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  • Question 1 - A 29-year-old primip is brought in by ambulance at 38+2 weeks’ gestation. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old primip is brought in by ambulance at 38+2 weeks’ gestation. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy so far, and she is a smoker. This morning, she had sudden-onset abdominal pain, which has become very severe. The uterus is hard and contracted. There is no vaginal bleeding, and the os is closed, with a long cervix. She looks clammy and pale.
      Her observations are as follows: heart rate (HR) 130 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 98/56 mmHg, respiratory rate (RR) 20 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% on air, and temperature 37.1 °C. The cardiotocogram shows fetal distress, and fetal movements cannot be palpated.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Emergency Caesarean section

      Explanation:

      Management of Placental Abruption: Emergency Caesarean Section and Other Options

      Placental abruption is a serious obstetric emergency that can lead to maternal and fetal mortality. Risk factors include smoking, pre-eclampsia, cocaine use, trauma, and maternal age >35. Symptoms may include sudden-onset, severe pain, a contracted uterus, and fetal distress. In severe cases, an emergency Caesarean section is necessary to reduce the risk of mortality.

      If a patient presents with a history suggestive of placental abruption but no maternal or fetal compromise, a transabdominal and/or transvaginal ultrasound scan can confirm the diagnosis and assess fetal wellbeing.

      Admission for monitoring and analgesia may be appropriate in cases where there is a concealed or resolved placental abruption and the patient is stable without fetal distress. However, in the presence of maternal and fetal compromise, induction of labor is not appropriate.

      In cases where there is no maternal or fetal distress, admitting for intravenous analgesia and fluids can be appropriate to assess the patient and make a timely decision for delivery as required.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden lower abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden lower abdominal pain that started 2 hours ago. She is sexually active and has not been using condoms lately. Although she has a long-term partner, she has not undergone any sexual health screening. During the examination, she experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa, with a heart rate of 100 bpm, blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg, and a temperature of 37.8ºC. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted?

      Your Answer: Urine pregnancy test

      Explanation:

      Ectopic pregnancy, appendicitis, and pelvic inflammatory disease are possible differentials for abdominal pain in women of Childbearing age. The first investigation to be performed should be a urine dip to rule out ectopic pregnancy. Low vaginal swabs are not necessary at this stage.

      Exam Features of Abdominal Pain Conditions

      Abdominal pain can be caused by various conditions, and it is important to be familiar with their characteristic exam features. Peptic ulcer disease, for instance, may present with epigastric pain that is relieved by eating in duodenal ulcers and worsened by eating in gastric ulcers. Appendicitis, on the other hand, may initially cause pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa, accompanied by anorexia, tenderness in the right iliac fossa, and a positive Rovsing’s sign. Acute pancreatitis, which is often due to alcohol or gallstones, may manifest as severe epigastric pain and vomiting, with tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever on examination.

      Other conditions that may cause abdominal pain include biliary colic, diverticulitis, and intestinal obstruction. Biliary colic may cause pain in the right upper quadrant that radiates to the back and interscapular region, while diverticulitis may present with colicky pain in the left lower quadrant, fever, and raised inflammatory markers. Intestinal obstruction, which may be caused by malignancy or previous operations, may lead to vomiting, absence of bowel movements, and tinkling bowel sounds.

      It is also important to remember that some conditions may have unusual or medical causes of abdominal pain, such as acute coronary syndrome, diabetic ketoacidosis, pneumonia, acute intermittent porphyria, and lead poisoning. Therefore, being familiar with the characteristic exam features of various conditions can aid in the diagnosis and management of abdominal pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 60-year-old retiree comes in for his annual diabetes review. He has type...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old retiree comes in for his annual diabetes review. He has type II diabetes; the condition seems to be well controlled with metformin, with HbA1c levels in the target range and no signs of end-organ damage.
      During the consultation, the nurse asks some routine questions and is alarmed to find that the patient drinks almost 50 units of alcohol a week. The patient insists that he only drinks at the end of the day to relax, and on a Sunday when he goes to the pub with friends. He is adamant that he does not have a drinking problem and that he could stop at any time if he wanted to.
      The nurse refers the patient to the doctor to assess for potential signs of alcohol dependency.
      Which of the following are indications of alcohol dependency?

      Your Answer: Physiological withdrawal state, a strong desire or sense of compulsion to drink alcohol, increased tolerance to alcohol

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Diagnostic Criteria for Substance Dependence

      Substance dependence, including alcohol dependence, is diagnosed based on a set of criteria. These criteria include a strong desire or compulsion to use the substance, difficulty controlling substance use, physiological withdrawal symptoms when substance use is reduced or stopped, evidence of tolerance, neglect of other interests or activities, and continued substance use despite harmful consequences. It is important to note that the presence of a physiological withdrawal state is a key factor in the diagnosis of substance dependence. However, drinking late at night or avoiding sweet drinks are not indicative of dependence. Understanding these criteria can help in identifying and treating substance dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      75.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old female presents with polyarticular arthralgia and a malar rash. Blood tests...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with polyarticular arthralgia and a malar rash. Blood tests results are as follows:
      Hb 135 g/l
      Platelets 110 * 109/l
      WBC 2.8 * 109/l
      What is the most appropriate test from the options below?

      Your Answer: Anti-dsDNA antibody

      Explanation:

      The symptoms observed in the clinic and the findings from laboratory tests indicate the possibility of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). A confirmation of the diagnosis can be obtained through the detection of anti-dsDNA antibodies.

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can be investigated through various tests, including antibody tests. ANA testing is highly sensitive, making it useful for ruling out SLE, but it has low specificity. About 99% of SLE patients are ANA positive. Rheumatoid factor testing is positive in 20% of SLE patients. Anti-dsDNA testing is highly specific (>99%), but less sensitive (70%). Anti-Smith testing is also highly specific (>99%), but only 30% of SLE patients test positive. Other antibody tests include anti-U1 RNP, SS-A (anti-Ro), and SS-B (anti-La).

      Monitoring of SLE can be done through various markers, including inflammatory markers such as ESR. During active disease, CRP levels may be normal, but a raised CRP may indicate an underlying infection. Complement levels (C3, C4) are low during active disease due to the formation of complexes that lead to the consumption of complement. Anti-dsDNA titres can also be used for disease monitoring, but it is important to note that they are not present in all SLE patients. Proper monitoring of SLE is crucial for effective management of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old known cardiopath is brought to hospital by ambulance, complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. He looks pale and is very sweaty. Examination reveals a blood pressure of 80/55 mmHg, pulse of 135 bpm, SpO2 of 93% and bibasal wet crackles in the chest, as well as peripheral oedema. Peripheral pulses are palpable. A previous median sternotomy is noted. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals regular tachycardia, with QRS complexes of uniform amplitude, a QRS width of 164 ms and a rate of 135 bpm.
      What is the most important step in management?

      Your Answer: Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI

      Correct Answer: DC cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Management of Ventricular Tachycardia in a Patient with Ischaemic Heart Disease

      When faced with a patient with a broad-complex tachycardia, it is important to consider ventricular tachycardia as the most common cause, particularly in patients with a history of ischaemic heart disease. In a haemodynamically unstable patient with regular ventricular tachycardia, the initial step is to evaluate for adverse signs or symptoms. If present, the patient should be sedated and synchronised DC shock should be administered, followed by amiodarone infusion and correction of electrolyte abnormalities. If there are no adverse signs or symptoms, amiodarone IV and correction of electrolyte abnormalities should begin immediately.

      Other management options, such as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), IV magnesium, aspirin and clopidogrel, IV furosemide, and oxygen, may be indicated depending on the underlying cause of the ventricular tachycardia, but DC cardioversion is the most important step in a haemodynamically unstable patient. Diuretics are not indicated in a hypotensive patient, and improving cardiac function is the key to clearing fluid from the lungs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 14 kg 2-year-old girl with a history of vomiting and diarrhea for...

    Incorrect

    • A 14 kg 2-year-old girl with a history of vomiting and diarrhea for 4 days is brought to the pediatric emergency department due to increasing fussiness and fatigue. The child has not eaten anything for the past 24 hours and has only been able to tolerate a small amount of fluids. The mother also noticed that the child has been urinating less frequently.

      Upon examination, the child appears lethargic and unresponsive. The heart rate is 155 beats per minute (normal range: 90-140/min), respiratory rate is 30 breaths per minute (normal range: 20-30/min), and systolic blood pressure is 88 mmHg (normal range: 80-100 mmHg). The child's temperature is within normal limits.

      There are no skin rashes present. The capillary refill time is 3 seconds, and the child's extremities are cold and pale. Skin turgor is decreased, and the mucous membranes are dry. What can you conclude about the hydration status of the girl and how would you manage the patient based on your conclusion?

      Your Answer: There is late (decompensated) shock. Urgent fluid resuscitation is needed

      Correct Answer: There is early (compensated) shock. Urgent fluid resuscitation is needed

      Explanation:

      Managing Diarrhoea and Vomiting in Children

      Diarrhoea and vomiting are common in young children, with rotavirus being the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. According to the 2009 NICE guidelines, diarrhoea usually lasts for 5-7 days and stops within 2 weeks, while vomiting usually lasts for 1-2 days and stops within 3 days. When assessing hydration status, NICE recommends using normal, dehydrated, or shocked categories instead of the traditional mild, moderate, or severe categories.

      Children younger than 1 year, especially those younger than 6 months, infants who were of low birth weight, and those who have passed six or more diarrhoeal stools in the past 24 hours or vomited three times or more in the past 24 hours are at an increased risk of dehydration. Additionally, children who have not been offered or have not been able to tolerate supplementary fluids before presentation, infants who have stopped breastfeeding during the illness, and those with signs of malnutrition are also at risk.

      If clinical shock is suspected, children should be admitted for intravenous rehydration. For children without evidence of dehydration, it is recommended to continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds, encourage fluid intake, and discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks. If dehydration is suspected, give 50 ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) solution over 4 hours, plus ORS solution for maintenance, often and in small amounts. It is also important to continue breastfeeding and consider supplementing with usual fluids, including milk feeds or water, but not fruit juices or carbonated drinks.

      In terms of diagnosis, NICE suggests doing a stool culture in certain situations, such as when septicaemia is suspected, there is blood and/or mucous in the stool, or the child is immunocompromised. A stool culture should also be considered if the child has recently been abroad, the diarrhoea has not improved by day 7, or there is uncertainty about the diagnosis of gastroenteritis. Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration include jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, convulsions, and drowsiness or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 36-year-old HIV positive woman has been experiencing occasional headaches for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old HIV positive woman has been experiencing occasional headaches for the past 6 months but has not received any treatment. Recently, she started vomiting frequently and developed diplopia and a stiff neck. She was taken to the accident and emergency department for treatment. What are the possible treatment options for this woman?

      Your Answer: acyclovir

      Correct Answer: CSF drainage

      Explanation:

      Cryptococcal Meningitis in HIV-Infected Individuals

      HIV-infected individuals are susceptible to various opportunistic infections, including meningitis caused by viruses, mycobacteria, or fungi. Cryptococcal meningitis is a common infection in these individuals and can present insidiously, leading to much morbidity. This infection is notorious for causing raised intracranial tension, which can result in vomiting and altered consciousness.

      Treatment for cryptococcal meningitis involves periodic drainage of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), as steroids and mannitol have not been found to be effective in lowering CSF pressure. The mainstay of treatment is Amphotericin B, with 5-flucytosine or fluconazole added. Diagnosis may be delayed as overt signs of meningism, such as neck stiffness, may be absent.

      Tubercular meningitis may present similarly, but it progresses faster than cryptococcal meningitis. Steroids are used in tubercular meningitis but not in isolation, so they are not a good choice for cryptococcal meningitis. Acute bacterial meningitis is treated with ceftriaxone and vancomycin, but this case was slowly evolving over six months and is unlikely to be bacterial meningitis. acyclovir is used for viral meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      65.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A nurse in the Emergency Department presents an electrocardiogram (ECG) to you. The...

    Correct

    • A nurse in the Emergency Department presents an electrocardiogram (ECG) to you. The elderly patient is feeling breathless and has long-standing limited mobility. The ECG shows a sinus tachycardia with an S-wave in lead I, Q-wave in lead III and T-wave inversion in lead III.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary embolus

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Pulmonary Embolus Based on ECG Findings

      The ECG changes observed in this clinical presentation strongly suggest a pulmonary embolus. Pulmonary embolism occurs when a blood clot blocks one of the blood vessels in the lungs, leading to symptoms such as chest pain, breathlessness, and sudden collapse. Patients who are immobile or have undergone surgery are at a higher risk of developing this condition, which accounts for around 50% of cases that occur in hospital. To confirm the diagnosis, further tests such as a computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) or ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan may be required. Although exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a possible differential diagnosis, the history of immobility, sinus tachycardia, and ECG changes make pulmonary embolism more likely. The ECG findings are not consistent with supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) or non-ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and there is no evidence of ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      68.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - The following blood gas values were obtained on a different ventilated patient.
    pH 7.4...

    Incorrect

    • The following blood gas values were obtained on a different ventilated patient.
      pH 7.4 (7.35-7.45)
      pO2 95 mmHg (90-120)
      Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L (23-26)
      pCO2 30 mmHg (35-45)
      What is the most appropriate explanation for these results?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Alkalosis: Causes and Effects

      Respiratory alkalosis is a condition that occurs when a person hyperventilates, leading to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) in the alveoli. This decrease in PaCO2 causes an increase in the ratio of bicarbonate concentration (HCO3) to PaCO2, which in turn increases the pH of the blood. As a result, the patient may appear to have an alkalosis with a high pH of 7.5, low pCO2, and normal PO2. However, the body tries to compensate for this by lowering the bicarbonate concentration. This condition can be caused by a variety of factors, including anxiety, fever, hypoxia, and pulmonary disease. It can also be a side effect of certain medications or a result of high altitude. Treatment for respiratory alkalosis depends on the underlying cause and may include addressing the underlying condition, breathing techniques, or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      87.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old healthcare worker presents to the occupational health service clinic at the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old healthcare worker presents to the occupational health service clinic at the hospital due to her potential involvement in a cluster of MRSA cases on her unit. Upon evaluation, it is discovered that she is a carrier of MRSA in her nasal passages.

      What is the recommended course of treatment for this individual's MRSA colonisation?

      Your Answer: Mupirocin ointment to the nose and chlorhexidine washes

      Explanation:

      Treating Nasal Carriage of MRSA

      Nasal carriage of MRSA can be reduced with the use of chlorhexidine, mupirocin, and neomycin creams. However, the most effective treatment is a combination of nasal mupirocin and chlorhexidine wash. Regular face washing is not likely to have any impact, and oral flucloxacillin is ineffective against MRSA. While oral vancomycin is useful in treating C. difficile, it is not effective in treating systemic infections as it remains in the gut. Unfortunately, nasal carriage of MRSA is likely to recur in susceptible individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      30.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (1/1) 100%
Surgery (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Respiratory (1/1) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Clinical Sciences (1/1) 100%
Passmed