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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old male complained of an annular rash following an insect bite he...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male complained of an annular rash following an insect bite he received during a hiking trip. Which of the following is the drug of choice?

      Your Answer: Flucloxacillin PO

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline PO

      Explanation:

      The described rash is the typical rash of erythema migrans of Lyme disease, which is treated by doxycycline PO

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be...

    Correct

    • In which one of the following diseases does the patient have to be isolated?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      Measles and chickenpox are spread by droplets. Thus, patients should be isolated.
      Rheumatic fever and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are immune mediated diseases that don’t require isolation.
      Herpetic gingivostomatitis spreads by direct transmission of infected secretions to the stratified squamous epithelium.
      HSP is not an infectious disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia,...

    Correct

    • An 8-week-old baby was found to have bilateral cataracts. Further investigation revealed thrombocytopenia, a patent ductus arteriosus and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Explanation:

      The clinical presentation is suggestive of congenital rubella syndrome. The classic triad of presenting symptoms includes sensorineural hearing loss, ocular abnormalities (cataract, infantile glaucoma, and pigmentary retinopathy) and congenital heart disease (patent ductus arteriosus and pulmonary artery stenosis). Other findings in congenital rubella syndrome include CNS abnormalities (mental retardation, behavioural disorders, encephalographic abnormalities, hypotonia, meningoencephalitis, and microcephaly), hepatosplenomegaly, and jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following vaccines do not contain live organisms?

      Your Answer: Polio (Salk)

      Explanation:

      Live virus vaccines include: Vaccinia (smallpox), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR combined vaccine), Varicella (chickenpox), Influenza (nasal spray), Rotavirus, Zoster (shingles) and Yellow fever. Inactivated vaccines are Polio (IPV), Hepatitis A and Rabies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is HIV positive. She is very concerned that she is at increased risk of cancer. Which one of the following cancers is NOT increased in HIV positive people?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Breast cancer has a lower incidence in HIV positive patients. Seminoma, Hodgkin’s disease, anal cancer, and non-small cell lung cancer are all increased incidence. Memorize this breast cancer fact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      49.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives...

    Correct

    • A paediatrician has concerns that a 6-month-old baby is deaf. His mom gives history of having had a sore throat, fever and lymphadenitis during pregnancy. Which organism may be responsible for causing deafness in her infant?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Explanation:

      CMV is a common viral infection that can be transmitted from a pregnant woman to her unborn child, leading to congenital CMV infection. Congenital CMV infection can result in a range of symptoms and complications in newborns, including deafness. In fact, CMV is one of the leading causes of non-genetic sensorineural hearing loss in children.

      Given the mother’s history of symptoms during pregnancy and the concern for deafness in the infant, CMV should also be considered as a potential cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary...

    Incorrect

    • A new-born male is admitted to NICU with convulsions, limb hypoplasia and rudimentary digits. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

      Correct Answer: Varicella

      Explanation:

      Infection of chickenpox in the first half of pregnancy can result in congenital varicella syndrome. It presents as cerebral, cortical and cerebellar hypoplasia with convulsions and rudimentary digits. Prevention is by administering varicella vaccine, even before pregnancy. Varicella immunoglobulin is administered to pregnant women who are exposed to infection. Infection during pregnancy is treated with acyclovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 3 month old infant born to an HIV positive mother presents with jaundice, epileptic seizures and microcephaly. The most likely cause will be?

      Your Answer: Varicella

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital CMV infection can occur when a pregnant woman is infected with the cytomegalovirus (CMV) and passes the virus to her unborn child. Infants infected with CMV during pregnancy can exhibit a range of symptoms, including jaundice, seizures, and microcephaly (abnormally small head size). These symptoms are consistent with congenital CMV infection.

      Given the mother’s HIV-positive status, the infant may have been at increased risk of acquiring other infections, including CMV, due to potential immunodeficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman returns from a summer holiday with a dry cough. Her CXR shows bilateral consolidated areas. Which antibiotic would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      Ciprofloxacin is a well-established broad-spectrum fluoroquinolone antibiotic that penetrates well into the lung tissues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old man presents with fever and extensive pre-auricular swelling on the right side of his face. However, tenderness is present bilaterally. He also complains of acute pain and otalgia on the right aspect of the face. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: OM with effusion

      Correct Answer: Mumps

      Explanation:

      Mumps presents with a prodromal phase of general malaise and fever. On examination there is usually painful parotid swelling which has high chances of becoming bilateral. In OM with effusion there are no signs of infection and the only symptom is usually hearing loss. Acute otitis externa produces otalgia as well as ear discharge and itching. Acute OM produces otalgia and specific findings upon otoscopy. In acute mastoiditis the patient experiences ear discharge, otalgia, headache, hearing loss and other general signs of inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      63
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female presented with weight loss, night sweats and abdominal pain for 6 months. Abdominal ultrasound scan showed a tubo-ovarian mass. What is the most likely organism, which is responsible for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

      Correct Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

      Explanation:

      Constitutional symptoms such as weight loss, evening pyrexia and night sweats are associated with Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (TB). TB can affect any system of the body and should be top in the list of differentials particularly if the patient has a history of contact with a known TB patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      13.1
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 60-year-old male who has been on IV antibiotics for severe pneumonia developed...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old male who has been on IV antibiotics for severe pneumonia developed profuse, watery, green coloured diarrhoea on the fifth day of antibiotics. What is the most likely organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Correct Answer: Clostridium difficile

      Explanation:

      The most probable cause for diarrhoea is pseudomembranous colitis which is caused by Clostridium difficile. Pseudomembranous colitis is an inflammatory disease of the colon where the antibiotic-induced change in the balance of normal gut flora allows overgrowth of C difficile. Any antibiotic can cause this but the chances are higher with ampicillin, clindamycin, fluoroquinolones, and cephalosporins.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What is the mode of spread of chickenpox? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the mode of spread of chickenpox?

      Your Answer: Feco-Oral

      Correct Answer: Airborne

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox is a highly communicable viral disease caused by human (alpha) herpesvirus 3 (varicella-zoster virus, VZV). It is transmitted from person to person by direct contact (touching the rash), droplet or air born spread (coughing and sneezing).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 34-year-old's chest x-ray showed diffuse bilateral alveolar shadows. He also suffers from...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old's chest x-ray showed diffuse bilateral alveolar shadows. He also suffers from shortness of breath, weight loss and dry cough due to Kaposi's sarcoma but no fever was noted. Which is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Correct Answer: Pneumocystis jiroveci

      Explanation:

      Pneumocystis Jiroveci. This causative organism is responsible for pneumonia in individuals that have a compromised immune system. Symptoms include cyanosis, dry cough and in some cases, diffuse bilateral alveolar shadows on CXR. Co-trimoxazole is normally the treatment for this.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 72-year-old woman who presented with headache and neck stiffness was started on...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old woman who presented with headache and neck stiffness was started on IV ceftriaxone after undergoing a lumber puncture. The CSF culture shows listeria monocytogenes. What is the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer: Add IV co-amoxiclav

      Correct Answer: Change to IV amoxicillin + gentamicin

      Explanation:

      The best option would be the combination of ampicillin and gentamycin. Changing to IV amoxicillin+gentamycin is however the best among the given choices here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding Giardia Lamblia which one of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding Giardia Lamblia which one of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: May be excluded by stool microscopy

      Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption

      Explanation:

      Giardiasis also known as travellers diarrhoea is caused by Giardia lamblia, which is an anaerobic parasite affecting the small intestine. It can lead to diarrhoea, flatulence, abdominal cramps, malodourous greasy stools and intestinal malabsorption. It can also cause bloody diarrhoea. The investigation of choice is stool examination for trophozoites and cysts. It is treated by metronidazole and tinidazole as first line therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      27.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female presents to OPD with itching hands, elbows, axillae and groin. Other members residing with her at the retirement home also have similar complaints. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura

      Correct Answer: Scabies

      Explanation:

      Scabies is due to an infestation of Sarcoptes scabiei and most commonly presents with these symptoms. The organism resides in burrows in a pattern specifically affecting the interdigital spaces and the skin folds of the arms and legs. The infection spreads from one person to another, especially in populated communities, through close contact.
      Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a type of vascular inflammation.
      Psoriasis rash is characterised by scaly plaques affecting the extensor surfaces of the body. Pemphigus vulgaris and bullous pemphigoid both are bullous disorders of the skin. They may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions and there may be involvement in other sites; erosions in the mouth are typically involved in pemphigus vulgaris. Bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following diseases correctly matches the incubation period?

      Your Answer: Measles: 5 - 7 days

      Correct Answer: Mumps: 14 - 18 days

      Explanation:

      The incubation periods of disorders is extremely important to diagnose, treat, prevent or attenuate a disease.

      • Chickenpox: 7-21 days.
      • Whooping cough: 10-14 days.
      • Hand, foot and mouth disease: 2-6 days.
      • German measles: 14-21 days.
      • Mumps: 14-18 days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old pregnant mother who is known to have hepatitis B gave birth...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant mother who is known to have hepatitis B gave birth to a male infant. She is now concerned about her child contracting hep B. Which of the following is the most suitable option for the baby in this case?

      Your Answer: HepB vaccine once and Ig

      Correct Answer: HepB full vaccine and Ig

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis B full vaccine and Ig should be given to babies born to hepatitis B positive mothers. Hepatitis B vaccine alone or Ig alone is not sufficient to prevent the infection in the new-born baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient that has just returned from India, complains of dyspnoea. On examination, you notice grey membranes on the uvula and tonsils and a low-grade fever. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Correct Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      Characteristic findings on patients suffering from diphtheria are the grey membrane on the uvula and tonsils together with the low grade fever and dyspnoea. It’s of great importance that the patient has recently been to India where there is a know prevalence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of MRSA?...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of MRSA?

      Your Answer: Vancomycin

      Correct Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Cephalosporins, such as ceftriaxone, do not cover methicillin-resistant staph aureus. They do cover some gram positives and gram negatives. Vancomycin and teicoplanin given intravenously have good coverage of MRSA and other gram positive bacteria. Rifampicin and doxycycline, although not the best treatment, can be used for outpatients if there are no systemic signs of illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      25.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25 year old female presented with blisters on the tongue. Some of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female presented with blisters on the tongue. Some of them secreted pinkish fluid while some were crusted. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Correct Answer: HSV1

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of acute gingivostomatitis, which is a manifestation of primary HSV-1 infection. Patients present with gingivitis and vesicular lesions which develop on the oral mucosa, tongue, and lips and later rupture and coalesce, leaving ulcerated plaques.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 32 year old Indian male presents to the clinic with fever, cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old Indian male presents to the clinic with fever, cough and an enlarged cervical lymph node. Examination reveals a caseating granuloma in the lymph node. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Goitre

      Correct Answer: TB adenitis

      Explanation:

      Tuberculous lymphadenitis is a chronic, specific granulomatous inflammation of the lymph node with caseation necrosis, caused by infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis or a related bacteria. The characteristic morphological element is the tuberculous granuloma (caseating tubercle).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding neonatal meningitis, which of the following statements is true?

      Your Answer: Is always associated with a bulging anterior fontanelle

      Correct Answer: Has an above average incidence in babies with a meningomyelocele

      Explanation:

      The commonest time for bacterial meningitis is in the 1st month of life and group B Streptococcus is the commonest organism. The anterior fontanelle is full, but does not bulge with normal flexion. Neurological manifestations include seizures, irritability, poor tone, lethargy and tremors, however no findings of sensorineural deafness have been noted. One of the risk factors for introduction of meningeal infection is Meningomyelocele.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old man has been unwell for the last 3 weeks and now...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old man has been unwell for the last 3 weeks and now developed a rash. Chickenpox is diagnosed. What is the appropriate treatment?

      Your Answer: Acyclovir

      Explanation:

      You may treat chickenpox with acyclovir if it is commenced within the first 24 hours of the rash’s appearance. Erythromycin, doxycycline, and ampicillin would not help because it’s a viral infection (Varicella) not a bacterial infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      28.6
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman diagnosed with type 2 diabetes presents with vomiting and diarrhoea after eating a meal of chicken and chips. She said her stool had small amounts of blood in. Campylobacter Jejuni was found on her stool culture exam. Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Campylobacter is the most likely cause of diarrheal illness often due to undercooked meat being ingested. It is also a major cause of traveller’s diarrhoea. Sufficient fluid replacement and anti-emetics are indicated first followed by the antibiotic, Erythromycin although antibiotic treatment in adults is still in question. Ciprofloxacin and Tetracycline may also be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 25-year-old pregnant female suddenly developed a rash on her torso. It started...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant female suddenly developed a rash on her torso. It started as macules and then became vesicles. After 3 days she died. During her post-mortem, positive findings suggestive of pneumonitis were found. Which one of the following is the most common cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus (VZV)

      Explanation:

      Varicella zoster virus (VZV) presents in this way and the rash transforms from macules to vesicles. Pneumonitis is a common complication of VZV infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 6-year-old boy with fever and malaise for 2 days recently developed bloody...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy with fever and malaise for 2 days recently developed bloody diarrhoea. What is the most probable aetiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Escherichia coli 0157

      Explanation:

      The most likely organism is enterohemorrhagic verotoxin-producing E.coli. It usually causes haemolytic uremic syndrome.
      Crohn’s disease rarely manifests in an acute manner.
      Polio and giardiasis usually manifest with non-bloody diarrhoea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis infection during pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Tetracycline is not recommended in pregnancy because of the risk to fetal development (bones, teeth!). Metronidazole in pregnancy: currently not thought to be an increased risk in pregnancy; however this is not effective against chlamydia. Amoxicillin is shown to be an adequate treatment for chlamydia, so this is the correct answer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision....

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old homosexual male is complaining of recent weight loss and blurred vision. A fundoscope was performed showing retinal haemorrhage. What is the single most appropriate option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HIV/AIDS

      Explanation:

      Given the symptoms described in a 31-year-old homosexual male, along with the findings of weight loss, blurred vision, and retinal hemorrhage, the single most appropriate option to consider is HIV/AIDS.

      HIV/AIDS can manifest with a wide range of symptoms, including unintentional weight loss and blurred vision. Retinal hemorrhage can also occur as a complication of HIV/AIDS, particularly in advanced stages when the immune system is severely compromised.

      In this case, it’s important to conduct further diagnostic tests, including HIV testing, to confirm the diagnosis. Additionally, prompt initiation of antiretroviral therapy (ART) is crucial for managing HIV/AIDS and preventing further complications. Referral to an infectious disease specialist for comprehensive management is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • The following are commonly recognized disease syndromes associated with Clostridium species, except:

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: exfoliative skin rash

      Explanation:

      Clostridium species do not present with an exfoliative skin rash. C. perfringens is a common aetiology in necrotizing infections (gas gangrene) as well as food poisoning, which often also includes diarrhoea. C. difficle causes diarrhoea. C. tetany and C. botulinum have neurotoxins that can lead to paralysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus...

    Incorrect

    • A 55 year old lady who a known case of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH) presented with complaints of weakness in her lower limbs, urinary incontinence and progressively worsening confusion. Which of the following statements is true regarding NPH?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Is associated with gait disturbance

      Explanation:

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a form of communicating hydrocephalus characterised by enlarged ventricles with normal opening pressure on lumbar puncture. For diagnostic purposes, a triad of urinary incontinence, gait abnormality and dementia is necessary. It is necessary to diagnose the condition early because it is reversible by placing a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. It is most common in patients aged more than 60 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
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  • Question 33 - A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy admitted with fever for 2 days had a left sided focal fits, which persisted for 4 minutes. There was no history of head injury. On examination, he was drowsy but there were no focal neurological signs. Urine dipstick was negative. What is the investigation of choice that can be done at this stage to arrive at a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CSF analysis

      Explanation:

      This presentation could be due to either a meningitis or encephalitis, which are clinically not distinguishable from the given history. Encephalitis is mostly viral and in UK herpes simplex virus is the main cause. Advanced neuro imaging and EEG will help to differentiate them however from the given answers CSF analysis is the most appropriate, provided that intracranial pressure is not raised. CSF analysis will help to differentiate a pyogenic meningitis from other forms of meningitis and encephalitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know...

    Incorrect

    • A health professional plans to visit Brazil but has recently come to know that there is epidemic of West Nile virus there. Regarding the virus, which of the following is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treatment including with interferon, immunoglobulin and Ribavirin is effective

      Explanation:

      West Nile virus is an RNA virus transmitted by the Culex species of mosquitoes. It is mostly prevalent in South America, Africa and some parts of Europe. Clinically it presents with high grade fever, headache, abdominal pain, anorexia and a morbilliform rash over the body. It can also lead to meningitis, encephalitis and flaccid paralysis by affecting the anterior horn cells, a process suggesting similarity to poliomyelitis. It can be fatal if not treated abruptly. Studies suggest that it can be transferred from mother to offspring. New-borns may present with encephalitis, chorioretinitis and wide spread brain damage. Patients suffering from West Nile virus can be effectively treated with interferon, IV immunoglobulin and Ribavirin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 20-year-old boy returning from vacation in India presented with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old boy returning from vacation in India presented with a history of fever, myalgia, headache and abdominal pain for 4 days duration. He revealed that he had bathed in a river during his vacation. On examination, he had severe muscle tenderness, hypotension (BP - 80/60mmHg) and tachycardia (140 bpm). What would be the first step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV normal saline

      Explanation:

      The history is suggestive of leptospirosis. This is a zoonotic infection caused by a spirochete. As the patient is in shock, resuscitation with IV fluids is the first step in the management. IV antibiotics should be started (Doxycycline or Penicillin) as soon as possible. Other investigations mentioned are important during the management to rule out other possible diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is correct regarding toxoplasmosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Can present with fits in patients with AIDS

      Explanation:

      T. gondii infection in immunocompetent people is usually asymptomatic. It can present as fits in patients with AIDs, who are immunosuppressed. Additionally, infection in the first trimester of pregnancy is very harmful. Congenital toxoplasmosis presents with intracranial calcifications, classically. It can also present with hydrocephalus, microcephaly, blindness, petechiae. Siramycin is the drug of choice to try to prevent vertical transmission from mother to baby. It is typically gotten from cat faeces or raw/undercooked meat, not raw eggs (raw eggs: think salmonella).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox....

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester met a child with chickenpox. She was investigated for the varicella antibody, which came back negative. She visited her GP. Which of the following measures is the most appropriate one?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ig

      Explanation:

      After the exposure to chickenpox while pregnant, even if the patient is negative for antibodies she requires immunoglobulin to prevent further issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant...

    Incorrect

    • There are number of diseases that have to be notified to the consultant responsible for communicable disease control. Which of the following conditions does not belong to above category?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pneumococcal pneumonia

      Explanation:

      There are number of diseases that have to be notified to relevant authorities to prevent or reduce their spread. Those conditions include Cholera, Diphtheria, Food poisoning, Infectious bloody diarrhoea, Malaria, Measles, Meningococcal septicaemia, Mumps, Plague, Rabies and Rubella.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 32 year old man notices a pruritic scaly annular rash on his...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old man notices a pruritic scaly annular rash on his thigh. He claims that the rash appeared after a walk in the park. Which drug would you suggest he starts?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      The clinical picture of an itchy, scaly annular rash after a walk in the park suggests erythema migrans. The pathogen responsible is a spirochete, Borrelia Burgdorferi transmitted by ticks leading to Lyme disease. Doxycycline is the antibiotic of choice if no contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - Which of the following is true of Koplik’s spots? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is true of Koplik’s spots?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Are diagnostic of measles

      Explanation:

      Koplik’s spots are pathopneumonic for MEASLES. They are blue/white spots, small, occurring on the buccal mucosa. They typically occur next to premolars, not opposite to the incisors. They are not related to fever height. They are not on the hands. They usually occur BEFORE the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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Infectious Diseases (16/25) 64%
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