove to join the axillary vein. This junction is located near the shoulder and marks the end of the cephalic vein’s path.
Overall, the cephalic vein plays an important role in the circulation of blood in the upper limb. Its connections to other major veins in the arm make it a valuable site for medical procedures, while its path through the deltopectoral groove allows it to contribute to the larger network of veins that drain blood from the upper body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 55-year-old female is referred to the cardiologist by her GP due to experiencing postural dyspnoea and leg oedema for a few months. The cardiologist conducts an echocardiogram and finds out that her left ventricular ejection fraction is 34%. Based on her clinical presentation, she is diagnosed with congestive cardiac failure.
To alleviate her symptoms and improve her long-term prognosis, the patient is prescribed several medications. However, she visits the GP after two weeks, complaining of a dry, tickling cough that she attributes to one of her new medications.
Which medication is most likely causing this new symptom in the patient?Your Answer: Ramipril (ACE inhibitor)
Explanation:Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with unilateral weakness and loss of sensation. He is later diagnosed with an ischaemic stroke. After initial treatment, he is started on dipyridamole as part of his ongoing therapy.
What is the mechanism of action of dipyridamole?Your Answer: Non-specific phosphodiesterase inhibitor
Explanation:Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Dipyridamole
Dipyridamole is a medication that is commonly used in combination with aspirin to prevent the formation of blood clots after a stroke or transient ischemic attack. The drug works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase, which leads to an increase in the levels of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) in platelets. This, in turn, reduces the levels of intracellular calcium, which is necessary for platelet activation and aggregation.
Apart from its antiplatelet effects, dipyridamole also reduces the cellular uptake of adenosine, a molecule that plays a crucial role in regulating blood flow and oxygen delivery to tissues. By inhibiting the uptake of adenosine, dipyridamole can increase its levels in the bloodstream, leading to vasodilation and improved blood flow.
Another mechanism of action of dipyridamole is the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, an enzyme that is involved in the production of thromboxane A2, a potent platelet activator. By blocking this enzyme, dipyridamole can further reduce platelet activation and aggregation, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots.
In summary, dipyridamole exerts its antiplatelet effects through multiple mechanisms, including the inhibition of phosphodiesterase, the reduction of intracellular calcium levels, the inhibition of thromboxane synthase, and the modulation of adenosine uptake. These actions make it a valuable medication for preventing thrombotic events in patients with a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman comes to her doctor for a review of her angina medication. She expresses worry about her condition and inquires about the cause of the narrowing of her coronary arteries.
What alteration takes place during the progression of atherosclerosis?Your Answer: Fatty infiltration of the subendothelial space
Explanation:The subendothelial space is where fatty infiltration takes place.
Foam cells are created by the ingestion of LDLs, not HDLs.
Infiltration does not occur in the tunica externa, but rather in the subendothelial space.
Smooth muscle proliferation occurs, not hypertrophy.
Endothelial dysfunction leads to a decrease in nitric oxide bioavailability.
Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications
Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.
Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of palpitations and dizziness. He has been experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea for the past week and has also been suffering from muscle weakness and cramps for the last three days. The possibility of hypokalaemia is suspected, and an ECG is ordered. What ECG sign is indicative of hypokalaemia?
Your Answer: Short PR interval
Correct Answer: Small or inverted T waves
Explanation:Hypokalaemia, a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood, can be detected through ECG features. These include the presence of U waves, small or absent T waves (which may occasionally be inverted), a prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and a long QT interval. The ECG image provided shows typical U waves and a borderline PR interval. To remember these features, one user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the average stroke volume in a resting 75 Kg man?
Your Answer: 125ml
Correct Answer: 70ml
Explanation:The range of stroke volumes is between 55 and 100 milliliters.
The stroke volume refers to the amount of blood that is pumped out of the ventricle during each cycle of cardiac contraction. This volume is usually the same for both ventricles and is approximately 70ml for a man weighing 70Kg. To calculate the stroke volume, the end systolic volume is subtracted from the end diastolic volume. Several factors can affect the stroke volume, including the size of the heart, its contractility, preload, and afterload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 10
Correct
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These thyroid function tests were obtained on a 55-year-old female who has recently been treated for hypertension:
Free T4 28.5 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.5)
Free T3 10.8 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)
She now presents with typical symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
Which medication is likely to have caused this?Your Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:Amiodarone and its Effects on Thyroid Function
Amiodarone is a medication that can have an impact on thyroid function, resulting in both hypo- and hyperthyroidism. This is due to the high iodine content in the drug, which contributes to its antiarrhythmic effects. Atenolol, on the other hand, is a beta blocker that is commonly used to treat thyrotoxicosis. Warfarin is another medication that is used to treat atrial fibrillation.
There are two types of thyrotoxicosis that can be caused by amiodarone. Type 1 results in excess thyroxine synthesis, while type 2 leads to the release of excess thyroxine but normal levels of synthesis. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor thyroid function in patients taking amiodarone and adjust treatment as necessary to prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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