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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 2-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her father, who reports that she has been unwell for a few weeks, refusing food and crying excessively. He mentions that she has lost weight and appears much paler than usual. Upon examination, a large mass is detected in the abdomen, crossing the midline.
A CT scan of the abdomen is scheduled after a urinalysis reveals elevated levels of homovanillic acid and vanillylmandelic acid. Based on the probable diagnosis, what is a common association?Your Answer: APC gene mutation
Correct Answer: N-MYC proto-oncogene
Explanation:Neuroblastoma is a malignant tumor that arises from sympathetic nervous tissue, with the adrenal glands being the most common primary site. It typically affects children under the age of 2 and can grow and spread rapidly, causing symptoms such as faltering growth, nausea and vomiting, and a palpable abdominal mass that often crosses the midline. Urinalysis can detect catecholamine derivatives, which can aid in diagnosis, and imaging is necessary to identify the site of origin.
Treatment depends on the tumor’s risk stratification, which is determined by staging and N-MYC status. Mutations in the N-MYC proto-oncogene are associated with a worse prognosis. APC gene mutations, which cause familial adenomatous polyposis and increase the risk of bowel cancer, are not linked to neuroblastoma. Similarly, the BRCA gene, which is implicated in breast and ovarian cancers, is not associated with neuroblastoma. Elevated calcitonin levels may indicate medullary thyroid cancer but are not associated with neuroblastoma. Elevated Ca-19-9 levels are seen in pancreatic or cholangiocarcinoma and are not associated with neuroblastoma.
Oncogenes are genes that promote cancer and are derived from normal genes called proto-oncogenes. Proto-oncogenes play a crucial role in cellular growth and differentiation. However, a gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer. Only one mutated copy of the gene is needed for cancer to occur, making it a dominant effect. Oncogenes are responsible for up to 20% of human cancers and can become oncogenes through mutation, chromosomal translocation, or increased protein expression.
In contrast, tumor suppressor genes restrict or repress cellular proliferation in normal cells. Their inactivation through mutation or germ line incorporation is implicated in various cancers, including renal, colonic, breast, and bladder cancer. Tumor suppressor genes, such as p53, offer protection by causing apoptosis of damaged cells. Other well-known genes include BRCA1 and BRCA2. Loss of function in tumor suppressor genes results in an increased risk of cancer, while gain of function in oncogenes increases the risk of cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Incorrect
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What is the characteristic finding on a blood film after a splenectomy?
Your Answer: Stipple cell
Correct Answer: Howell-Jolly bodies
Explanation:In cases of hyposplenism, the blood film may show the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies, Pappenheimer bodies, poikilocytes (specifically target cells), erythrocytes containing siderotic granules, and Heinz bodies.
Splenectomy and its Management
Splenectomy is a surgical procedure that involves the removal of the spleen. After the operation, patients are at a higher risk of infections caused by pneumococcus, Haemophilus, meningococcus, and Capnocytophaga canimorsus. To prevent these infections, patients should receive vaccinations such as Hib, meningitis A & C, annual influenzae, and pneumococcal vaccines. Antibiotic prophylaxis with penicillin V is also recommended for at least two years and until the patient is 16 years old, although some patients may require lifelong prophylaxis.
Splenectomy is indicated for various reasons such as trauma, spontaneous rupture, hypersplenism, malignancy, splenic cysts, hydatid cysts, and splenic abscesses. Elective splenectomy is different from emergency splenectomy, and it is usually performed laparoscopically. Complications of splenectomy include haemorrhage, pancreatic fistula, and thrombocytosis. Post-splenectomy changes include an increase in platelets, Howell-Jolly bodies, target cells, and Pappenheimer bodies. Patients are at an increased risk of post-splenectomy sepsis, which typically occurs with encapsulated organisms. Therefore, prophylactic antibiotics and pneumococcal vaccines are essential to prevent infections.
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- General Principles
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with several non-healing leg ulcers and a history of feeling unwell for several months. During examination, her blood pressure is 138/72 mmHg, pulse is 90 bpm, and she has pale conjunctivae and poor dentition with bleeding gums. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency
Correct Answer: Vitamin C deficiency
Explanation:If you have bleeding gums and slow healing, it may indicate a lack of vitamin C.
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid, is an essential nutrient found in various fruits and vegetables such as citrus fruits, tomatoes, potatoes, and leafy greens. When there is a deficiency of this vitamin, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. This deficiency can cause impaired collagen synthesis and disordered connective tissue as ascorbic acid is a cofactor for enzymes used in the production of proline and lysine. Scurvy is commonly associated with severe malnutrition, drug and alcohol abuse, and poverty with limited access to fruits and vegetables.
The symptoms and signs of scurvy include follicular hyperkeratosis and perifollicular haemorrhage, ecchymosis, easy bruising, poor wound healing, gingivitis with bleeding and receding gums, Sjogren’s syndrome, arthralgia, oedema, impaired wound healing, and generalised symptoms such as weakness, malaise, anorexia, and depression. It is important to consume a balanced diet that includes sources of vitamin C to prevent scurvy and maintain overall health.
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- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A couple in their early thirties visit the doctor's office as they have been attempting to conceive for the past year. They are currently 4 days pregnant without realizing it. At what stage is the fertilized tissue?
Your Answer: Embryoblast
Correct Answer: Morula
Explanation:When the sperm penetrates the secondary oocyte, it triggers a series of changes. Before this, the LH surge prompts the breakdown of the germinal vesicle that surrounds the enlarged nucleus, leading to the completion of meiosis and the formation of the first polar body. After fertilization, the pronuclei form, followed by zygote formation, rapid cleavage, compaction, and polarization.
Around day 5, the blastocyst is formed, and implantation typically occurs on days 5-6. On day 1, the fertilized egg (zygote) is produced, and by late day 1, it reaches the 2-cell stage. By early day 2, it is at the 4-cell stage, and by early day 3, it reaches the 8-cell stage. By late day 3, it has progressed to the 16-cell stage, and on day 4, the morula is formed. Finally, on day 5, the blastocyst is formed.
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from the moment of fertilization to birth. During the first week of embryonic development, the fertilized egg implants itself into the uterine wall. By the second week, the bilaminar disk is formed, consisting of two layers of cells. The primitive streak appears in the third week, marking the beginning of gastrulation and the formation of the notochord.
As the embryo enters its fourth week, limb buds begin to form, and the neural tube closes. The heart also begins to beat during this time. By week 10, the genitals are differentiated, and the embryo exhibits intermittent breathing movements. These early events in embryonic development are crucial for the formation of the body’s major organs and structures. Understanding the timeline of these events can provide insight into the complex process of human development.
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- General Principles
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Question 5
Correct
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A 20 year old intravenous drug abuser is recuperating after a surgical drainage of a psoas abscess. Suddenly, he is discovered collapsed in the restroom of the ward, unresponsive, and with pinpoint pupils. What is the best immediate course of action?
Your Answer: Intravenous naloxone
Explanation:To treat opiate overdose, the patient requires intravenous naloxone which has the fastest onset of action. However, it is crucial to note that naloxone has a short duration of action and may require additional administration. Additionally, there is a possibility of rebound pain following the administration of naloxone.
Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management
Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.
Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.
In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.
Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A researcher is investigating the function of regulatory proteins in intracellular trafficking. He has discovered several intracellular proteins marked with significant ubiquitination.
To which organelles are these proteins targeted?Your Answer: Rough endoplasmic reticulum
Correct Answer: Proteasome
Explanation:Proteins are marked with ubiquitin for degradation in both proteasomes and lysosomes.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
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- General Principles
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Question 7
Correct
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A 54-year-old dentist has been practicing for many years. Recently, she has started to observe that her hands are developing blisters and becoming weepy. After diagnosis, it is found that she has a latex allergy. What pathological process is responsible for this situation?
Your Answer: Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:ACID is an acronym for the four types of hypersensitivity reactions. These include type 1, which is anaphylactic; type 2, which is cytotoxic; type 3, which is immune complex; and type 4, which is delayed hypersensitivity. Unlike the other types, type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are cell mediated rather than antibody mediated. An example of this type of reaction is chronic contact dermatitis.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a car crash with significant injuries. To address his decreasing heart rate, the medical team administers adrenaline. Which set of receptors does adrenaline primarily act upon in this scenario?
Your Answer: α1
Correct Answer: β1
Explanation:The adrenoceptors, also known as adrenergic receptors, are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to catecholamines, particularly norepinephrine and epinephrine.
These receptors are present in various cells, and when a catecholamine binds to them, it typically activates the sympathetic nervous system. This system triggers the fight-or-flight response, which involves widening the pupils, accelerating the heart rate, releasing energy, and redirecting blood flow from non-essential organs to skeletal muscles. Adrenaline is used to enhance cardiac muscle function by targeting β1 adrenergic receptors.
Inotropes are drugs that primarily increase cardiac output and are different from vasoconstrictor drugs that are used for peripheral vasodilation. Catecholamine type agents are commonly used in inotropes and work by increasing cAMP levels through adenylate cyclase stimulation. This leads to intracellular calcium ion mobilisation and an increase in the force of contraction. Adrenaline works as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dopamine causes dopamine receptor-mediated renal and mesenteric vascular dilatation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses, resulting in increased cardiac output. Dobutamine is a predominantly beta 1 receptor agonist with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Noradrenaline is a catecholamine type agent and predominantly acts as an alpha receptor agonist and serves as a peripheral vasoconstrictor. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that acts specifically on the cardiac phosphodiesterase and increases cardiac output.
The cardiovascular receptor action of inotropes varies depending on the drug. Adrenaline and noradrenaline act on alpha and beta receptors, with adrenaline acting as a beta adrenergic receptor agonist at lower doses and an alpha receptor agonist at higher doses. Dobutamine acts predominantly on beta 1 receptors with weak beta 2 and alpha receptor agonist properties. Dopamine acts on dopamine receptors, causing renal and spleen vasodilation and beta 1 receptor agonism at higher doses. The minor receptor effects are shown in brackets. The effects of receptor binding include vasoconstriction for alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors, increased cardiac contractility and heart rate for beta-1 receptors, and vasodilation for beta-2 receptors. D-1 receptors cause renal and spleen vasodilation, while D-2 receptors inhibit the release of noradrenaline. Overall, inotropes are a class of drugs that increase cardiac output through various receptor actions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a risk factor for developing tuberculosis?
Your Answer: Haematological malignancy
Correct Answer: Amiodarone
Explanation:There are several factors that increase the risk of developing active tuberculosis, including having silicosis, chronic renal failure, being HIV positive, undergoing solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression, engaging in intravenous drug use, having a haematological malignancy, receiving anti-TNF treatment, or having undergone a previous gastrectomy.
Types of Tuberculosis
Tuberculosis (TB) is a disease caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis that primarily affects the lungs. There are two types of TB: primary and secondary. Primary TB occurs when a non-immune host is exposed to the bacteria and develops a small lung lesion called a Ghon focus. This focus is made up of macrophages containing tubercles and is accompanied by hilar lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. In immunocompetent individuals, the lesion usually heals through fibrosis. However, those who are immunocompromised may develop disseminated disease, also known as miliary tuberculosis.
Secondary TB, also called post-primary TB, occurs when the initial infection becomes reactivated in an immunocompromised host. Reactivation typically occurs in the apex of the lungs and can spread locally or to other parts of the body. Factors that can cause immunocompromise include immunosuppressive drugs, HIV, and malnutrition. While the lungs are still the most common site for secondary TB, it can also affect other areas such as the central nervous system, vertebral bodies, cervical lymph nodes, renal system, and gastrointestinal tract. Tuberculous meningitis is the most serious complication of extra-pulmonary TB. Understanding the differences between primary and secondary TB is crucial in diagnosing and treating the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old first-time pregnant woman visits the antenatal clinic and has researched dietary limitations during pregnancy. What foods should she refrain from consuming?
Your Answer: Cooked lobster
Correct Answer: Soft cheeses
Explanation:Pregnant women are advised to steer clear of soft cheeses as they have a higher risk of contracting Listeria infection. This infection is caused by Listeria monocytogenes, a gram-positive motile rod, which can be eliminated by cooking and pasteurisation. Therefore, consuming foods like raw/smoked meats and soft cheeses can lead to the transmission of this rare disease.
It is safe for pregnant women to consume packaged ice cream as it is usually pasteurised. However, ice cream made with unpasteurised milk or uncooked eggs may contain Salmonella.
Sea creatures like lobsters, swordfish, shrimp, and tuna are recommended for pregnant women as they are rich in iodine. Fetal hypothyroidism and impaired neurological development can occur due to iodine deficiency.
Understanding Listeria: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Listeria monocytogenes is a type of bacteria that can cause serious infections in certain individuals. This Gram-positive bacillus has the unique ability to multiply at low temperatures, making it a common contaminant in unpasteurized dairy products. Those at highest risk for infection include the elderly, neonates, and individuals with weakened immune systems, particularly those taking glucocorticoids. Pregnant women are also at increased risk, as Listeria can lead to miscarriage and other complications.
Symptoms of Listeria infection can vary widely, ranging from gastroenteritis and diarrhea to more serious conditions like bacteraemia, flu-like illness, and central nervous system infections. In severe cases, Listeria can cause meningoencephalitis, ataxia, and seizures. Diagnosis typically involves blood cultures and cerebrospinal fluid analysis, which may reveal pleocytosis, raised protein, and reduced glucose.
Fortunately, Listeria is sensitive to certain antibiotics, including amoxicillin and ampicillin. In cases of Listeria meningitis, treatment typically involves a combination of IV amoxicillin/ampicillin and gentamicin. Pregnant women who develop Listeria infections may require treatment with amoxicillin, as fetal/neonatal infection can occur both transplacentally and vertically during childbirth.
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- General Principles
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Question 11
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes to the emergency department following an unobserved fall. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation.
During his lying and standing blood pressure test, there is a 30mmHg decrease, indicating postural hypotension.
To increase his blood pressure, the emergency department administers an anti-hypotensive medication.
Which receptor does the drug act on?Your Answer: α1 adrenergic receptors
Explanation:The contraction of smooth muscle in blood vessels is controlled by α1 adrenergic receptors, which are responsible for vasoconstriction in peripheral blood vessels. α2 receptors, located on presynaptic nerves, regulate the release of neurotransmitters. β1 receptors in the heart increase inotropy and chronotropy, while β2 receptors in smooth muscle promote bronchodilation and vasodilation. β3 receptors in fat tissue stimulate lipolysis and thermogenesis.
Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
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- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast and ovarian cancer. Her mother and sister were also diagnosed with breast and ovarian cancer before the age of 40. She has no other medical history.
During examination, a lump was found in her left breast and palpable axillary lymph nodes.
Which investigation is the most appropriate to confirm the genetic diagnosis underlying this condition, from the options provided?Your Answer: PET scan
Correct Answer: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Explanation:Reverse Transcriptase PCR
Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is a molecular genetic technique used to amplify RNA. This technique is useful for analyzing gene expression in the form of mRNA. The process involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. The resulting DNA can then be amplified using PCR.
To begin the process, a sample of RNA is added to a test tube along with two DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq). The mixture is then heated to almost boiling point, causing denaturing or uncoiling of the RNA. The mixture is then allowed to cool, and the complimentary strands of DNA pair up. As there is an excess of the primer sequences, they preferentially pair with the DNA.
The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount of DNA doubling each time. This process allows for the amplification of the RNA, making it easier to analyze gene expression. RT-PCR is a valuable tool in molecular biology and has many applications in research, including the study of diseases and the development of new treatments.
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- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A study was conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of hip protectors in reducing femoral neck fractures among elderly patients residing in nursing homes with an average age of 83 years. 800 patients were randomly assigned to either the hip protector group or the standard care group over a two-year period.
The findings revealed that out of the 400 patients in the hip protector group, 10 experienced a femoral neck fracture during the two-year period. On the other hand, out of the 400 patients in the control group, 20 had a femoral neck fracture during the same period.
What is the absolute risk reduction?Your Answer: 0.05
Correct Answer: 0.025
Explanation:Numbers needed to treat (NNT) is a measure that determines how many patients need to receive a particular intervention to reduce the expected number of outcomes by one. To calculate NNT, you divide 1 by the absolute risk reduction (ARR) and round up to the nearest whole number. ARR can be calculated by finding the absolute difference between the control event rate (CER) and the experimental event rate (EER). There are two ways to calculate ARR, depending on whether the outcome of the study is desirable or undesirable. If the outcome is undesirable, then ARR equals CER minus EER. If the outcome is desirable, then ARR is equal to EER minus CER. It is important to note that ARR may also be referred to as absolute benefit increase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A young woman with a history of intravenous drug use presents to the emergency department with cellulitis of her arm. Upon admission, a blood culture is obtained and reveals the growth of a Gram-positive coccus that forms clusters. What molecular tests would be most beneficial in identifying this bacterium?
Your Answer: In vitro haemolysis
Correct Answer: Coagulase
Explanation:Staphylococcus species can be sub-grouped based on the presence of coagulase. The presence of coagulase determines the two most common groups of staphylococci. Staphylococcus aureus is a coagulase positive staphylococcus, while Staphylococcus epidermis is the most common coagulase negative staphylococcus.
Understanding Staphylococci: Common Bacteria with Different Types
Staphylococci are a type of bacteria that are commonly found in the human body. They are gram-positive cocci and are facultative anaerobes that produce catalase. While they are usually harmless, they can also cause invasive diseases. There are two main types of Staphylococci that are important to know: Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis.
Staphylococcus aureus is coagulase-positive and is known to cause skin infections such as cellulitis, abscesses, osteomyelitis, and toxic shock syndrome. On the other hand, Staphylococcus epidermidis is coagulase-negative and is often the cause of central line infections and infective endocarditis.
It is important to understand the different types of Staphylococci and their potential to cause disease in order to properly diagnose and treat infections. By identifying the type of Staphylococci present, healthcare professionals can determine the appropriate course of treatment and prevent the spread of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male arrives at the emergency department experiencing a sudden asthma attack. He is administered nebulised salbutamol to alleviate his breathing difficulties.
What is the most probable site of action for this medication?Your Answer: α2 adrenergic receptors
Correct Answer: Smooth muscle cells of the bronchi
Explanation:Salbutamol is a medication used for asthma and COPD that acts on beta 2 receptors in the smooth muscle cells of the airways, causing relaxation and lessening bronchoconstriction. Type 1 pneumocytes are responsible for gas exchange and are not affected by this medication. Anticholinergics can also be used for bronchodilation by acting on muscarinic receptors in the smooth muscle.
Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain, malaise, and visible jaundice. Upon taking his history, a junior doctor notes that the pain began after breakfast and has been worsening throughout the day. The patient's partner noticed his jaundice a few days ago, but he did not seek medical attention. The man has type II diabetes, which is well controlled with metformin, and he does not smoke. He drinks 16 units of alcohol per week and had unprotected sexual intercourse with a casual partner three days ago. He recently returned from a business trip to India, where he ate at a hotel and a client's home. One week ago, he experienced vomiting and diarrhea after eating undercooked chicken at a local restaurant. Based on this history, the junior doctor suspects hepatitis A. What aspect of the patient's history is most supportive of this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Type II diabetes
Correct Answer: Trip to India three weeks ago
Explanation:Hepatitis A typically has a 2-4 week incubation period and is usually a mild, self-limiting illness. Symptoms may include jaundice, abdominal pain, and tender hepatomegaly. The virus is spread through the faecal-oral route, making it important to obtain a detailed history going back several weeks. India is an endemic area for hepatitis A, and eating at a local’s house may increase the risk of exposure.
While contaminated shellfish is a common source of hepatitis A, it is unlikely to be transmitted through chicken in the UK. Unprotected sex is a risk factor for hepatitis B and C, but not for hepatitis A. Type II diabetes is associated with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, but not with an increased risk of viral hepatitis. Chronic hepatitis C infection may increase the risk of developing diabetes.
Although the patient’s alcohol consumption is slightly above the recommended limit of 14 units per week, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of viral hepatitis. However, it may be worth discussing reducing alcohol intake to promote overall liver health.
Understanding Hepatitis A: Symptoms, Transmission, and Prevention
Hepatitis A is a viral infection that affects the liver. It is usually a mild illness that resolves on its own, with serious complications being rare. The virus is transmitted through the faecal-oral route, often in institutions. The incubation period is typically 2-4 weeks, and symptoms include a flu-like prodrome, abdominal pain (usually in the right upper quadrant), tender hepatomegaly, jaundice, and deranged liver function tests.
While complications are rare, there is no increased risk of hepatocellular cancer. An effective vaccine is available, and it is recommended for people travelling to or residing in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, those with chronic liver disease, patients with haemophilia, men who have sex with men, injecting drug users, and individuals at occupational risk (such as laboratory workers, staff of large residential institutions, sewage workers, and people who work with primates).
It is important to note that the vaccine requires a booster dose 6-12 months after the initial dose. By understanding the symptoms, transmission, and prevention of hepatitis A, individuals can take steps to protect themselves and others from this viral infection.
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- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male visits his GP with a similar complaint. He reports grazing his leg while hiking in the hills. Despite cleaning the wound, he experiences inflammation and tenderness upon touch. Additionally, he has a fever and feels ill. Due to his penicillin allergy, you prescribe clarithromycin. What is the most precise explanation of this drug's mechanism of action?
Your Answer: Disruption of bacterial cell wall synthesis
Correct Answer: Inhibition of the 50s ribosome subunit
Explanation:Macrolides prevent the production of proteins by attaching to the 23S rRNA found in the 50S ribosomal subunit, which hinders translocation. Clarithromycin, a macrolide, obstructs protein synthesis by binding to the 50S subunit of the bacterial ribosome. Tetracyclines, on the other hand, inhibit the 30S subunit. Bacterial nucleic acid synthesis is disrupted by quinolones, sulfonamides, and trimethoprim. Penicillin and cephalosporins work by interfering with cell wall synthesis, while lincomycins prevent bacterial cell membrane synthesis.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man is attending a follow-up visit with his rheumatologist. He has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis for 8 years, experiencing stiffness in his hands and knees. He is currently receiving treatment with rituximab.
What is the mode of action of rituximab?Your Answer: HER-2 receptor antagonist monoclonal antibody
Correct Answer: Anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody
Explanation:Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20 proteins and is commonly used in the management of rheumatoid arthritis. This condition typically presents with joint pain and swelling, and rituximab helps to reduce inflammation by preventing the further cascade of the immune response. It is important to note that anti-TNF monoclonal antibody drugs, such as infliximab, are used in other conditions, and epidermal growth factor receptor antagonist and HER-2 receptor antagonist monoclonal antibody drugs are used in malignancies.
Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.
However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.
There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.
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- General Principles
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male visits his GP complaining of feeling unwell for the past 5 days. He reports experiencing fatigue, myalgia, fevers, and overall malaise. After examination, the doctor diagnoses him with influenzae. The patient expresses disbelief, stating that he received the flu vaccine last year and should be immune. What is the reason for the need for annual flu vaccinations?
Your Answer: Clonal population
Correct Answer: Antigenic drift
Explanation:The reason why an annual flu vaccine is necessary is because of the antigenic drift process. The influenzae virus has an enzyme called RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, which does not have the ability to proofread. As a result, errors accumulate during RNA replication, leading to a constantly evolving antigenic site that the immune response is less effective against. This is why the influenzae vaccine needs to be updated with new strains every year.
On the other hand, antigenic shift refers to a sudden and drastic change in one of the antigenic proteins, such as neuraminidase or haemagglutinin. This abrupt change creates a new subtype that the population has very little immunity against, potentially causing a pandemic.
Respiratory Pathogens and Associated Conditions
Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenzae virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with specific respiratory conditions, such as bronchiolitis, croup, common cold, flu, community-acquired pneumonia, acute epiglottitis, atypical pneumonia, and tuberculosis.
Flu-like symptoms are often the first sign of respiratory infections caused by these pathogens, followed by a dry cough. Complications may include haemolytic anaemia, erythema multiforme, lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests, and hyponatraemia. Patients with Pneumocystis jiroveci infections typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnoea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause a wide range of presentations, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease, and may be accompanied by cough, night sweats, and weight loss.
Overall, understanding the different respiratory pathogens and their associated conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment of respiratory infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a young patient in primary care who has a significant family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1. Although genetic testing has confirmed an abnormal genetic profile, the patient has not yet exhibited any clinical manifestations of the disease.
What is the genetic term used to describe conditions where the genotype is abnormal, but the phenotype remains normal?Your Answer: Mendelian inheritance
Correct Answer: Low penetrance
Explanation:When a condition has low genetic penetrance, it may not show many clinical signs or symptoms, and the patient may appear normal, despite having an abnormal genetic profile. This is because the severity of the phenotype is determined by the penetrance of the genotype. If the condition has high penetrance, the phenotype is more likely to be expressed, resulting in more signs and symptoms.
Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors
Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.
However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.
In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female presents to the ED with complaints of neck stiffness, photophobia, nausea, and vomiting. She is initiated on three antibiotics intravenously. However, her renal function has deteriorated since the start of antibiotics. Her eGFR has significantly dropped from 98 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m². Which antibiotic is the probable cause of this decline in renal function?
Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav
Correct Answer: Gentamicin
Explanation:Aminoglycosides have the potential to cause kidney damage.
Gentamicin, a powerful antibiotic belonging to the aminoglycoside class, is known to have serious adverse effects such as damage to the kidneys and ears. Therefore, before starting treatment with aminoglycosides, the patient’s kidney function is evaluated.
Cholestatic jaundice is a common side effect associated with the use of co-amoxiclav and flucloxacillin. Ceftriaxone can lead to the formation of deposits in the gallbladder.
Gentamicin is a type of antibiotic known as an aminoglycoside. It is not easily dissolved in lipids, so it is typically administered through injection or topical application. It is commonly used to treat infections such as infective endocarditis and otitis externa. However, gentamicin can have adverse effects on the body, such as ototoxicity, which can cause damage to the auditory or vestibular nerves. This damage is irreversible. Gentamicin can also cause nephrotoxicity, which can lead to acute tubular necrosis. The risk of toxicity increases when gentamicin is used in conjunction with furosemide. Lower doses and more frequent monitoring are necessary to prevent these adverse effects. Gentamicin is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis. To ensure safe dosing, plasma concentrations of gentamicin are monitored. Peak levels are measured one hour after administration, and trough levels are measured just before the next dose. If the trough level is high, the interval between doses should be increased. If the peak level is high, the dose should be decreased.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of fatigue. Upon conducting blood tests, it is revealed that the patient has a megaloblastic, macrocytic anaemia.
What is the most probable cause of the patient's anaemia?Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by Crohn’s disease, which is indicated by macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia. Malabsorption in cystic fibrosis can lead to various types of vitamin deficiency, particularly fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K due to reduced fat absorption caused by pancreatic insufficiency. Microcytic anaemia is a result of iron deficiency, while hypothyroidism can cause normoblastic, macrocytic anaemia.
Vitamin B12 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Unlike other vitamins, it can only be found in animal-based foods. The human body typically stores enough vitamin B12 to last for up to 5 years. This vitamin plays a crucial role in various bodily functions, including acting as a co-factor for the conversion of homocysteine into methionine through the enzyme homocysteine methyltransferase, as well as for the isomerization of methylmalonyl CoA to Succinyl Co A via the enzyme methylmalonyl mutase. Additionally, it is used to regenerate folic acid in the body.
However, there are several causes of vitamin B12 deficiency, including pernicious anaemia, Diphyllobothrium latum infection, and Crohn’s disease. When the body lacks vitamin B12, it can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anaemia and peripheral neuropathy. To prevent these consequences, it is important to ensure that the body has enough vitamin B12 through a balanced diet or supplements.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A scientist is exploring a potential new cytokine therapy for bacterial sepsis. During a bacterial infection, monocytes are seen to extravasate from blood vessels to the infection site and undergo a sequence of transformations to become a phagocytic cell that is crucial to the innate immune system response.
What is the cytokine responsible for activating these cells?Your Answer: Interferon beta (IFNβ)
Correct Answer: Interferon gamma (IFN-γ)
Explanation:The activation of macrophages is primarily attributed to interferon gamma (IFN-γ). Macrophages are specialized phagocytes in the innate immune system that are mainly derived from circulating monocytes.
IFN-γ is secreted by various immune cells, including CD4+ Th1 cells, CD8+ cytotoxic T cells, macrophages, mucosal epithelial cells, and natural killer (NK) cells. When the body is infected, IFN-γ, along with tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs), triggers the activation of macrophages. The activated macrophages are pro-inflammatory, bactericidal, and phagocytic. IFN-γ also promotes the differentiation of undifferentiated CD4+ cells into Th1 cells and enhances NK cell activity. Therapeutic IFN-γ 1b is used in the treatment of chronic granulomatous disease and osteopetrosis.
Interferon alpha (IFNα), produced by plasmacytoid dendritic cells, plays a crucial role in innate immunity against viruses.
Interferon beta (IFNβ), produced by fibroblasts, exhibits antiviral activity.
Interleukin-4 stimulates the proliferation of B and T cells while reducing the number of Th1 cells, macrophages, and IFN-γ.
Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
Correct
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A study measures a patient's blood pressure before and after a new antihypertensive medication has been administered. What type of significance test should be utilized to analyze the results?
Your Answer: Student's paired t-test
Explanation:Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A newborn is experiencing feeding difficulties, characterized by frequent choking and coughing during breastfeeding and bottle feeding. However, there are no signs of excessive drooling or cyanosis during feeding, and physical examination reveals clear lungs and a heart without adventitial sounds. No external facial deformities are apparent, but an examination of the oral cavity shows a bony gap extending from the hard to soft palate. A chest X-ray shows no abnormalities. What embryologic abnormality is responsible for this infant's feeding difficulties?
Your Answer: Hyperplasia of frontonasal process
Correct Answer: Failure of the two lateral palatine shelves to fuse
Explanation:Cleft palate occurs when the lateral palatine shelves or the lateral palatine shelves with the nasal septum do not fuse properly during embryonic development. This condition is not typically associated with genetic or chromosomal disorders and does not affect the appearance of the face. However, it can cause difficulties with feeding, including choking, coughing, aspiration, and poor weight gain in affected children. Other embryonic developmental errors can result in conditions such as cleft lip, tracheoesophageal fistula, and orbital hypertelorism.
Understanding Cleft Lip and Palate
Cleft lip and palate are common congenital deformities that affect approximately 1 in every 1,000 babies. They are often isolated developmental malformations, but they can also be a component of more than 200 birth defects. The most common variants are isolated cleft lip, isolated cleft palate, and combined cleft lip and palate.
The pathophysiology of cleft lip and palate involves polygenic inheritance, and maternal antiepileptic use can increase the risk. Cleft lip occurs when the fronto-nasal and maxillary processes fail to fuse, while cleft palate results from the failure of the palatine processes and the nasal septum to fuse.
Children with cleft lip and palate may experience problems with feeding and speech. Orthodontic devices can be helpful for feeding, and with speech therapy, 75% of children can develop normal speech. Cleft palate babies are at an increased risk of otitis media.
Management of cleft lip and palate involves repairing the cleft lip earlier than the cleft palate. The timing of repair varies, with some practices repairing the cleft lip in the first week of life and others waiting up to three months. Cleft palates are typically repaired between 6-12 months of age.
Overall, understanding cleft lip and palate is important for parents and healthcare professionals to provide appropriate management and support for affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A child who is a few months old has been diagnosed with Down syndrome. The geneticist has confirmed the presence of two genetically distinct cell populations in the body, 46,XY and 47,XY,+21. What mechanism led to the development of Down syndrome in this child?
Your Answer: Haploidy
Correct Answer: Mosaicism
Explanation:Mosaicism is when there are two different populations of cells with distinct genetic makeup in the body. It is a rare cause of Down’s syndrome. The most common cause of Down’s syndrome is non-disjunction, which occurs when chromosomes do not separate correctly during cell division, resulting in gametes with an extra or missing chromosome. Robertsonian translocation is a type of chromosomal rearrangement where the long arms of two chromosomes fuse to form a single chromosome with one centromere. This can result in an abnormal karyotype if there is additional genetic material. Non-penetrance is when a genetic trait is present in the genotype but does not manifest in the phenotype.
Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.
There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.
The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Sophie attends her follow-up clinic appointment after her successful liver transplant. Her current medications include paracetamol, loratadine, salbutamol inhaler, prednisolone and mycophenolate.
A urine dipstick performed in clinic shows the following:
Nitrites -
Leucocytes -
Glucose ++
Protein -
Blood -
Based on these results you decide to check her blood sugar levels, which is shown below.
Capillary blood glucose 9.2 mmol/L
Which of her medications is most likely responsible for her elevated blood sugar levels?Your Answer: Sodium cromoglicate eye drops
Correct Answer: Tacrolimus
Explanation:Tacrolimus: An Immunosuppressant for Transplant Rejection Prevention
Tacrolimus is an immunosuppressant drug that is commonly used to prevent transplant rejection. It belongs to the calcineurin inhibitor class of drugs and has a similar action to ciclosporin. The drug works by reducing the clonal proliferation of T cells by decreasing the release of IL-2. It binds to FKBP, forming a complex that inhibits calcineurin, a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells. This is different from ciclosporin, which binds to cyclophilin instead of FKBP.
Compared to ciclosporin, tacrolimus is more potent, resulting in a lower incidence of organ rejection. However, it is also associated with a higher risk of nephrotoxicity and impaired glucose tolerance. Despite these potential side effects, tacrolimus remains an important drug in preventing transplant rejection and improving the success of organ transplantation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old patient is brought into GP by her mother with concerns that she has not yet entered puberty. The patient reports experiencing bullying amongst her peers due to her appearance, short height, and recent weight gain despite eating very little. She also reports feeling low and no longer enjoying activities she used to like. The patient is worried about being the only girl in her class who has not yet experienced periods and the lack of breast development with widely spaced nipples.
During examination, the patient is found to have a webbed neck and a high-arched palate. The patient is referred to a paediatrician who then refers her to the genetics team. As part of their assessment, the genetics team orders a karyotype.
What results would be expected from the karyotype given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Trisomy 13
Correct Answer: 45,X0
Explanation:This patient’s clinical presentation is consistent with Turner syndrome, which is typically caused by a karyotype of 45,XO. Symptoms may include short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck, and high-arched palate. Patients with Turner syndrome are also at higher risk for hypothyroidism, which can cause weight gain, lethargy, and depressive symptoms. Down syndrome (trisomy 21) and Edwards’ syndrome (trisomy 18) have distinct clinical features that differ from those seen in Turner syndrome. Klinefelter syndrome is not relevant to this patient’s presentation.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 29
Incorrect
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As a young doctor in orthopaedics, you come across a patient who recently had a hemiarthroplasty for a broken hip. However, after 3 days, they have developed a bacterial infection at the surgical site. You start to ponder about the patient's immune system response to the bacteria causing the infection.
What immune-mediated mechanisms would be taking place to aid the patient in combating this infection?Your Answer: Neutrophils would coordinate the destruction of any parasites which may be present
Correct Answer: IgG would enhance phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses
Explanation:IgG is the correct answer for enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 4-month old infant is rushed to the Emergency Department by his parents due to difficulty breathing and a blue tint to his face and lips. The parents report that the baby has been experiencing mild cold symptoms for the past 10 days, but his condition has worsened over the last 24 hours. They mention that he has been vomiting after bouts of paroxysmal coughing and had an episode of apnea while sleeping just before they brought him to the hospital. When asked, the mother admits to not receiving all recommended vaccinations during pregnancy. The baby is admitted and started on antibiotics while serology tests are ordered to confirm the diagnosis. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for this infection?
Your Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Correct Answer: Bordetella pertussis
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting typical symptoms of whooping cough, which is caused by Bordetella pertussis. After going through the catarrhal stage, the patient has entered the paroxysmal phase, which is characterized by paroxysmal coughing and vomiting. This pattern of symptoms is unique to pertussis and distinguishes it from other bacterial infections. While children are vaccinated against whooping cough, infants rely on their mother’s vaccination during pregnancy, which this mother did not receive. Severe cases of whooping cough can also lead to episodes of cyanosis and apnea, as seen in this patient.
The patient’s symptoms are not consistent with the common cold, which typically resolves within a week and does not include apnea or cyanosis. Additionally, the use of antibiotics rules out an influenzae virus infection, as viruses do not respond to antibiotics. Streptococcus pyogenes, a common cause of acute pharyngitis in children, presents with fever, sore throat, and swollen lymph nodes, but not coughing.
Diphtheria is now rare in the UK due to vaccination, but it typically presents with fever, sore throat, difficulty breathing, nasal discharge, and a pseudomembrane on the pharyngeal tonsils.
Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences
Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.
Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.
On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.
Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.
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- General Principles
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Question 31
Correct
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A 26-year-old male patient complains of malaise, weight loss, and lymphadenopathy. After a lymph node biopsy, the histology report reveals the presence of granuloma formation and central necrosis. What could be the probable underlying cause?
Your Answer: Infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:In TB, the presence of necrosis within granulomas is a common histological feature that suggests an infectious cause. On the other hand, Churg Strauss syndrome is a type of vasculitis that typically shows granulomas in its histological presentation, but necrosis is not commonly observed.
Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.
Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about research variables is accurate?
Your Answer: Dependent variables are affected by all other variables in a study
Correct Answer: Changes in a dependent variable may result from changes in the independent variable
Explanation:Understanding Variables in Research
Variables are characteristics, numbers, or quantities that can be measured or counted. They are also known as data items and can vary between data units in a population. Examples of variables include age, sex, income, expenses, and grades. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled.
The independent variable is the one that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment.
Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables. For instance, in a weight loss medication study, the dosage of the medication is the independent variable, while the weight of the participants is the dependent variable. The researcher splits the participants into three groups, with each group receiving a different dosage of the medication. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured.
Understanding variables is crucial in research as it helps researchers to identify the factors that influence the outcome of their studies. By manipulating the independent variable, researchers can observe how it affects the dependent variable. Controlled variables help to ensure that the results are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 33
Correct
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A patient with Gaucher disease at the age of 50 is recommended enzyme replacement therapy using intravenous taliglucerase alfa. During the process, the Golgi apparatus adds a specific molecule to the enzyme to mark it for transportation to the lysosome where it can perform its function.
What is the name of the molecule that is added to the enzyme for tagging it to the lysosome?Your Answer: Mannose 6-phosphate
Explanation:Mannose-6-phosphate is added by Golgi to proteins to facilitate their transport to lysosomes.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
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Question 34
Correct
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A 32-year-old male presents to the GP with complaints of haemoptysis. He reports experiencing night sweats and has recently returned from a trip to India. The GP suspects tuberculosis and refers him to a respiratory specialist. What is the primary cytokine responsible for macrophage activation?
Your Answer: Interferon-γ
Explanation:Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
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- General Principles
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old male presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of fever and cough. He denies any tobacco or alcohol use. Vital signs are significant for a temperature of 39.2ºC (102.6ºF), blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg, pulse of 104/min, and respirations of 20/min. Physical exam is negative for pharyngeal erythema or cervical lymphadenopathy, but lung auscultation reveals crackles in the right lower lung field. A chest x-ray shows diffuse patchy interstitial inflammation on the right side. The patient is diagnosed with community-acquired pneumonia and sputum analysis confirms Mycoplasma pneumonia infection. He is started on first-line antibiotic therapy, but after 5 days of treatment, his fever and cough persist.
What could be a possible reason for the patient's lack of improvement despite antibiotic treatment?Your Answer: Mutation of the gene for DNA gyrase
Correct Answer: Methylation of the 23S ribosomal RNA
Explanation:Macrolides are rendered less effective in resistant bacteria due to methylation of the 23S ribosomal RNA, which diminishes their binding to the prokaryotic 50S ribosome and blocks the translocation step of protein synthesis. This results in the inability of pathogens to grow and divide, making the effect of macrolides bacteriostatic. Vancomycin resistance arises in bacteria that alter the terminal of the side chains from D-alanine-D-alanine to D-alanine-D-lactate. Fluoroquinolones inhibit DNA gyrase, and mutations in the gene for this enzyme create resistance. Bacterial production of B-lactamases, which cleave the drugs, is a common mechanism of resistance to penicillin and other B-lactam antibiotics. Tetracycline resistance occurs via plasmid-encoded transport pumps that increase efflux of the bacteria.
Antibiotic Resistance Mechanisms
Antibiotics are drugs that are used to treat bacterial infections. However, over time, bacteria have developed mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics. These mechanisms vary depending on the type of antibiotic being used.
For example, penicillins are often rendered ineffective by bacterial penicillinase, an enzyme that cleaves the β-lactam ring in the antibiotic. Cephalosporins, another type of antibiotic, can become ineffective due to changes in the penicillin-binding-proteins (PBPs) that they target. Macrolides, on the other hand, can be resisted by bacteria that have undergone post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
Fluoroquinolones can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations to DNA gyrase or efflux pumps that reduce the concentration of the antibiotic within the cell. Tetracyclines can be resisted by bacteria that have increased efflux through plasmid-encoded transport pumps or ribosomal protection. Aminoglycosides can be resisted by bacteria that have plasmid-encoded genes for acetyltransferases, adenylyltransferase, and phosphotransferases.
Sulfonamides can be resisted by bacteria that increase the synthesis of PABA or have mutations in the gene encoding dihydropteroate synthetase. Vancomycin can be resisted by bacteria that have altered the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits to which the antibiotic binds. Rifampicin can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations altering residues of the rifampicin binding site on RNA polymerase. Finally, isoniazid and pyrazinamide can be resisted by bacteria that have mutations in the katG and pncA genes, respectively, which reduce the ability of the catalase-peroxidase to activate the pro-drug.
In summary, bacteria have developed various mechanisms to resist the effects of antibiotics, making it increasingly difficult to treat bacterial infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman, who was seen 2 weeks ago, has returned with difficulty in having a bowel movement. She has never experienced this before and last had a bowel movement 2 days ago. Her symptoms have persisted for the past 10 days, and she has not made any recent changes to her diet. Her blood test results from this morning are normal, and her results from last week are as follows:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 100 g/l
- Platelets: 250 * 109/l
- White blood cells (WBC): 5 * 109/l
- Mean corpuscular volume (MCV): 77 fL
- Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC) increased
What is the most probable reason for her condition?Your Answer: Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Ferrous fumarate
Explanation:It is likely that the patient was diagnosed with iron deficiency anaemia two weeks ago due to symptoms of tiredness and lethargy. The most common cause of anaemia in a woman of this age is menorrhagia. Treatment for this type of anaemia typically involves iron supplementation with ferrous fumarate, which can cause constipation and black tarry stools as a side effect. It is important to note that constipation is not a symptom of anaemia itself.
There have been no recent changes to the patient’s diet, so reduced fluid intake is an incorrect answer. However, increasing fluid and fibre intake is a recommended conservative management approach.
Co-codamol and amitriptyline are known to cause constipation, but they are not indicated for this patient and therefore are not relevant to her current condition.
Iron Metabolism: Absorption, Distribution, Transport, Storage, and Excretion
Iron is an essential mineral that plays a crucial role in various physiological processes. The absorption of iron occurs mainly in the upper small intestine, particularly the duodenum. Only about 10% of dietary iron is absorbed, and ferrous iron (Fe2+) is much better absorbed than ferric iron (Fe3+). The absorption of iron is regulated according to the body’s need and can be increased by vitamin C and gastric acid. However, it can be decreased by proton pump inhibitors, tetracycline, gastric achlorhydria, and tannin found in tea.
The total body iron is approximately 4g, with 70% of it being present in hemoglobin, 25% in ferritin and haemosiderin, 4% in myoglobin, and 0.1% in plasma iron. Iron is transported in the plasma as Fe3+ bound to transferrin. It is stored in tissues as ferritin, and the lost iron is excreted via the intestinal tract following desquamation.
In summary, iron metabolism involves the absorption, distribution, transport, storage, and excretion of iron in the body. Understanding these processes is crucial in maintaining iron homeostasis and preventing iron-related disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A child was born prematurely at 34 weeks gestation with no labor complications. 24 hours after birth, the child seems lethargic and refuses to eat. The temperature is 38.2 ºC. The blood and cerebrospinal fluid cultures are negative, but the urine culture is positive for gram-negative rods. There are no other children in the hospital with similar symptoms. What is the most probable organism responsible for this infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Escherichia coli
Explanation:Escherichia coli is a gram-negative rod and is frequently implicated in neonatal infections, with urine cultures being the most common method of detection.
Staphylococcus aureus, a gram-positive cocci, does not align with the results of the urine culture.
While group B streptococci, particularly Streptococcus agalactiae, are often responsible for postpartum neonatal infections, they stain as gram-positive.
Listeria monocytogenes, a gram-positive anaerobe, also contradicts the findings of the urine culture.
Answer 5 needs to be revised.
Escherichia coli: A Common Gut Commensal with Various Disease Manifestations
Escherichia coli is a type of Gram-negative rod that is commonly found in the gut as a normal commensal. It is a facultative anaerobe and can ferment lactose. However, E. coli infections can lead to various diseases in humans, including diarrhoeal illnesses, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and neonatal meningitis. The classification of E. coli is based on the antigens that can trigger an immune response. These antigens include the lipopolysaccharide layer (O), capsule (K), and flagellin (H). For instance, neonatal meningitis caused by E. coli is usually due to a serotype that contains the capsular antigen K-1.
One particular strain of E. coli, O157:H7, is associated with severe, haemorrhagic, watery diarrhoea. It has a high mortality rate and can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This strain is often transmitted through contaminated ground beef. Despite being a common gut commensal, E. coli can cause various diseases that can be life-threatening. Therefore, proper hygiene and food safety practices are essential in preventing E. coli infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 38
Incorrect
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Cohen's kappa coefficient is utilized for measuring what?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inter-rater reliability
Explanation:Understanding the Kappa Statistic for Measuring Interobserver Variation
The Kappa statistic, also known as Cohen’s kappa coefficient, is a tool used to measure the level of agreement between two or more independent observers who are evaluating the same thing. This measure is particularly useful in situations where interobserver variation needs to be quantified, such as in medical research or clinical trials.
The Kappa statistic can range from 0 to 1, with 0 indicating complete disagreement between observers and 1 indicating perfect agreement. This means that the closer the Kappa value is to 1, the more reliable the observations are. On the other hand, a Kappa value closer to 0 indicates that the observers have very different opinions or interpretations of the same thing.
By using the Kappa statistic, researchers and clinicians can better understand the level of agreement between observers and make more informed decisions based on the results. It is important to note that the Kappa statistic is not a measure of the accuracy of the observations, but rather a measure of the level of agreement between observers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old boy presents to his doctor with a history of frequent infections. Upon further investigation, it is discovered that he has an immune deficiency where B cells are capable of expressing all types of immunoglobulins, but are unable to secrete one form in either monomer or dimer form. Which specific class of immunoglobulin is involved in this patient's condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgA
Explanation:While all five classes of immunoglobulin can act as monomers, IgA and IgM are secreted as dimers and pentamers, respectively. It is important to note that IgA can be produced as both a monomer and a dimer, with the dimer form being the most common. Selective IgA deficiency is a common condition where B cells are unable to fully develop into IgA-secreting plasma cells, leading to symptoms such as recurrent infections and allergies. IgE functions solely as a monomer, while IgM can be produced as both a monomer and a pentamer composed of five monomers. IgD also functions as a monomer.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents to the neurologist with a complaint of progressive gait disturbance over the past few months. He has no significant medical history and has not seen a healthcare professional in many years due to his busy schedule. He reports a painless lesion on his penile shaft that resolved spontaneously many years ago. His family history is unremarkable, and he travels frequently for business, consuming two glasses of wine per week. He maintains a balanced diet.
During the examination, the patient exhibits a slamming of his feet onto the ground while walking. There is no dysdiadochokinesis, past-pointing, or nystagmus. His peripheral sensation is intact, and his motor function is normal. Upon examination of his cranial nerves, the neurologist notes small pupils that do not respond to light but contract normally to accommodation and convergence.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and which anatomic location's lesions are contributing to his gait disturbance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsal column of the spinal cord
Explanation:Tabes dorsalis is a manifestation of tertiary syphilis that results in the degeneration of dorsal column fibers. This patient exhibits two key features of the disease, including a sensory ataxic gait (also known as a stomping gait) and Argyll-Robertson pupils, which are bilaterally small and reactive but do not accommodate. A diagnosis of tertiary syphilis can be confirmed by testing the spinal fluid with VDRL or RPR.
While lesions of the cerebellar vermis can also cause gait ataxia, it typically presents as a truncal ataxia rather than a stomping gait. Additionally, the pupillary findings make neurosyphilis more likely.
A lesion of the lateral corticospinal tract would result in suboptimal motor function on neurological examination, and Argyll-Robertson pupils would not be consistent with this answer.
Destruction of the anterior white commissure of the spinothalamic tract is seen in syringomyelia, which presents with bilateral loss of pain and temperature rather than gait disturbance.
Although a disturbance of the vestibulocochlear nerve can result in gait unsteadiness, a stomping gait would not be the typical manifestation, and the pupillary findings make this answer less likely.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with an incubation period of 9-90 days. The primary stage is characterized by a painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact, along with local lymphadenopathy. Women may not always exhibit visible symptoms. The secondary stage occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection and presents with systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy, as well as a rash on the trunk, palms, and soles. Other symptoms may include buccal ulcers and genital warts. Tertiary syphilis can lead to granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones, ascending aortic aneurysms, general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil. Congenital syphilis can cause blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old college student visits her doctor complaining of a sore throat, accompanied by a high fever and fatigue that has persisted for three weeks. During the examination, the doctor notes swollen cervical lymph nodes and confirms the presence of infectious mononucleosis through an antibody test. What is the specific cell surface protein that the Epstein-Barr virus attaches to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CD21
Explanation:Cell Surface Proteins and Their Functions
Cell surface proteins play a crucial role in identifying and distinguishing different types of cells. The table above lists the most common cell surface markers associated with particular cell types, such as CD34 for haematopoietic stem cells and CD19 for B cells. Meanwhile, the table below describes the major clusters of differentiation (CD) molecules and their functions. For instance, CD3 is the signalling component of the T cell receptor (TCR) complex, while CD4 is a co-receptor for MHC class II and is used by HIV to enter T cells. CD56, on the other hand, is a unique marker for natural killer cells, while CD95 acts as the FAS receptor and is involved in apoptosis.
Understanding the functions of these cell surface proteins is crucial in various fields, such as immunology and cancer research. By identifying and targeting specific cell surface markers, researchers can develop more effective treatments for diseases and disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy, Max, is brought to the pediatrician by his father who is worried about his son's health over the past 3 days. The father reports that Max has been experiencing a loss of appetite, complaining of joint pain and headaches, and is generally not his usual self. Despite his love for school, Max seems content with staying home as he has been playing with his new puppy and has a few scratches. What is the probable pathogen responsible for Max's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bartonella henselae
Explanation:Bartonella henselae bacteria can be carried asymptomatically on the claws of cats and transmitted to humans through scratches.
Falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium falciparum and typically presents with fluctuating temperatures, headache, arthralgia, and sweating. A history of exposure to mosquito bites in a malaria endemic area is also common.
Brucellosis is caused by Brucella melitensis, a bacteria found in unpasteurized milk. Symptoms include transient arthralgia and a history of exposure to contaminated milk, cheese, or meat.
Understanding Cat Scratch Disease
Cat scratch disease is a condition that is typically caused by a type of bacteria known as Bartonella henselae, which is a Gram-negative rod. The disease is characterized by several features, including fever, a history of being scratched by a cat, regional lymphadenopathy, headache, and malaise.
Individuals who have been scratched by a cat may develop this disease, which can cause a range of symptoms that can be uncomfortable and disruptive. The fever and malaise can make it difficult to carry out daily activities, while the regional lymphadenopathy can cause swelling and discomfort in the lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old African lady has an open appendicectomy. She returns for a follow-up appointment 10 months later and upon abdominal inspection, a shiny dark protuberant scar tissue is observed covering the wound site, projecting beyond the skin incision. What is the most probable underlying process?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Keloid scar
Explanation:Keloid scars surpass the boundaries of the initial cut.
The Stages of Wound Healing and Common Problems with Scars
Wound healing is a complex process that involves several stages, including haemostasis, inflammation, regeneration, and remodeling. During haemostasis, the body forms a clot to stop bleeding. Inflammation occurs next, where immune cells migrate to the wound and release growth factors to stimulate the production of new tissue. Regeneration involves the formation of new blood vessels and the production of collagen to rebuild the damaged tissue. Finally, during remodeling, the body remodels the new tissue to form a scar.
However, several factors can affect the wound healing process, including vascular disease, shock, sepsis, and jaundice. Additionally, some scars may develop problems, such as hypertrophic scars, which contain excessive amounts of collagen within the scar and may develop contractures. Keloid scars are another type of problematic scar that extends beyond the boundaries of the original injury and does not regress over time.
Several drugs can also impair wound healing, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, steroids, immunosuppressive agents, and anti-neoplastic drugs. Closure of the wound can occur through delayed primary closure or secondary closure, depending on the timing of the closure and the presence of granulation tissue.
In summary, wound healing is a complex process that involves several stages, and several factors can affect the process and lead to problematic scars. Understanding the stages of wound healing and common problems with scars can help healthcare professionals provide better care for patients with wounds.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 44
Incorrect
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An 88-year-old woman has presented to the GP for a review of her type 2 diabetes. She has gained weight since starting dapagliflozin, and her BMI is now 53 kg/m². During the consultation, she mentions experiencing 'skin issues' on her leg. Upon examination, a 5cm diameter area of erythematous skin is visible on her shin. This area contains multiple small blisters and is warm and painful. What is the most probable organism responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gram positive cocci
Explanation:The most common causative organisms in cellulitis are Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes, both of which are gram positive cocci. The patient’s clinical presentation is likely due to cellulitis, which is exacerbated by their obesity and immunodeficiency from diabetes.
Treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis typically involves flucloxacillin, while patients allergic to penicillin may be given clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline. Severe cellulitis may require co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone.
Examples of gram-negative bacilli include E. coli, Salmonella, Klebsiella, and Campylobacter. E. coli can cause severe food poisoning via ingestion of uncooked meat, while Salmonella is transmitted through contaminated food. Klebsiella pneumonia can cause pneumonia in alcoholics, while Campylobacter is the most common cause of food poisoning in the UK.
Double-stranded DNA viruses include HSV, VZV, adenovirus, and HPV. HSV-1 and HSV-2 cause oral and genital herpes, respectively, while VZV causes chickenpox. Adenovirus typically causes respiratory tract infections, and HPV is the leading cause of cervical cancer.
Gram-negative cocci include Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Neisseria meningitidis causes meningococcal disease, Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhoeae, and Moraxella catarrhalis causes respiratory tract infections.
Double-stranded RNA viruses include rotavirus and coltivirus. Rotavirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children, while coltivirus causes colorado tick fever.
Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a common skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylococcus aureus. It is characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues, usually on the shins, accompanied by erythema, pain, swelling, and sometimes fever. The diagnosis of cellulitis is based on clinical features, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, bloods and blood cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted and septicaemia is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using the Eron classification. Patients with Eron Class III or Class IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, very young or frail patients, immunocompromised patients, patients with significant lymphoedema, or facial or periorbital cellulitis (unless very mild) should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if the facilities and expertise are available in the community to give intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild/moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline is recommended for patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 9-week-old infant is brought to the emergency department unresponsive by her parents. The child has reportedly been drowsy and refusing feeds for the last 24 hours before becoming completely limp. On further questioning, the parents admit to giving the child honey in the preceding days.
On examination, the child appears drowsy and has globally reduced tone with no spontaneous movements noted. There is shallow breathing with vesicular breath sounds and no murmurs. A diagnosis of botulism is suspected.
Which neurotransmitter release is inhibited by the likely toxin?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acetylcholine
Explanation:The correct answer is acetylcholine. The symptoms presented by the child are consistent with botulism, also known as ‘floppy baby syndrome’, which is a neurological condition caused by the ingestion of preformed spores of Clostridium botulinum. Botulism can cause hypotonia in infants and may result in respiratory failure if left untreated.
It is important to note that botulinum toxin does not inhibit GABA, glutamate, or glycine release. Tetanospasmin, the tetanus toxin, inhibits GABA and glycine release from Renshaw cells, causing trismus and opisthotonus. Glutamate is an excitatory neurotransmitter that may be dysregulated in seizure activity.
Exotoxins vs Endotoxins: Understanding the Differences
Exotoxins and endotoxins are two types of toxins produced by bacteria. Exotoxins are secreted by bacteria, while endotoxins are only released when the bacterial cell is lysed. Exotoxins are typically produced by Gram-positive bacteria, with some exceptions like Vibrio cholerae and certain strains of E. coli.
Exotoxins can be classified based on their primary effects, which include pyrogenic toxins, enterotoxins, neurotoxins, tissue invasive toxins, and miscellaneous toxins. Pyrogenic toxins stimulate the release of cytokines, resulting in fever and rash. Enterotoxins act on the gastrointestinal tract, causing either diarrheal or vomiting illness. Neurotoxins act on the nerves or neuromuscular junction, causing paralysis. Tissue invasive toxins cause damage to tissues, while miscellaneous toxins have various effects.
On the other hand, endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides that are released from Gram-negative bacteria like Neisseria meningitidis. These toxins can cause fever, sepsis, and shock. Unlike exotoxins, endotoxins are not actively secreted by bacteria but are instead released when the bacterial cell is lysed.
Understanding the differences between exotoxins and endotoxins is important in diagnosing and treating bacterial infections. While exotoxins can be targeted with specific treatments like antitoxins, endotoxins are more difficult to treat and often require supportive care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A juvenile with cystic fibrosis also experiences malabsorption. What are some potential conditions and outcomes for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin A deficiency and night blindness
Explanation:Patients with cystic fibrosis experience a decrease in lipase secretion due to impaired pancreatic exocrine function, leading to inadequate absorption of fat-soluble vitamins such as A, D, E, and K. One of the symptoms of vitamin A deficiency is night blindness. However, this scenario would not cause vitamin B12 deficiency or excess vitamin A. Vitamin D deficiency can result in osteomalacia, while vitamin K deficiency can lead to coagulopathy.
Vitamin A, also known as retinol, is a type of fat soluble vitamin that plays several important roles in the body. One of its key functions is being converted into retinal, which is a crucial visual pigment. Additionally, vitamin A is essential for proper epithelial cell differentiation and acts as an antioxidant to protect cells from damage.
When the body lacks sufficient vitamin A, it can lead to a condition known as night blindness. This is because retinal is necessary for the eyes to adjust to low light conditions, and a deficiency can impair this process. Therefore, it is important to ensure adequate intake of vitamin A through a balanced diet or supplements to maintain optimal health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of continuous dizziness and headache. The laboratory is requested to perform a full blood count and other tests. Upon manual examination of the specimen, the biochemist observes increased levels of haemoglobin with a normal appearance, indicating polycythemia. What characteristic of this protein suggests that it possesses quaternary structure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It comprises multiple polypeptide chains
Explanation:A protein with a quaternary structure is haemoglobin, which is composed of multiple polypeptide subunits. While some quaternary proteins contain inorganic subgroups, others do not. Haemoglobin has four subunits, but the number of subunits in other quaternary proteins may vary. It is not exclusive to quaternary proteins to experience loss of function when a subunit changes. The size of a protein is not a determining factor in its structure.
Proteins and Peptides: Structure and Function
Proteins and peptides are essential molecules in the human body, made up of 20 amino acids bonded together by peptide bonds. Peptides are short chains of amino acids, while proteins are longer chains of 100 or more amino acids with more complex structures. The process of protein synthesis begins in the nucleus, where DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA, which is then translated by transfer RNA on cell ribosomes. The resulting protein folds into its destined structure, with primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary modifications.
The primary structure of a protein refers to the order of amino acids in the basic chain, while the secondary structure refers to the spatial arrangement of the primary structure. The tertiary structure is formed from structural changes and influences the protein’s role, while the quaternary structure is formed from multiple proteins to make a functional protein. The function of a protein is governed by its structure, with globular proteins having a wide range of roles, including enzymes.
Enzymes have an active site with a structure specific for one substrate, and when substrate and enzyme meet, they temporarily bond to form the enzyme-substrate complex. The substrate undergoes a biochemical change facilitated by the enzyme, resulting in the breakdown of the complex. Proteins also have structural roles, forming structures within the body such as keratin and collagen, and key roles in cell signaling and homeostasis, acting as mediators of transmembrane transport, cell receptors, and cell signaling. The endocrine system is an example of this, where hormones bind to cell surface receptors, triggering a cascade of protein interactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man is hospitalized due to heart failure and is given IV furosemide. What is the percentage of bioavailability for intravenous administration of furosemide?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100%
Explanation:A drug administered through an intravenous route has
Bioavailability refers to the amount of a drug that enters the bloodstream after it is ingested. This means that an intravenous (IV) drug has 100% bioavailability since it is directly administered into the bloodstream. The bioavailability of a drug can be affected by various factors such as the speed at which the stomach empties, the acidity of the stomach, the way the liver metabolizes the drug, the specific formulation of the drug, and how susceptible the drug is to hydrolysis. However, it is important to note that renal function does not have an impact on bioavailability.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old girl arrives at the emergency department complaining of difficulty breathing, facial swelling, and a rash that appeared after consuming a curry. An anaphylactic reaction is suspected, and IM adrenaline is administered.
On which class of receptors does this medication act?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: G-protein coupled receptors
Explanation:Adrenaline exerts its effects through G protein-coupled receptors, which are responsible for slow transmission and metabolic processes. The adrenergic (sympathetic) receptors that are activated by G proteins include alpha, beta-1, and beta-2 receptors. Alpha-receptors, found in arteries, cause arterial constriction when stimulated by adrenaline, leading to an increase in blood pressure. Beta-1 receptors, located in the heart, increase heart rate and contractility when stimulated. Beta-2 receptors, found in the bronchioles of the lungs, promote bronchodilation when stimulated.
In the case of anaphylaxis treatment, adrenaline acts on alpha, beta-1, and beta-2 receptors, which helps to reverse the peripheral vasodilation and angioedema seen in anaphylaxis by increasing blood pressure, heart rate, and contractility. Additionally, it reverses bronchoconstriction.
On the other hand, ligand-gated ion channel receptors are associated with fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors.
Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.
Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).
The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of excessive thirst and frequent urination. He has no medical history and is not on any medications. He is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol.
His HbA1c level is 50 mmol/mol (<48). Despite attempting to manage his condition through diet and exercise, his HbA1c level remains unchanged.
What is the probable mechanism of action of the medication that will likely be prescribed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Activation of AMP-activated protein kinase (AMPK)
Explanation:Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin does not cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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