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  • Question 1 - Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is...

    Correct

    • Following a head injury, a 22-year-old patient develops polyuria and polydipsia. He is suspected to have cranial diabetes insipidus so he undergoes a water deprivation test. Which one of the following responses would most indicate a positive (abnormal) result?

      Your Answer: Failure to concentrate the urine during water deprivation, but achievement of urine osmolality of 720 mmol/kg following the administration of desmopressin

      Explanation:

      The water deprivation test (i.e., the Miller-Moses test), is a semiquantitative test to ensure adequate dehydration and maximal stimulation of ADH for diagnosis. It is typically performed in patients with more chronic forms of Diabetes Insipidus (DI). The extent of deprivation is usually limited by the patient’s thirst or by any significant drop in blood pressure or related clinical manifestation of dehydration.

      In healthy individuals, water deprivation leads to a urinary osmolality that is 2-4 times greater than plasma osmolality. Additionally, in normal, healthy subjects, administration of ADH produces an increase of less than 9% in urinary osmolality. The time required to achieve maximal urinary concentration ranges from 4-18 hours.

      In central and nephrogenic DI, urinary osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after water deprivation. After the administration of ADH, the osmolality will rise to more than 750 mOsm/kg in central DI but will not rise at all in nephrogenic DI. In primary polydipsia, urinary osmolality will be above 750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation.
      A urinary osmolality that is 300-750 mOsm/kg after water deprivation and remains below 750 mOsm/kg after administration of ADH may be seen in partial central DI, partial nephrogenic DI, and primary polydipsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 2 - Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most consistent with small cell lung cancer?

      Your Answer: hypercalcemia is commonly seen

      Correct Answer: hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is rarely seen

      Explanation:

      The clinical manifestations of Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPO) is a rare paraneoplastic syndrome that is frequently associated with lung cancer; however, the incidence of clinically apparent HPO is not well known.
      SIADH is present in 15% of cases and most commonly seen.
      Although hypercalcaemia is frequently associated with malignancy, it is very rare in small cell lung cancer despite the high incidence of lytic bone metastases.
      Ectopic Cushing’s syndrome in SCLC does not usually exhibit the classic signs of Cushing’s syndrome and Cushing’s syndrome could also appear during effective chemotherapy.
      Chemotherapy is the treatment of choice in SCLC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      42.1
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  • Question 3 - A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents at clinic complaining of worsening hoarseness of voice and dyspnoea over the past month. She has a history of toxic multinodular goitre successfully treated with radioiodine. On examination, she has a firm asymmetrical swelling of the thyroid gland. Laryngoscopy demonstrates a right vocal cord paralysis and apparent external compression of the trachea. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Papillary thyroid cancer

      Correct Answer: Anaplastic thyroid cancer

      Explanation:

      Thyroid malignancies are divided into papillary carcinomas (80%), follicular carcinomas (10%), medullary thyroid carcinomas (5-10%), anaplastic carcinomas (1-2%), primary thyroid lymphomas (rare), and primary thyroid sarcomas (rare).
      Hürthle cell carcinoma is a rare thyroid malignancy that is often considered a variant of follicular carcinoma.
      – Papillary and Follicular carcinoma are slow-growing tumours
      – Sporadic cases of Medullary thyroid carcinoma also typically manifest with painless solitary thyroid nodules in the early stages.
      – Anaplastic thyroid carcinoma has the most aggressive biologic behaviour of all thyroid malignancies and has one of the worst survival rates of all malignancies in general. It manifests as a rapidly growing thyroid mass in contrast to a well-differentiated carcinoma, which are comparatively slow-growing. Patients commonly present with associated symptoms due to local invasion. Hoarseness and dyspnoea resulting from the involvement of the recurrent laryngeal nerve and airway occur in as many as 50% of patients.
      – Almost all patients with primary thyroid lymphoma have either a clinical history or histological evidence of chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis. The risk of primary thyroid lymphoma increases 70-fold in patients with chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis compared with the general population. Regional and distant lymphadenopathy is common.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
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  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old Muslim man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old Muslim man with type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for advice. He is about to start fasting for Ramadan and he is not sure how to modify the administration of his diabetes medications. He is currently on metformin 500mg tds. What is the most appropriate advice?

      Your Answer: 1000 mg at the predawn meal + 500 mg at the sunset meal

      Correct Answer: 500 mg at the predawn meal + 1000 mg at the sunset meal

      Explanation:

      Biguanides (Metformin):
      People who take metformin alone should be able to fast safely given that the possibility of hypoglycaemia is minimal. However, patients should modify its dose and administration timing to provide two-thirds of the total daily dose, which should be taken immediately with the sunset meal, while the other third is taken before the predawn meal.

      Thiazolidinediones: No change needed.

      Sulfonylurea:
      Once-daily sulfonylurea (such as glimepiride or gliclazide MR): the total daily dose should be taken with the sunset meal.
      Shorter-acting sulfonylurea (such as gliclazide twice daily): the same daily dose remains unchanged, and one dose should be taken at the sunset meal and the other at the predawn meal.
      Long-acting sulfonylurea (such as glibenclamide): these agents should be avoided.

      It is important that diabetic patients to eat a healthy balanced diet and choose foods with a low glycaemic index (such as complex carbohydrates), which can help to maintain blood glucose levels during fasting. Moreover, it is crucial to consume adequate fluids to prevent dehydration. Physical activity is encouraged, especially during non-fasting periods.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      33.4
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  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman is admitted on the medical intake. She is 10 weeks postpartum and has been generally unwell for two weeks with malaise, sweating and anxiety. On examination, she is haemodynamically stable and clinically euthyroid. TFTs show the following: Free T4 33 pmol/L (9-23), Free T3 8 nmol/L (3.5-6), TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.5-5). What is the appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Propranolol 20 mg tds

      Explanation:

      The patient is most likely to have Postpartum thyroiditis which goes through 2 phases; hypothyroid and a hyperthyroid phase.
      The hyperthyroid phase of postpartum thyroiditis occurs between 2 and 10 months postpartum. Most commonly, it presents at 3 months. Symptoms more common in women with hyperthyroid postpartum thyroiditis include palpitations, fatigue, heat intolerance, and irritability/nervousness. The frequency of asymptomatic hyperthyroidism is 33%.
      Untreated, the hyperthyroidism resolves spontaneously within 2–3 months. This phase is diagnosed by the combination of a low serum TSH concentration in the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies, in women who are TSH receptor antibody-negative. Free T4 levels are typically elevated but may be normal.
      Treatment of hyperthyroidism, when necessary, is based on symptom severity and should be a joint decision of patient and physician. Beta-blockers such as propranolol are given to alleviate palpitations, irritability, and nervousness. The morbidity associated with treatment is the side effects of beta-blockade. The downside of withholding treatment is allowing the woman to remain symptomatic. Antithyroid medicines (thioureas) are not a potential treatment alternative, because the hyperthyroidism is caused by destructive thyroiditis resulting in the release of preformed thyroid hormone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      67.9
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  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of a cough and breathlessness for 2 weeks. He reports that before the onset of these symptoms, he was fit and well and was not on any medication. He is a known smoker of 10 cigarettes per day and has been smoking for over 25 years. On examination, the GP diagnosed a mild viral chest infection and reassured the patient that the symptoms would settle of their own accord. Two weeks later, the patient presented again to the GP, this time complaining of thirst, polyuria and generalised muscle weakness. The GP noticed the presence of ankle oedema. A prick test confirmed the presence of hyperglycaemia and the patient was referred to the hospital for investigations where the medical registrar ordered a variety of blood tests. Some of these results are shown: Na 144 mmol/L, K 2.2 mmol/L, Bicarbonate 34 mmol/L, Glucose 16 mmol/L. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ectopic ACTH production

      Explanation:

      The patient has small cell lung cancer presented by paraneoplastic syndrome; Ectopic ACTH secretion.

      Small cell lung cancer (SCLC), previously known as oat cell carcinoma is a neuroendocrine carcinoma that exhibits aggressive behaviour, rapid growth, early spread to distant sites, exquisite sensitivity to chemotherapy and radiation, and a frequent association with distinct paraneoplastic syndromes.
      Common presenting signs and symptoms of the disease, which very often occur in advanced-stage disease, include the following:
      – Shortness of breath
      – Cough
      – Bone pain
      – Weight loss
      – Fatigue
      – Neurologic dysfunction
      Most patients with this disease present with a short duration of symptoms, usually only 8-12 weeks before presentation. The clinical manifestations of SCLC can result from local tumour growth, intrathoracic spread, distant spread, and/or paraneoplastic syndromes.
      SIADH is present in 15% of the patients and Ectopic secretion of ACTH is present in 2-5% of the patients leading to ectopic Cushing’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      90.6
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is 24 weeks pregnant had a recent ultrasound that shows the foetus large for dates. She has an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) which was requested due to a combination of her Asian ethnicity and background of obesity. The following results are obtained: (Time (hours) : Blood glucose (mmol/l)), 0 : 9.2, 2 : 14.2. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Start metformin

      Correct Answer: Start insulin

      Explanation:

      Insulin remains the standard of care for the treatment of uncontrolled gestational diabetes. Tight control maintained in the first trimester and throughout pregnancy plays a vital role in decreasing poor fetal outcomes, including structural anomalies, macrosomia, hypoglycaemia of the new-born, adolescent and adult obesity, and diabetes.
      The baby is already large for dates so nutritional therapy can not be used alone.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      49.2
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  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the GP with tiredness and anxiety during the third trimester of her second pregnancy. The Examination is unremarkable, with a BP of 110/70 mmHg and a pulse of 80. Her BMI is 24 and she has an abdomen consistent with a 31-week pregnancy. The GP decides to check some thyroid function tests. Which of the following is considered to be normal?

      Your Answer: Elevated TSH

      Correct Answer: Elevated total T4

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, profound changes in thyroid physiology occur to provide sufficient thyroid hormone (TH) to both the mother and foetus. This is particularly important during early pregnancy because the fetal thyroid starts to produce considerable amounts of TH only from approximately 20 weeks of gestation, until which time the foetus heavily depends on the maternal supply of TH. This supply of TH to the foetus, as well as increased concentrations of TH binding proteins (thyroxine-binding globulin) and degradation of TH by placental type 3 iodothyronine deiodinase, necessitate an increased production of maternal TH. This requires an intact thyroid gland and adequate availability of dietary iodine and is in part mediated by the pregnancy hormone human chorionic gonadotropin, which is a weak agonist of the thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor. As a consequence, serum-free thyroxine (FT4) concentrations increase and TSH concentrations decrease from approximately the eighth week throughout the first half of pregnancy, resulting in different reference intervals for TSH and FT4 compared to the non-pregnant state.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      44.2
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes comes to the clinic for review. His HbA1c is elevated at 64 mmol/mol despite taking 1g of metformin BD. On examination, his blood pressure is 142/88 mmHg, his pulse is 82 beats per minute and regular. His BMI is 33 kg/m². A decision is made to start him on dapagliflozin. Which of the following would you expect on starting therapy?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Correct Answer: Increased total cholesterol

      Explanation:

      Dapagliflozin works by inhibiting sodium glucose cotransporter 2 (SGLT2) and blocking resorption of glucose in the kidney, leading to an increase in urinary glucose excretion and lowering of both plasma glucose levels and body weight.
      All studies with SGLT2 inhibitors have found significant reductions in BP, with greater reductions seen in systolic (1.66 to 6.9mmHg) than diastolic (0.88 to 3.5mmHg) BP.
      While some trials have shown no change in lipid parameters, others have shown a modest but statistically significant increase in both HDL and LDL cholesterol with no effect on triglycerides or the LDL/HDL ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      58.5
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  • Question 10 - A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man known to have type 2 diabetes comes for regular follow up. He is on metformin 2 g per day and gliclazide 160 mg per day. His recent HbA1c was 8.4% and his blood pressure was 140/75 mmHg. Eye examination reveals dot and blot haemorrhages and microaneurysms. None are close to the macula. Which of the following defines his eye condition?

      Your Answer: Proliferative retinopathy

      Correct Answer: Background diabetic retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Patients with diabetes often develop ophthalmic complications, the most common and potentially most blinding of these complications is diabetic retinopathy.
      The following are the 5 stages in the progression of diabetic retinopathy:
      1. Dilation of the retinal venules and formation of retinal capillary microaneurysms.
      2. Increased vascular permeability.
      3. Vascular occlusion and retinal ischemia.
      4. Proliferation of new blood vessels on the surface of the retina.
      5. Vitreous haemorrhage and contraction of the fibrovascular proliferation.
      The first 2 stages of diabetic retinopathy are known as background or nonproliferative retinopathy. Initially, the retinal venules dilate, then microaneurysms (tiny red dots on the retina that cause no visual impairment) appear. As the microaneurysms or retinal capillaries become more permeable, hard exudates appear, reflecting the leakage of plasma.

      Mild nonproliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR) or background diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of at least 1 microaneurysm, while neovascularization is the hallmark of Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy (PDR).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      59.9
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (3/10) 30%
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