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  • Question 1 - A 14-year-old girl visits the doctor with her father. She has been skipping...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl visits the doctor with her father. She has been skipping dance practice for the past few weeks and avoiding social events. This is unusual for her, as she was previously very active in her dance group and enjoyed spending time with her friends.
      What is the recommended treatment for social anxiety in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Group or individual cognitive behavioural therapy

      Explanation:

      Effective Treatments for Social Anxiety in Children

      When it comes to treating social anxiety in children, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) is the recommended approach. It may also be helpful to involve parents or carers in the therapy process, especially for younger children. However, medication such as fluoxetine or sertraline is not advised for children with social anxiety. Mindfulness-based interventions are also not recommended as the initial treatment, as CBT should be prioritized based on the child’s cognitive and emotional maturity. It’s important to note that over-the-counter remedies like St John’s wort should also be avoided. By following these guidelines, children with social anxiety can receive effective treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - What does the term bouton terminaux refer to in an axodendritic chemical synapse?...

    Correct

    • What does the term bouton terminaux refer to in an axodendritic chemical synapse?

      Your Answer: The synaptic terminal of the presynaptic axon

      Explanation:

      Bouton Terminaux: The Synaptic Terminal of the Presynaptic Axon

      A bouton terminaux, also known as a terminal button or end bulb, is a bulge found at the end of a synaptic projection, which can be either an axon or a dendrite. This structure is responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft, allowing for communication between neurons. It is important to note that the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell in the context of a synapse.

      It is essential to differentiate the bouton terminaux from other structures involved in synaptic transmission. For instance, synaptic vesicles are membrane-bound packages containing neurotransmitters, but they are not the same as the bouton terminaux. Similarly, axon varicosities are small swellings along the length of an axon that release neurotransmitters directly onto effector organs, such as smooth muscle, and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.

      Furthermore, the end bulb on the postsynaptic axon is not the same as the bouton terminaux, even though it is another term for it. This is because the end bulb refers to the postsynaptic cell, whereas the bouton terminaux specifically refers to the presynaptic cell. Finally, fusion pores on the presynaptic axon membrane are structures formed after the presynaptic neurotransmitter vesicles fuse with the presynaptic membrane and are not the same as the bouton terminaux.

      In summary, the bouton terminaux is a crucial structure in synaptic transmission, responsible for releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. It is specific to the presynaptic cell and should not be confused with other structures involved in synaptic transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the origin of Ewing's tumor? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the origin of Ewing's tumor?

      Your Answer: None of these options

      Correct Answer: Mesenchymal cells

      Explanation:

      Ewing’s Tumour: A Younger Age Onset and Destructive Nature

      Ewing’s tumour is a type of bone cancer that typically occurs in individuals between the ages of 5 and 30 years old. Patients with this condition often experience fever and pain, and may have an elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate. The tumour usually affects a long bone, particularly the diaphysis, and can be found in the axial skeleton, such as the pelvis, in 40% of cases. The tumour is primarily destructive and ill-defined, eroding the cortex of the bone. Its cellular origin is not well understood, but is believed to come from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells in the medulla of the bone.

      One of the characteristic features of Ewing’s tumour is an early periosteal reaction, which can be seen as a series of lamellated periosteal reactions with an onion skin appearance. This reaction occurs due to the elevation of the periosteum, which gives rise to the Codman’s triangle appearance. In cases where the tumour is large, the site of origin can be inferred from the centre of the radius of the mass.

      Overall, Ewing’s tumour is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Its destructive nature and younger age onset make it a particularly challenging form of bone cancer to manage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      5.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A newborn's mother is attempting to nurse him, but he vomits uncurdled milk...

    Incorrect

    • A newborn's mother is attempting to nurse him, but he vomits uncurdled milk immediately after suckling avidly. The mother had polyhydramnios during her pregnancy. What is the most likely developmental defect in this child?

      Your Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Correct Answer: Tracheoesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      Congenital Anomalies and Vomiting in Newborns

      Tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) occurs when the trachea and esophagus fail to separate properly during embryonic development. In about 90% of cases, a cul-de-sac forms in the upper esophagus, while the lower esophagus forms a fistula with the trachea. This leads to vomiting as soon as the upper esophagus fills with milk, which never reaches the stomach. TEF can be corrected with surgery.

      Annular pancreas is caused by abnormal rotation and fusion of the pancreatic buds, leading to a ring of pancreatic tissue that can constrict and obstruct the duodenum. However, milk would be curdled in this case since it has already passed through the stomach.

      Pyloric stenosis is characterized by hypertrophy of the pyloric sphincter, leading to projectile vomiting. However, milk would also be curdled in this case since it has already passed through the stomach.

      Omphalocele occurs when the midgut loop fails to return to the abdominal cavity during development, resulting in loops of bowel protruding through the umbilical cord. This anomaly would be evident upon physical examination.

      Ileal diverticulum is a rare condition caused by a failure in the degeneration of the vitelline duct. It is usually asymptomatic, but in some cases, ectopic gastric mucosa or pancreatic tissue can cause peptic ulcers. However, this condition would not explain vomiting in a newborn.

      Understanding Congenital Anomalies and Vomiting in Newborns

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      31.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 9-year-old boy presents with colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea over...

    Correct

    • A 9-year-old boy presents with colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhoea over the past 3 days. The child’s mother reports that the diarrhoea is associated with passage of blood and mucous. He also had arthralgia of the knees, elbows, ankles, and wrists. On examination, there is an obvious palpable purpuric rash on his extremities. Investigations revealed:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 120 g/l 115–140 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 15 × 109/l 5.5–15.5 × 109/l
      Platelet count 350 × 109/l 150-–400 × 109/l
      BUN (blood urea nitrogen) 6.3 mmol/l 1.8–6.4 mmol/l
      Serum creatinine 89.3 μmol/l 20–80 μmol/l
      Urine analysis shows: Microscopic haematuria and proteinuria 1+
      After a few days the child recovered completely without any treatment.
      Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura

      Explanation:

      Henoch-Schönlein Purpura: A Vasculitis Condition in Children

      Henoch-Schönlein purpura (HSP), also known as anaphylactoid purpura, is a type of small-vessel vasculitis that commonly affects children between the ages of 4 to 7 years. The condition is characterized by palpable purpura, which is usually distributed over the buttocks and lower extremities, as well as arthralgia, gastrointestinal symptoms, and glomerulonephritis.

      Patients with HSP typically experience polyarthralgia without frank arthritis, as well as colicky abdominal pain accompanied by nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation. In some cases, patients may also pass blood and mucous per rectum, which can lead to bowel intussusception.

      Renal involvement occurs in 10-50% of patients with HSP and is usually characterized by mild glomerulonephritis, which can lead to proteinuria and microscopic hematuria with red blood cell casts.

      It is important to differentiate HSP from other conditions with similar symptoms, such as acute bacillary dysentery, hemolytic uremic syndrome, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. By ruling out these conditions, healthcare providers can provide appropriate treatment and management for patients with HSP.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      116.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy, irregular vaginal bleeding that...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of heavy, irregular vaginal bleeding that has been ongoing for 4 weeks and is becoming unbearable. She denies experiencing abdominal pain, unusual vaginal discharge, or dysuria. The patient has been sexually active with her partner for 6 months and had the Nexplanon implant inserted 4 weeks ago.

      Upon examination, the patient's abdomen is non-tender, her heart rate is 79/min, her respiratory rate is 17/min, her blood pressure is 117/79 mmHg, her oxygen saturation is 98%, and her temperature is 37.5°C. A negative pregnancy test is obtained.

      What treatment options is the GP likely to suggest to alleviate the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: 3-month course of the combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      To manage unscheduled bleeding, which is a common side effect of Nexplanon, a 3-month course of the combined oral contraceptive pill may be prescribed. This will not only provide additional contraception but also make periods lighter and more regular. Prescribing a progesterone-only pill is not recommended as it can also cause irregular bleeding. A single dose of intramuscular methotrexate is not appropriate as the patient is not showing any symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy. Urgent referral for endometrial cancer is also not necessary as the patient’s age and symptoms suggest that the bleeding is most likely due to the contraceptive implant.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progesterone hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      111.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with increasing breathlessness and coughing up of small amounts of blood over the past one week. She also complains of frequent nosebleeds and headaches over the past two months. She feels generally lethargic and has lost a stone in weight.

      She is noted to have a purpuric rash over her feet. Chest expansion moderate and on auscultation there are inspiratory crackles at the left lung base.

      Investigations show:

      Haemoglobin 100 g/L (115-165)

      White cell count 19.9 ×109/L (4-11)

      Platelets 540 ×109/L (150-400)

      Plasma sodium 139 mmol/L (137-144)

      Plasma potassium 5.3 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)

      Plasma urea 30.6 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)

      Plasma creatinine 760 µmol/L (60-110)

      Plasma glucose 5.8 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Plasma bicarbonate 8 mmol/L (20-28)

      Plasma calcium 2.23 mmol/L (2.2-2.6)

      Plasma phosphate 1.7 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)

      Plasma albumin 33 g/L (37-49)

      Bilirubin 8 µmol/L (1-22)

      Plasma alkaline phosphatase 380 U/L (45-105)

      Plasma aspartate transaminase 65 U/L (1-31)

      Arterial blood gases on air:

      pH 7.2 (7.36-7.44)

      pCO2 4.0 kPa (4.7-6.0)

      pO2 9.5 kPa (11.3-12.6)

      ECG Sinus tachycardia

      Chest x ray Shadow in left lower lobe

      Urinalysis:

      Blood +++

      Protein ++

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Goodpasture's disease

      Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis

      Explanation:

      Acid-Base Disorders and Differential Diagnosis of Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

      In cases of metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation, the primary issue is a decrease in bicarbonate levels and pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory decrease in pCO2. On the other hand, respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation is characterized by an increase in pCO2 and a decrease in pH, which is accompanied by a compensatory increase in bicarbonate levels.

      When nosebleeds are present, the diagnosis of Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is more likely than microscopic polyarteritis due to upper respiratory tract involvement. Goodpasture’s disease is less likely because it does not cause a rash. In particular, 95% of patients with Granulomatosis with polyangiitis develop antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (cytoplasmic pattern) or cANCAs, with proteinase-3 being the major c-ANCA antigen. Conversely, perinuclear or p-ANCAs are directed against myeloperoxidase, are non-specific, and are detected in various autoimmune disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      214.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance after twisting...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman has arrived at the emergency department via ambulance after twisting her left ankle while hiking in a mountainous national park. She has no significant medical history. X-rays were taken and the radiologist's report states that there is a minimally displaced, transverse fracture distally through the lateral malleolus, below the level of the talar dome, without talar shift. The medial malleolus is unaffected. What is the most suitable immediate management?

      Your Answer: Reduce under anaesthesia, place in below-knee cylindrical cast

      Correct Answer: Allow weight bearing as tolerated in a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot

      Explanation:

      According to the radiologist’s report, the patient has a stable Weber A fracture of the lateral malleolus (distal fibula) that is minimally displaced and located below the tibiofibular syndesmosis. As a result, immobilization in a back slab is unnecessary, and reduction is not required. RICE treatment is not recommended as it does not provide adequate immobilization, which can be an effective form of pain relief. Instead, a controlled ankle motion (CAM) boot is the appropriate management option as it allows weight-bearing while providing immobilization. Urgent surgical intervention is not necessary in this case due to the fracture’s stability and minimal displacement.

      Ankle Fractures and their Classification

      Ankle fractures are a common reason for emergency department visits. To minimize the unnecessary use of x-rays, the Ottawa ankle rules are used to aid in clinical examination. These rules state that x-rays are only necessary if there is pain in the malleolar zone and an inability to weight bear for four steps, tenderness over the distal tibia, or bone tenderness over the distal fibula. There are several classification systems for describing ankle fractures, including the Potts, Weber, and AO systems. The Weber system is the simplest and is based on the level of the fibular fracture. Type A is below the syndesmosis, type B fractures start at the level of the tibial plafond and may extend proximally to involve the syndesmosis, and type C is above the syndesmosis, which may itself be damaged. A subtype known as a Maisonneuve fracture may occur with a spiral fibular fracture that leads to disruption of the syndesmosis with widening of the ankle joint, requiring surgery.

      Management of Ankle Fractures

      The management of ankle fractures depends on the stability of the ankle joint and patient co-morbidities. Prompt reduction of all ankle fractures is necessary to relieve pressure on the overlying skin and prevent necrosis. Young patients with unstable, high velocity, or proximal injuries will usually require surgical repair, often using a compression plate. Elderly patients, even with potentially unstable injuries, usually fare better with attempts at conservative management as their thin bone does not hold metalwork well. It is important to consider the patient’s overall health and any other medical conditions when deciding on the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      128.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 59-year-old man is admitted with pneumonia. He drinks 25 units of alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man is admitted with pneumonia. He drinks 25 units of alcohol per day. His liver function is normal.

      After 12 hours of admission, he suddenly becomes unwell. His vital signs are as follows:
      - Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/minute
      - Oxygen saturations: 96%
      - Blood pressure: 123/76 mmHg
      - Heart rate: 106 bpm
      - Capillary blood glucose: 4.1 mmol/L

      An ECG shows sinus tachycardia at a rate of 103 bpm. Upon examination, he appears tremulous and sweaty and complains of feeling anxious.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Stat dose of lorazepam and regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement

      Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide regimen and regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement

      Explanation:

      The administration of glucose IV is not necessary as the patient is not experiencing hypoglycemia. Simply providing regular high strength IM B vitamin replacement is insufficient as the patient also requires a benzodiazepine regimen for alcohol withdrawal. A stat dose of bisoprolol is not appropriate as the patient’s sinus tachycardia is a result of alcohol withdrawal and will not be effectively treated with bisoprolol.

      Alcohol withdrawal occurs when an individual who has been consuming alcohol chronically suddenly stops or reduces their intake. Chronic alcohol consumption enhances the inhibitory effects of GABA in the central nervous system, similar to benzodiazepines, and inhibits NMDA-type glutamate receptors. However, alcohol withdrawal leads to the opposite effect, resulting in decreased inhibitory GABA and increased NMDA glutamate transmission. Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal typically start at 6-12 hours and include tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety. Seizures are most likely to occur at 36 hours, while delirium tremens, which includes coarse tremors, confusion, delusions, auditory and visual hallucinations, fever, and tachycardia, peak at 48-72 hours.

      Patients with a history of complex withdrawals from alcohol, such as delirium tremens, seizures, or blackouts, should be admitted to the hospital for monitoring until their withdrawals stabilize. The first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal is long-acting benzodiazepines, such as chlordiazepoxide or diazepam, which are typically given as part of a reducing dose protocol. Lorazepam may be preferable in patients with hepatic failure. Carbamazepine is also effective in treating alcohol withdrawal, while phenytoin is said to be less effective in treating alcohol withdrawal seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Sarah is a 26-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 26-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first child. She has not felt the baby move for 2 hours. Her pregnancy has been normal, but her baby is slightly underweight for its gestational age. She visits the obstetric emergency walk-in unit at her nearby hospital.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Use a handheld doppler to auscultate the fetal heart rate

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements, the first step should be to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the fetal heartbeat. Most women start feeling the baby move around 20 weeks of gestation, and reduced movements at 30 weeks could indicate fetal distress. The Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology recommends that doctors attempt to listen to the fetal heart rate in any woman with reduced fetal movements. Checking a urine sample for a UTI is not a priority in this situation, and performing an ultrasound should only be done after confirming fetal viability with a handheld Doppler. Reassuring the woman that reduced movements are normal is incorrect, as it is abnormal at this stage of pregnancy. CTG is also not necessary until fetal viability has been confirmed with a Doppler.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      24.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents to their GP with a general feeling of unwellness. They have previously been diagnosed with a condition by their former GP. The GP orders blood tests and the results are as follows:

      Adjusted calcium 2.0 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
      Phosphate 2.8 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
      PTH 12.53 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
      Urea 22.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
      Creatinine 540 µmol/L (60-120)
      25 OH Vit D 32 nmol/L (optimal >75)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute renal failure

      Correct Answer: CKD 5

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Chronic Kidney Disease from Acute Renal Failure

      Chronic kidney disease (CKD) and acute renal failure (ARF) can both result in elevated creatinine levels, but other factors can help differentiate between the two conditions. In the case of a patient with hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and an elevation of parathyroid hormone, CKD is more likely than ARF. These metabolic changes are commonly seen in CKD 4-5 and are not typically present in ARF of short duration. Additionally, the relatively higher creatinine result compared to urea suggests CKD rather than ARF, which can be caused by dehydration and result in even higher urea levels.

      This patient likely has CKD and may already be dependent on dialysis or under regular review by a nephrology team. The decision to start dialysis is based on various factors, including fluid overload, hyperkalaemia, uraemic symptoms, life expectancy, and patient/clinician preference. Most patients begin dialysis with an eGFR of around 10 ml/min/1.73m2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      61.7
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Among the patients listed below, which one would benefit the most from hospice...

    Incorrect

    • Among the patients listed below, which one would benefit the most from hospice care involvement?

      Patients:

      1. A 25-year-old with a broken leg
      2. A 45-year-old with stage 2 breast cancer
      3. An 80-year-old with end-stage Alzheimer's disease
      4. A 60-year-old with a mild case of pneumonia

      Your Answer: A 90-year-old man with prostate cancer stage T3N1M0

      Correct Answer: A 65-year-old woman with end-stage dementia

      Explanation:

      Assessing Hospice Needs in Patients with Different Medical Conditions

      End-of-life care is an important consideration for patients with certain medical conditions. Hospice care is recommended for patients with a life expectancy of less than six months and who are no longer seeking curative treatment. Patients with end-stage dementia, for example, have limited life expectancy and may require hospice care. On the other hand, patients with relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis may have palliative care needs but do not require hospice admission. Similarly, patients with moderate chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may require palliative care but do not need hospice admission. In contrast, patients with locally advanced prostate cancer may require hospice care and have treatment options such as watchful waiting, external radiotherapy with hormone therapy, surgery, hormone therapy on its own, cryotherapy as part of a clinical trial, or high-frequency ultrasound therapy (HIFU) as part of a clinical trial. Understanding the hospice needs of patients with different medical conditions is crucial for providing appropriate end-of-life care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Palliative Care
      22.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his high...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old male with type 2 diabetes is struggling to manage his high blood pressure despite being on medication. His current treatment includes atenolol, amlodipine, and ramipril, but his blood pressure consistently reads above 170/100 mmHg. During examination, grade II hypertensive retinopathy is observed. His test results show sodium levels at 144 mmol/L (137-144), potassium at 3.1 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), urea at 5.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), creatinine at 100 mol/L (60-110), glucose at 7.9 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), and HbA1c at 53 mmol/mol (20-46) or 7% (3.8-6.4). An ECG reveals left ventricular hypertrophy. What possible diagnosis should be considered as the cause of his resistant hypertension?

      Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis

      Correct Answer: Conn’s syndrome (primary hyperaldosteronism)

      Explanation:

      Primary Hyperaldosteronism and Resistant Hypertension

      This patient is experiencing resistant hypertension despite being on an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor (ACEi), which should typically increase their potassium concentration. Additionally, their potassium levels are low, which is a strong indication of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by either an adrenal adenoma (known as Conn syndrome) or bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. To diagnose this condition, doctors typically look for an elevated aldosterone:renin ratio, which is usually above 1000. This condition can be difficult to manage, but identifying it early can help prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      132
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics...

    Incorrect

    • You are assisting in the anaesthesia of an 80-year-old man for a plastics procedure. He is having a large basal cell carcinoma removed from his nose. He has a history of ischaemic heart disease, having had three stents placed 2 years ago. He is otherwise healthy and still able to walk to the shops. His preoperative electrocardiogram (ECG) showed sinus rhythm. During the procedure, his heart rate suddenly increases to 175 bpm with a narrow complex, and you cannot see P waves on the monitor. You are having difficulty obtaining a blood pressure reading but are able to palpate a radial pulse with a systolic pressure of 75 mmHg. The surgeons have been using lidocaine with adrenaline around the surgical site. What is the next best course of action?

      Your Answer: 100% O2, 500 ml Hartmann bolus and 0.5 mg metaraminol

      Correct Answer: 100% O2, synchronised cardioversion, 150-J biphasic shock

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for a Patient with Narrow-Complex Tachycardia and Low Blood Pressure

      When a patient with a history of ischaemic heart disease presents with a narrow-complex tachycardia and low blood pressure, it is likely that they have gone into fast atrial fibrillation. In this case, the first step in resuscitation should be a synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion with a 150-J biphasic shock. Administering 100% oxygen, a 500 ml Hartmann bolus, and 0.5 mg metaraminol may help increase the patient’s blood pressure, but it does not address the underlying cause of their haemodynamic instability.

      Amiodarone 300 mg stat is recommended for patients with narrow-complex tachycardia and haemodynamic instability. However, administering 10 mmol magnesium sulphate is not the first-line treatment for tachycardia unless the patient has torsades de pointes.

      Lastly, administering Intralipid® as per guideline for local anaesthetic toxicity is unlikely to be the main source of the patient’s hypotension and does not address their narrow-complex tachycardia. Therefore, it is important to prioritize the synchronised cardioversion and amiodarone administration in this patient’s treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      91.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 75-year-old male presents for his annual abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) screening test....

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old male presents for his annual abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) screening test. He has a past medical history of a small AAA, which has consistently measured 3.2 cm in width on annual follow up scans since it was discovered 6 years ago. On assessment, it is discovered the patient's AAA has grown by 1.6cm, to a new width of 4.8 cm since his last assessment one year ago. He is asymptomatic and feels well at the time of assessment.
      What is the most appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: 2-week-wait referral for surgical repair

      Explanation:

      If an aneurysm is rapidly enlarging, regardless of its size, it should be repaired even if there are no symptoms present. In the case of this patient, their AAA has grown from a small aneurysm to a medium-sized one, which would typically require ultrasound screening every three months. However, since the aneurysm has grown more than 1 cm in the past year, it is considered rapidly enlarging and requires referral for surgical repair within two weeks. Urgent surgical repair is only necessary if there is suspicion of a ruptured AAA. For non-rapidly enlarging, medium-sized AAAs, a repeat scan in three months is recommended, while a repeat scan in six months is not necessary for any AAA case.

      Abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is a condition that often develops without any symptoms. However, a ruptured AAA can be fatal, which is why it is important to screen patients for this condition. Screening involves a single abdominal ultrasound for males aged 65. The results of the screening are interpreted based on the width of the aorta. If the width is less than 3 cm, no further action is needed. If it is between 3-4.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 12 months. For a width of 4.5-5.4 cm, the patient should be rescanned every 3 months. If the width is 5.5 cm or more, the patient should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention.

      For patients with a low risk of rupture, which includes those with a small or medium aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter less than 5.5 cm) and no symptoms, abdominal US surveillance should be conducted on the time-scales outlined above. Additionally, cardiovascular risk factors should be optimized, such as quitting smoking. For patients with a high risk of rupture, which includes those with a large aneurysm (i.e. aortic diameter of 5.5 cm or more) or rapidly enlarging aneurysm (more than 1 cm/year) or those with symptoms, they should be referred to vascular surgery within 2 weeks for probable intervention. Treatment for these patients may involve elective endovascular repair (EVAR) or open repair if EVAR is not suitable. EVAR involves placing a stent into the abdominal aorta via the femoral artery to prevent blood from collecting in the aneurysm. However, a complication of EVAR is an endo-leak, which occurs when the stent fails to exclude blood from the aneurysm and usually presents without symptoms on routine follow-up.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      71.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man is receiving a 2 units of blood transfusion for anaemia of unknown cause – haemoglobin (Hb) 65 g/l (normal 135–175 g/l). During the third hour of the blood transfusion he spikes a temperature of 38.1°C (normal 36.1–37.2°C). Otherwise the patient is asymptomatic and his other observations are normal.
      Given the likely diagnosis, what should you do?

      Your Answer: Temporarily stop transfusion, repeat clerical checks. Then treat with paracetamol and repeat observations more regularly (every 15 minutes)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Non-Haemolytic Febrile Transfusion Reaction

      Non-haemolytic febrile transfusion reaction is a common acute reaction to plasma proteins during blood transfusions. If a patient experiences this reaction, the transfusion should be temporarily stopped, and clerical checks should be repeated. The patient should be treated with paracetamol, and observations should be repeated more regularly (every 15 minutes).

      If the patient’s temperature is less than 38.5 degrees, and they are asymptomatic with normal observations, the transfusion can be continued with more frequent observations and paracetamol. However, if the patient experiences transfusion-associated circulatory overload, furosemide is a suitable treatment option.

      Adrenaline is not needed unless there are signs of anaphylaxis, and antihistamines are only suitable for urticaria during blood transfusions. Therefore, it is essential to identify the specific type of transfusion reaction and provide appropriate treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      26.3
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 60-year-old male patient complains of chronic productive cough and difficulty breathing. He...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old male patient complains of chronic productive cough and difficulty breathing. He has been smoking 10 cigarettes per day for the past 30 years. What is the number of pack years equivalent to his smoking history?

      Your Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      Pack Year Calculation

      Pack year calculation is a tool used to estimate the risk of tobacco exposure. It is calculated by multiplying the number of packs of cigarettes smoked per day by the number of years of smoking. One pack of cigarettes contains 20 cigarettes. For instance, if a person smoked half a pack of cigarettes per day for 30 years, their pack year history would be 15 (1/2 x 30 = 15).

      The pack year calculation is a standardized method of measuring tobacco exposure. It helps healthcare professionals to estimate the risk of developing smoking-related diseases such as lung cancer, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and heart disease. The higher the pack year history, the greater the risk of developing these diseases. Therefore, it is important for individuals who smoke or have a history of smoking to discuss their pack year history with their healthcare provider to determine appropriate screening and prevention measures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30-year-old woman, who recently gave birth, visits her GP for a regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman, who recently gave birth, visits her GP for a regular check-up. She expresses her worries about the medications she is taking for different health issues and their potential impact on her breastfeeding baby. Can you advise her on which medications are safe to continue taking?

      Your Answer: Carbimazole

      Correct Answer: Lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding is generally safe with most anti-epileptic drugs, including Lamotrigine which is commonly prescribed for seizures. It is a preferred option for women as it does not affect their ability to bear children. However, Carbimazole and Diazepam active metabolite can be passed on to the baby through breast milk and should be avoided. Isotretinoin effect on breastfed infants is not well studied, but oral retinoids should generally be avoided while breastfeeding.

      Pregnancy and breastfeeding can be a concern for women with epilepsy. It is generally recommended that women continue taking their medication during pregnancy, as the risks of uncontrolled seizures outweigh the potential risks to the fetus. However, it is important for women to take folic acid before pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. The use of antiepileptic medication during pregnancy can increase the risk of congenital defects, but this risk is still relatively low. It is recommended to aim for monotherapy and there is no need to monitor drug levels. Sodium valproate is associated with neural tube defects, while carbamazepine is considered the least teratogenic of the older antiepileptics. Phenytoin is associated with cleft palate, and lamotrigine may require a dose increase during pregnancy. Breastfeeding is generally safe for mothers taking antiepileptics, except for barbiturates. Pregnant women taking phenytoin should be given vitamin K in the last month of pregnancy to prevent clotting disorders in the newborn.

      A warning has been issued about the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy and in women of childbearing age. New evidence suggests a significant risk of neurodevelopmental delay in children following maternal use of this medication. Therefore, it should only be used if clearly necessary and under specialist neurological or psychiatric advice. It is important for women with epilepsy to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and make informed decisions about their treatment during pregnancy and breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      45.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties breastfeeding. She has exclusively breastfed her other two children. She tells you her baby has problems latching, is feeding for a long time and is always hungry. She has sore nipples as a result of the poor latch.
      On examination, you notice that the baby cannot bring his tongue past the lower lip and there is restriction in movement. On lifting the tongue, it acquires a heart shape with a central notch, but you cannot visualise the frenulum.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cleft lip

      Correct Answer: Posterior tongue tie

      Explanation:

      Common Oral Abnormalities in Infants: Tongue Tie, Upper Lip Tie, Cleft Lip, and Cleft Palate

      Tongue tie, also known as ankyloglossia, is a condition that affects up to 10% of live births, more commonly in boys than girls. It is characterized by a short, thickened frenulum attaching the tongue to the floor of the mouth, limiting tongue movements and causing difficulties with breastfeeding. Mothers may report that their infant takes a long time to feed, is irritable, and experiences nipple injury. Examination findings include limited tongue movements, inability to lift the tongue high or move it past the lower lip, and a characteristic heart-shaped notch when attempting to lift the tongue. Tongue tie can be anterior or posterior, with the latter being deeper in the mouth and more difficult to see.

      Upper lip tie is a similar condition, with a frenulum attaching the upper lip to the gum line. This can also cause difficulties with breastfeeding due to limited movement of the upper lip.

      Cleft lip and cleft palate are congenital malformations that occur when the facial structures fail to fuse properly during development. Cleft lip presents as a gap in the upper lip, while cleft palate is a gap in the roof of the mouth. Both can cause difficulties with feeding and require surgical intervention.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these common oral abnormalities in infants and provide appropriate management and referrals to ensure optimal feeding and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - You review a 56-year-old woman in the clinic who has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 56-year-old woman in the clinic who has a history of type 2 diabetes. She is currently treated with metformin 1g PO BD. On examination her BP is 150/80 mmHg, pulse is 78 and regular. Her chest is clear. Her abdomen is soft and non tender, her BMI is 31. Her bA1c is elevated at 9.1%, creatinine is 110 µmol/l. You decide to add dapagliflozin to her treatment plan. What is the correct mode of action of dapagliflozin?

      Your Answer: Reduces glucose absorption from the GI tract

      Correct Answer: Reduces glucose reabsorption

      Explanation:

      How Dapagliflozin Reduces Blood Glucose Levels

      Dapagliflozin is a medication that inhibits the SGLT-2 (sodium glucose transporter) in the kidneys, which reduces the reabsorption of glucose. This means that around 30% of glucose present in the glomerular filtrate is not reabsorbed and is instead passed out into the urine. As a result, blood glucose levels are reduced without causing weight gain, and even with minor weight loss in clinical trials. However, increased loss of glucose into the urine has been associated with a higher risk of urinary tract infections.

      It is important to note that dapagliflozin’s effects on insulin sensitivity are indirect. On the other hand, SGLT-1 inhibitors block the absorption of glucose from the intestine. Overall, dapagliflozin’s ability to reduce glucose reabsorption in the kidneys is a key mechanism in its effectiveness as a medication for managing blood glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      85.2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 29-year-old man with valvular heart disease is urgently admitted with fever, worsening...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with valvular heart disease is urgently admitted with fever, worsening shortness of breath and a letter from his GP confirming the presence of a new murmur. During examination, a harsh pansystolic murmur and early diastolic murmur are detected, along with a temperature of 38.3 °C and bilateral fine basal crepitations. Initial blood cultures have been collected.
      What is the most pressing concern that needs to be addressed immediately?

      Your Answer: Electrocardiogram (ECG)

      Correct Answer: Administration of intravenous antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Prioritizing Interventions in Suspected Infective Endocarditis

      When dealing with suspected infective endocarditis, time is of the essence. The following interventions should be prioritized in order to limit valve destruction and improve patient outcomes.

      Administration of Intravenous Antibiotics
      Prompt initiation of intravenous antibiotics is crucial. An empirical regime of gentamicin and benzylpenicillin may be used until microbiological advice suggests any alternative.

      Electrocardiogram (ECG)
      An ECG provides important diagnostic information and should be performed as part of the initial work-up. However, it does not take priority over antibiotic administration.

      Echocardiogram (ECHO)
      An ECHO should be performed in all patients with suspected infective endocarditis, but it does not take priority over administration of antibiotics. A transoesophageal ECHO is more sensitive and should be considered if necessary.

      Throat Swab
      While a throat swab may be useful in identifying the causative organism of infective endocarditis, it should not take precedence over commencing antibiotics. Careful examination of a patient’s dentition is also crucial to evaluate for a possible infectious source.

      Administration of Paracetamol
      Symptomatic relief is important, but administration of paracetamol should not take priority over antibiotic delivery. Both interventions should be given as soon as possible to improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 55-year-old individual who has been smoking for their entire life visits their...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old individual who has been smoking for their entire life visits their GP with complaints of worsening breathlessness and symptoms of ptosis and constriction of the pupil. The GP refers them for a chest x-ray, which reveals the presence of an apical mass. What is the term used to describe the cause of this person's condition?

      Your Answer: Wilms' tumour

      Correct Answer: Pancoast tumour

      Explanation:

      Horner’s Syndrome and Pancoast Tumour

      Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by ptosis and constriction of the pupil. However, in some cases, it can be a consequence of a Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung that invades the chest wall and brachial plexus. This lady is likely to have a Pancoast tumour as she presents with Horner’s syndrome. On the other hand, Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition where the pupil is larger than normal and slow to react to direct light. Peyronie’s disease is a hardening of the corpora cavernosa of the penis caused by scar tissue, while Pott’s cancer is a scrotal cancer caused by coal tar exposure. Wilms’ tumour, on the other hand, is a malignant tumour of the kidney that usually occurs in childhood.

      In summary, Horner’s syndrome can be a consequence of a Pancoast tumour, which is a neoplasm located at the apex of the lung. Other conditions that present differently from Horner’s syndrome include Holmes-Adie syndrome, Peyronie’s disease, Pott’s cancer, and Wilms’ tumour. It is important to differentiate these conditions to provide appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old woman is presenting with symptoms of menopause such as hot flashes...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman is presenting with symptoms of menopause such as hot flashes and difficulty sleeping. She has irregular periods and has discussed with her doctor the possibility of starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT). However, she has a medical history of migraines, deep vein thrombosis, and high blood pressure. What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: HRT is contraindicated

      Correct Answer: Transdermal HRT

      Explanation:

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progesterone to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman contacts her doctor seeking guidance on stopping all of her medications abruptly. She has a medical history of asthma, depression, and occasional tennis elbow pain, for which she takes a salbutamol inhaler, citalopram, and paracetamol, respectively. What is the most probable outcome if she discontinues her medications suddenly?

      Your Answer: Weight gain

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      When it comes to discontinuing medication, it’s important to note the specific drug being used. Abruptly stopping a salbutamol inhaler or paracetamol is unlikely to cause any adverse effects. However, stopping a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) like citalopram can lead to discontinuation symptoms. Gastrointestinal side-effects, such as diarrhoea, are commonly seen in SSRI discontinuation syndrome. To avoid this, it’s recommended to gradually taper off SSRIs. Blunted affect is not likely to occur as a result of sudden discontinuation, but emotional lability and mood swings may be observed. Cyanopsia, or blue-tinted vision, is not a known symptom of SSRI discontinuation, but it can be a side effect of other drugs like sildenafil. While hypertension has been reported in some cases, it’s less common than gastrointestinal symptoms. Weight loss, rather than weight gain, is often reported upon sudden discontinuation of SSRIs.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman in the fifteenth week of pregnancy comes to the Emergency Department with vomiting and vaginal bleeding. During the examination, the doctor observes that her uterus is larger than expected for her stage of pregnancy. An ultrasound scan shows a snowstorm appearance with numerous highly reflective echoes and vacuolation areas within the uterine cavity.
      What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Trophoblastic disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Pregnancy Complications: Trophoblastic Disease, Ectopic Pregnancy, Threatened Miscarriage, Confirmed Miscarriage, and Septic Abortion

      Pregnancy can be a wonderful experience, but it can also come with complications. Here are some of the common pregnancy complications and their symptoms:

      Trophoblastic Disease
      This disease usually occurs after 14 weeks of pregnancy and is characterized by vaginal bleeding. It is often misdiagnosed as a threatened miscarriage. The uterus may also be larger than expected. High levels of human chorionic gonadotrophin hormone can cause clinical thyrotoxicosis, exaggerated pregnancy symptoms, and passing of products of conception vaginally. Ultrasound scans can show a snowstorm appearance with multiple highly reflective echoes and areas of vacuolation within the uterine cavity.

      Ectopic Pregnancy
      This type of pregnancy occurs outside the uterine cavity, most commonly in the ampullary region of the Fallopian tube.

      Threatened Miscarriage
      This condition can also present with vaginal bleeding, but ultrasound scans would show a gestational sac and fetal heartbeat instead.

      Confirmed Miscarriage
      After a miscarriage is confirmed, the products of conception have passed from the uterus. Sometimes, small fragments of tissue may remain, which can be managed with surgical evacuation or expectant management for another two weeks.

      Septic Abortion
      This condition is characterized by infection of the products of conception and can present with vaginal bleeding and vomiting. Other signs of infection, such as fever and rigors, may also be present.

      It is important to seek medical attention if you experience any of these symptoms during pregnancy. Early detection and treatment can help prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      115.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with dyspnoea on exertion and palpitations. She has an irregularly irregular and tachycardic pulse, and a systolic murmur is heard on auscultation. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and right axis deviation, while an echocardiogram shows an atrial septal defect.
      What is true about the development of the atrial septum?

      Your Answer: The foramen ovale is a physiological defect in the septum primum in the fetus

      Correct Answer: The septum secundum grows down to the right of the septum primum

      Explanation:

      During embryonic development, the septum primum grows down from the roof of the primitive atrium and fuses with the endocardial cushions. It initially has a hole called the ostium primum, which closes as the septum grows downwards. However, a second hole called the ostium secundum develops in the septum primum before fusion can occur. The septum secundum then grows downwards and to the right of the septum primum and ostium secundum. The foramen ovale is a passage through the septum secundum that allows blood to shunt from the right to the left atrium in the fetus, bypassing the pulmonary circulation. This defect closes at birth due to a drop in pressure within the pulmonary circulation after the infant takes a breath. If there is overlap between the foramen ovale and ostium secundum or if the ostium primum fails to close, an atrial septal defect results. This defect does not cause cyanosis because oxygenated blood flows from left to right through the defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      32.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - As an FY2 doctor in the Paediatric Emergency Department, you encounter an 8-month-old...

    Correct

    • As an FY2 doctor in the Paediatric Emergency Department, you encounter an 8-month-old girl who has been brought in after experiencing rectal bleeding. According to her parents, she has been suffering from abdominal pain since this morning, drawing her legs up into the fetal position, and has had little appetite, which is unusual for her. She vomited three times and then passed bloody stools, which were described as jelly-like red and slimy. The child has been weaned for the past 2 months and only given baby food. Upon examination, you notice right lower abdominal tenderness, dehydrated mucous membranes, and a vague mass in her right lower abdomen. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intussusception

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Gastrointestinal Issues in Toddlers

      Gastrointestinal issues in toddlers can be caused by a variety of factors. Here are some common causes and their symptoms:

      1. Intussusception: This condition is characterized by slimy or jelly-like red stools, abdominal pain, and a palpable mass or fullness. It is most common in toddlers aged around 9-12 months old and is diagnosed with an ultrasound scan. Treatment usually involves an air enema, but surgery may be required in complicated cases.

      2. Campylobacter-related gastroenteritis: This bacterial infection is rare in toddlers and is even more unlikely if the child only consumes baby food.

      3. Colon cancer: Colorectal cancer is almost unheard of in this age group.

      4. Hirschsprung’s disease: This congenital condition causes bowel obstruction, with the child vomiting and not passing stools. It usually occurs in very young neonates and is diagnosed with a rectal biopsy. Treatment involves surgically removing the affected part of the bowel.

      5. Pyloric stenosis: This condition causes forceful projectile vomiting immediately after feeds and usually occurs within the first 4 weeks of birth. It is diagnosed with ultrasound imaging and is treated surgically with a pyloromyotomy.

      It is important to seek medical attention if your toddler is experiencing any gastrointestinal symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      42.1
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 54-year-old man who is a long-term cigarette smoker presents with nocturnal dry...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man who is a long-term cigarette smoker presents with nocturnal dry cough of 4 weeks’ duration. He has recently gone through a stressful life situation due to divorce and bankruptcy. He mentions a history of atopic diseases in his family. His symptom improves with omeprazole, one tablet daily taken in the morning.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Asthma

      Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Nocturnal Cough: Gastro-oesophageal Reflux Disease as the Likely Cause

      Nocturnal cough can have various causes, including asthma, sinusitis with post-nasal drip, congestive heart failure, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GERD). In this case, the patient’s cough improved after taking omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, which suggests GERD as the likely cause of his symptoms. The mechanism of cough in GERD is related to a vagal reflex triggered by oesophageal irritation, which is exacerbated by stress and lying flat. Peptic ulcer disease, asthma, psychogenic cough, and chronic bronchitis are less likely causes based on the absence of relevant symptoms or response to treatment. Therefore, GERD should be considered in the differential diagnosis of nocturnal cough, especially in patients with risk factors such as smoking and obesity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      33.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 75-year-old male with multiple comorbidities is set to undergo a bowel resection...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male with multiple comorbidities is set to undergo a bowel resection in his local hospital. He visits the senior anaesthetist at the pre-operative assessment clinic to assess his eligibility for surgery and organize any necessary pre-operative investigations. According to NICE, who should undergo a chest X-ray as part of their pre-operative assessment?

      Your Answer: Patients with a degree of renal impairment

      Correct Answer: Not routinely recommended

      Explanation:

      It is no longer standard practice to perform chest x-rays prior to surgery. However, individuals who are 65 years or older may require an ECG before undergoing major surgery. Patients with renal disease may need a complete blood count and an ECG before intermediate surgery, depending on their ASA grade. Patients with hypertension do not require any specific pre-operative tests.

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A final-year medical student takes a history from a 42-year-old man who suffers...

    Incorrect

    • A final-year medical student takes a history from a 42-year-old man who suffers from narcolepsy. Following this the student presents the case to her consultant, who quizzes the student about normal sleep regulation.
      Which neurotransmitter is chiefly involved in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep regulation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

      Explanation:

      Neurotransmitters and Sleep: Understanding the Role of Noradrenaline, Acetylcholine, Serotonin, and Dopamine

      Sleep architecture refers to the organization of sleep, which is divided into non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep and rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. NREM sleep is further divided into stages 1-4, with higher stages indicating deeper sleep. During sleep, individuals cycle between different stages of NREM and REM sleep. While the function of neurotransmitters in sleep is not fully understood, acetylcholine is believed to play a role in the progression of sleep stages, while noradrenaline is the primary regulator of REM sleep. Serotonin’s function in sleep is poorly understood, but studies have shown that its destruction can lead to total insomnia. Dopamine, on the other hand, is not implicated in the regulation of sleep in current neurotransmitter models. Abnormalities in cholinergic function can cause sleep fragmentation in individuals with dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (3/4) 75%
Neurology (1/2) 50%
Oncology (1/2) 50%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Rheumatology (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Obstetrics (3/3) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Palliative Care (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (1/3) 33%
Surgery (2/2) 100%
Haematology (1/1) 100%
Medicine (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Passmed