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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female patient complains of dysuria and frequent urination for the past 3 days. She denies experiencing any vaginal discharge or heavy menstrual bleeding. Upon urine dipstick examination, leukocytes and nitrites are detected. A urine culture reveals the presence of a urease-producing bacteria identified as Proteus mirabilis. The patient is prescribed antibiotics for treatment.
What type of renal stones are patients at risk for developing with chronic and recurrent infections caused by this bacteria?Your Answer: Cystine
Correct Answer: Ammonium magnesium phosphate (struvite)
Explanation:The formation of kidney stones is a common condition that involves the accumulation of mineral deposits in the kidneys. This condition is influenced by various risk factors such as low urine volume, dry weather conditions, and acidic pH levels. It is also closely linked to hyperuricemia, which is commonly associated with gout, as well as diseases that involve high cell turnover, such as leukemia.
Renal stones can be classified into different types based on their composition. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 85% of all calculi. These stones are formed due to hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, and hypocitraturia. They are radio-opaque and may also bind with uric acid stones. Cystine stones are rare and occur due to an inherited recessive disorder of transmembrane cystine transport. Uric acid stones are formed due to purine metabolism and may precipitate when urinary pH is low. Calcium phosphate stones are associated with renal tubular acidosis and high urinary pH. Struvite stones are formed from magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate and are associated with chronic infections. The pH of urine can help determine the type of stone present, with calcium phosphate stones forming in normal to alkaline urine, uric acid stones forming in acidic urine, and struvate stones forming in alkaline urine. Cystine stones form in normal urine pH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 45-year-old female is admitted to the hospital for investigation of recently developed hypertension, myalgia, and a facial rash. She experiences a decline in kidney function and complains of muscle aches and ankle swelling during her hospital stay. A kidney biopsy and urine sample are taken, revealing a proliferative 'wire-loop' glomerular lesion on histopathological assessment. The urinalysis shows proteinuria but no presence of leukocytes or nitrites. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:Lupus nephritis is characterized by proliferative ‘wire-loop’ glomerular histology, proteinuria, and systemic symptoms. This condition occurs when autoimmune processes in SLE cause inflammation and damage to the glomeruli. Symptoms may include oedema, myalgia, arthralgia, hypertension, and foamy-appearing urine due to high levels of protein. Acute tubular necrosis primarily affects the tubules and does not typically present with proteinuria. Congestive heart failure and IgA nephropathy can cause proteinuria, but they do not result in the ‘wire-loop’ glomerular lesion seen in lupus nephritis. Pyelonephritis may also cause proteinuria, but it is an infectious process and would present with additional symptoms such as nitrites, leukocytes, and blood in the urine.
Renal Complications in Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) can lead to severe renal complications, including lupus nephritis, which can result in end-stage renal disease. Regular check-ups with urinalysis are necessary to detect proteinuria in SLE patients. The WHO classification system categorizes lupus nephritis into six classes, with class IV being the most common and severe form. Renal biopsy shows characteristic findings such as endothelial and mesangial proliferation, a wire-loop appearance, and subendothelial immune complex deposits.
Management of lupus nephritis involves treating hypertension and using glucocorticoids with either mycophenolate or cyclophosphamide for initial therapy in cases of focal (class III) or diffuse (class IV) lupus nephritis. Mycophenolate is generally preferred over azathioprine for subsequent therapy to decrease the risk of developing end-stage renal disease. Early detection and proper management of renal complications in SLE patients are crucial to prevent irreversible damage to the kidneys.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A healthy 35-year-old man gives a blood donation of 500ml. What is the most probable process that will take place?
Your Answer: Sweating
Correct Answer: Activation of the renin angiotensin system
Explanation:Losing 500ml of fluid (for a 70 Kg male) is typically enough to trigger the renin angiotensin system, but it is unlikely to cause any other bodily disruptions.
Understanding Bleeding and its Effects on the Body
Bleeding, even if it is of a small volume, triggers a response in the body that causes generalised splanchnic vasoconstriction. This response is mediated by the activation of the sympathetic nervous system. The process of vasoconstriction is usually enough to maintain renal perfusion and cardiac output if the volume of blood lost is small. However, if greater volumes of blood are lost, the renin angiotensin system is activated, resulting in haemorrhagic shock.
The body’s physiological measures can restore circulating volume if the source of bleeding ceases. Ongoing bleeding, on the other hand, will result in haemorrhagic shock. Blood loss is typically quantified by the degree of shock produced, which is determined by parameters such as blood loss volume, pulse rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, urine output, and symptoms. Understanding the effects of bleeding on the body is crucial in managing and treating patients who experience blood loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man has had a radical nephrectomy. Upon bisecting the kidney, the pathologist observes a pink fleshy tumor in the renal pelvis. What is the probable illness?
Your Answer: Renal adenoma
Correct Answer: Transitional cell carcinoma
Explanation:Renal tumours typically have a yellow or brown hue, but TCCs stand out as they have a pink appearance. If a TCC is detected in the renal pelvis, a nephroureterectomy is necessary.
Renal Lesions: Types, Features, and Treatments
Renal lesions refer to abnormal growths or masses that develop in the kidneys. There are different types of renal lesions, each with its own disease-specific features and treatment options. Renal cell carcinoma is the most common renal tumor, accounting for 85% of cases. It often presents with haematuria and may cause hypertension and polycythaemia as paraneoplastic features. Treatment usually involves radical or partial nephrectomy.
Nephroblastoma, also known as Wilms tumor, is a rare childhood tumor that accounts for 80% of all genitourinary malignancies in those under the age of 15 years. It often presents with a mass and hypertension. Diagnostic workup includes ultrasound and CT scanning, and treatment involves surgical resection combined with chemotherapy. Neuroblastoma is the most common extracranial tumor of childhood, with up to 80% occurring in those under 4 years of age. It is a tumor of neural crest origin and may be diagnosed using MIBG scanning. Treatment involves surgical resection, radiotherapy, and chemotherapy.
Transitional cell carcinoma accounts for 90% of lower urinary tract tumors but only 10% of renal tumors. It often presents with painless haematuria and may be caused by occupational exposure to industrial dyes and rubber chemicals. Diagnosis and staging are done with CT IVU, and treatment involves radical nephroureterectomy. Angiomyolipoma is a hamartoma type lesion that occurs sporadically in 80% of cases and in those with tuberous sclerosis in the remaining cases. It is composed of blood vessels, smooth muscle, and fat and may cause massive bleeding in 10% of cases. Surgical resection is required for lesions larger than 4 cm and causing symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 44-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department with intermittent sharp pain in her right flank and haematuria. She reports feeling slightly nauseous, but otherwise feels well. She has a medical history of hyperparathyroidism, but has never experienced these symptoms before. Her body mass index is 28kg/m² and she admits to regularly consuming takeaways. During examination, she appears restless and exhibits tenderness in her right flank.
What is the probable substance responsible for causing this patient's pain?Your Answer: Calcium oxalate
Explanation:Renal stones are predominantly made up of calcium phosphate, and individuals with renal tubular acidosis are at a higher risk of developing them. Uric acid stones, which make up only 5-10% of cases, are often associated with malignancies.
Renal stones can be classified into different types based on their composition. Calcium oxalate stones are the most common, accounting for 85% of all calculi. These stones are formed due to hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, and hypocitraturia. They are radio-opaque and may also bind with uric acid stones. Cystine stones are rare and occur due to an inherited recessive disorder of transmembrane cystine transport. Uric acid stones are formed due to purine metabolism and may precipitate when urinary pH is low. Calcium phosphate stones are associated with renal tubular acidosis and high urinary pH. Struvite stones are formed from magnesium, ammonium, and phosphate and are associated with chronic infections. The pH of urine can help determine the type of stone present, with calcium phosphate stones forming in normal to alkaline urine, uric acid stones forming in acidic urine, and struvate stones forming in alkaline urine. Cystine stones form in normal urine pH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 15-year-old boy presents to the ED with severe left flank pain that extends to his groin. He describes his symptoms as 'passing stones,' which he has been experiencing 'since he was a child.' His father also reports having similar issues since childhood. Upon urinalysis, hexagonal crystals are detected, and the urinary cyanide nitroprusside test is positive.
What is the most probable reason for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Amino acid transport abnormality
Explanation:Recurrent kidney stones from childhood and positive family history for nephrolithiasis suggest cystinuria, which is characterized by impaired transport of cystine and dibasic amino acids. The urinary cyanide-nitroprusside test can confirm the diagnosis. Other causes of kidney stones include excess uric acid excretion (gout), excessive intestinal reabsorption of oxalate (Crohn’s disease), infection with urease-producing microorganisms (struvite stones), and primary hyperparathyroidism (calcium oxalate stones).
Understanding Cystinuria: A Genetic Disorder Causing Recurrent Renal Stones
Cystinuria is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent renal stones due to a defect in the membrane transport of cystine, ornithine, lysine, and arginine. This autosomal recessive disorder is caused by mutations in two genes, SLC3A1 on chromosome 2 and SLC7A9 on chromosome 19.
The hallmark feature of cystinuria is the formation of yellow and crystalline renal stones that appear semi-opaque on x-ray. To diagnose cystinuria, a cyanide-nitroprusside test is performed.
Management of cystinuria involves hydration, D-penicillamine, and urinary alkalinization. These treatments help to prevent the formation of renal stones and reduce the risk of complications.
In summary, cystinuria is a genetic disorder that causes recurrent renal stones. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes for individuals with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female patient complains of chronic flank pain. Her family history reveals a brother with similar symptoms and a mother who died from a subarachnoid haemorrhage. Bilateral renal ultrasound shows multiple cysts. Which chromosome is most likely to be affected in this genetic disorder?
Your Answer: 17
Correct Answer: 16
Explanation:Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a commonly inherited kidney disease that affects 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2 respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for 15% of cases. ADPKD type 1 is caused by a mutation in the PKD1 gene on chromosome 16, while ADPKD type 2 is caused by a mutation in the PKD2 gene on chromosome 4. ADPKD type 1 tends to present with renal failure earlier than ADPKD type 2.
To screen for ADPKD in relatives of affected individuals, an abdominal ultrasound is recommended. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, if the individual is under 30 years old. If the individual is between 30-59 years old, two cysts in both kidneys are required for diagnosis. If the individual is over 60 years old, four cysts in both kidneys are necessary for diagnosis.
For some patients with ADPKD, tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, may be an option to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. However, NICE recommends tolvaptan only for adults with ADPKD who have chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is being evaluated for possible Addison's disease due to experiencing atypical exhaustion and observing a mild bronzing of her skin. The underlying cause is believed to be an autoimmune assault on the adrenal cortex, leading to reduced secretion of aldosterone.
What is the typical physiological trigger for the production of this steroid hormone?Your Answer: Angiotensin II
Explanation:The correct answer is Angiotensin II, which stimulates the release of aldosterone. It also has the ability to stimulate the release of ADH, increase blood pressure, and influence the kidneys to retain sodium and water.
Angiotensin I is not the correct answer as it is converted to angiotensin II by ACE and does not have a direct role in the release of aldosterone by the adrenal cortex.
ACE is released by the capillaries in the lungs and is responsible for converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
Angiotensinogen is not the correct answer as it is the first step in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. It is released by the liver and converted to angiotensin I by renin.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 58-year-old man is having a radical nephrectomy performed through a posterior approach. What is the structure that is most likely to be encountered during the surgical procedure?
Your Answer: 12th rib
Explanation:During a posterior approach, the kidneys may come across the 11th and 12th ribs which are located at the back. It is important to note that a potential complication of this surgery is the occurrence of a pneumothorax.
Renal Anatomy: Understanding the Structure and Relations of the Kidneys
The kidneys are two bean-shaped organs located in a deep gutter alongside the vertebral bodies. They measure about 11cm long, 5cm wide, and 3 cm thick, with the left kidney usually positioned slightly higher than the right. The upper pole of both kidneys approximates with the 11th rib, while the lower border is usually alongside L3. The kidneys are surrounded by an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which contains pyramidal structures that terminate at the renal pelvis into the ureter. The renal sinus lies within the kidney and contains branches of the renal artery, tributaries of the renal vein, major and minor calyces, and fat.
The anatomical relations of the kidneys vary depending on the side. The right kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, and transversus abdominis, while the left kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, transversus abdominis, stomach, pancreas, spleen, and distal part of the small intestine. Each kidney and suprarenal gland is enclosed within a common layer of investing fascia, derived from the transversalis fascia, which is divided into anterior and posterior layers (Gerotas fascia).
At the renal hilum, the renal vein lies most anteriorly, followed by the renal artery (an end artery), and the ureter lies most posteriorly. Understanding the structure and relations of the kidneys is crucial in diagnosing and treating renal diseases and disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman presents with collapse and weakness on her left side. Her husband reports that she has a medical history of hyperthyroidism, diabetes, and autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, but no known drug allergies. A CT scan of her head reveals a significant intracerebral bleed on the left side. What is the probable cause of the bleed?
Your Answer: Paradoxical embolism
Correct Answer: Ruptured berry aneurysm
Explanation:Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease increases the risk of brain haemorrhage due to ruptured berry aneurysms.
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a commonly inherited kidney disease that affects 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2 respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for 15% of cases. ADPKD type 1 is caused by a mutation in the PKD1 gene on chromosome 16, while ADPKD type 2 is caused by a mutation in the PKD2 gene on chromosome 4. ADPKD type 1 tends to present with renal failure earlier than ADPKD type 2.
To screen for ADPKD in relatives of affected individuals, an abdominal ultrasound is recommended. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, if the individual is under 30 years old. If the individual is between 30-59 years old, two cysts in both kidneys are required for diagnosis. If the individual is over 60 years old, four cysts in both kidneys are necessary for diagnosis.
For some patients with ADPKD, tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, may be an option to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. However, NICE recommends tolvaptan only for adults with ADPKD who have chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man has been diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. He has a medical history of systemic lupus erythematosus and chronic heart failure. Currently, he is taking statins, paracetamol, ramipril, prednisolone, and verapamil. Which of these medications will need to be discontinued due to his recent diagnosis?
Your Answer: Verapamil
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:When a patient is experiencing acute kidney injury (AKI), it is important to discontinue certain medications that can exacerbate the condition. These medications include ACE inhibitors/ARBs, NSAIDs, and diuretics, which can all have a negative impact on glomerular filtration rate and pressure. A helpful mnemonic to remember these nephrotoxic drugs is DAMN (Diuretics, ACE inhibitors/ARBs, Metformin, NSAIDs). However, medications such as paracetamol, prednisolone, and statins are usually safe to continue during AKI as they do not significantly affect renal function.
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.
The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.
Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man has recently been prescribed atorvastatin due to a high QRISK score and elevated cholesterol levels. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes amlodipine for it. However, he has returned to the GP after three weeks of taking atorvastatin, complaining of intolerable leg cramps. The GP is worried about the potential cardiac complications if the patient's cholesterol levels are not controlled. What alternative treatment options can be considered as second-line therapy?
Your Answer: Simvastatin
Correct Answer: Ezetimibe
Explanation:Ezetimibe is the recommended second line treatment for patients who cannot tolerate the side effects of statins, according to NICE guidelines. Atorvastatin is the preferred statin due to its lower incidence of side effects compared to simvastatin. Switching to simvastatin may not be beneficial and its dose would be limited to 20mg due to the concurrent use of amlodipine, which weakly inhibits the CYP enzyme responsible for simvastatin metabolism, effectively doubling the dose. Other options are not recommended by NICE as alternatives to statin therapy.
The Use of Ezetimibe in Treating Hypercholesterolaemia
Ezetimibe is a medication that helps lower cholesterol levels by inhibiting cholesterol receptors in the small intestine, reducing cholesterol absorption. In 2016, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines on the use of ezetimibe in treating primary heterozygous-familial and non-familial hypercholesterolaemia.
For individuals who cannot tolerate or are unable to take statin therapy, ezetimibe monotherapy is recommended as an option for treating primary hypercholesterolaemia in adults. Additionally, for those who have already started statin therapy but are not seeing appropriate control of serum total or LDL cholesterol levels, ezetimibe can be coadministered with initial statin therapy. This is also recommended when a change from initial statin therapy to an alternative statin is being considered.
Overall, ezetimibe can be a useful medication in managing hypercholesterolaemia, particularly for those who cannot tolerate or do not see adequate results from statin therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 13
Correct
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A 28-year-old man is on day 9 of his cycle from Land's End to John O'Groats. He made a wrong turn and ran out of fluids. After getting back on track, he found a shop and purchased a 2L bottle of water.
Which part of the nephron is responsible for reabsorbing the majority of this water?Your Answer: Proximal tubule
Explanation:The correct answer is the proximal tubule. This is where the majority of filtered water is reabsorbed, due to the osmotic force generated by Na+ reabsorption. Bowman’s capsule only allows for ultrafiltration, while the collecting duct allows for variable water reabsorption, but not to the same extent as the proximal tubule. The distal tubule also plays a role in Na+ reabsorption, but water reabsorption is dependent on this mechanism.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 14
Correct
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A 54-year-old man from Egypt has been experiencing repeated episodes of haematuria for several years. He complains of discomfort in the suprapubic region and upon cystoscopy, a mass lesion is discovered in his bladder. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation:Schistosomiasis is more prevalent in Egypt than in the UK and can lead to repeated occurrences of haematuria. If individuals with this condition develop a bladder tumor, the most frequent type is SCC.
Bladder cancer is a common urological cancer that primarily affects males aged 50-80 years old. Smoking and exposure to hydrocarbons increase the risk of developing the disease. Chronic bladder inflammation from Schistosomiasis infection is also a common cause of squamous cell carcinomas in countries where the disease is endemic. Benign tumors of the bladder, such as inverted urothelial papilloma and nephrogenic adenoma, are rare. The most common bladder malignancies are urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and adenocarcinoma. Urothelial carcinomas may be solitary or multifocal, with papillary growth patterns having a better prognosis. The remaining tumors may be of higher grade and prone to local invasion, resulting in a worse prognosis.
The TNM staging system is used to describe the extent of bladder cancer. Most patients present with painless, macroscopic hematuria, and a cystoscopy and biopsies or TURBT are used to provide a histological diagnosis and information on depth of invasion. Pelvic MRI and CT scanning are used to determine locoregional spread, and PET CT may be used to investigate nodes of uncertain significance. Treatment options include TURBT, intravesical chemotherapy, surgery (radical cystectomy and ileal conduit), and radical radiotherapy. The prognosis varies depending on the stage of the cancer, with T1 having a 90% survival rate and any T, N1-N2 having a 30% survival rate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with end-stage renal failure due to polycystic kidney disease is being evaluated for a possible kidney transplant. Donor screening, which involves human leukocyte antigen (HLA) testing, has been conducted on several family members. Which HLA class is the most crucial in minimizing rejection risk for this patient?
Your Answer: B
Correct Answer: DR
Explanation:The HLA system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and is responsible for human leucocyte antigens. Class 1 antigens include A, B, and C, while class 2 antigens include DP, DQ, and DR. When matching for a renal transplant, the importance of HLA antigens is ranked as DR > B > A.
Graft survival rates for renal transplants are high, with a 90% survival rate at one year and a 60% survival rate at ten years for cadaveric transplants. Living-donor transplants have even higher survival rates, with a 95% survival rate at one year and a 70% survival rate at ten years. However, postoperative problems can occur, such as acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections.
Hyperacute rejection can occur within minutes to hours after a transplant and is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens. This type of rejection is an example of a type II hypersensitivity reaction and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in ischemia and necrosis of the transplanted organ. Unfortunately, there is no treatment available for hyperacute rejection, and the graft must be removed.
Acute graft failure, which occurs within six months of a transplant, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is caused by cell-mediated cytotoxic T cells. This type of failure is usually asymptomatic and is detected by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Other causes of acute graft failure include cytomegalovirus infection, but it may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Chronic graft failure, which occurs after six months of a transplant, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms that lead to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, known as chronic allograft nephropathy. The recurrence of the original renal disease, such as MCGN, IgA, or FSGS, can also cause chronic graft failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male is undergoing evaluation for persistent proteinuria. He has a medical history of relapsed multiple myeloma. A renal biopsy is performed, and the Congo red stain with light microscopy shows apple-green birefringence under polarised light.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Correct Answer: Amyloidosis
Explanation:Understanding Amyloidosis
Amyloidosis is a medical condition that occurs when an insoluble fibrillar protein called amyloid accumulates outside the cells. This protein is derived from various precursor proteins and contains non-fibrillary components such as amyloid-P component, apolipoprotein E, and heparan sulphate proteoglycans. The accumulation of amyloid fibrils can lead to tissue or organ dysfunction.
Amyloidosis can be classified as systemic or localized, and further characterized by the type of precursor protein involved. For instance, in myeloma, the precursor protein is immunoglobulin light chain fragments, which is abbreviated as AL (A for amyloid and L for light chain fragments).
To diagnose amyloidosis, doctors may use Congo red staining, which shows apple-green birefringence, or a serum amyloid precursor (SAP) scan. Biopsy of skin, rectal mucosa, or abdominal fat may also be necessary. Understanding amyloidosis is crucial for early detection and treatment of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 17
Correct
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A woman presents with symptoms of agalactorrhoea, amenorrhoea, intolerance to cold, constipation, and weight loss six months after giving birth. She experienced postpartum bleeding during delivery and has now been diagnosed with hypopituitarism. What could be the possible reason for this condition?
Your Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that arises from pituitary ischaemia, which is caused by blood loss during or after childbirth. The syndrome is characterized by symptoms that indicate global hypopituitarism, including agalactorrhoea (lack of prolactin), amenorrhoea (lack of FSH and LH), cold intolerance and constipation (lack of thyroid hormones), and weight loss (lack of steroid hormones).
Malignancy is an uncommon cause of hypopituitarism.
While pituitary adenoma is a frequent cause of hypopituitarism, it is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms, given that they occurred after childbirth. Pituitary adenoma may also present with symptoms related to mass effect, such as headache and bilateral hemianopia.
Understanding Hypopituitarism: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Hypopituitarism is a medical condition that occurs when the pituitary gland fails to produce enough hormones. This can be caused by various factors such as compression of the gland by non-secretory pituitary macroadenoma, pituitary apoplexy, Sheehan’s syndrome, hypothalamic tumors, trauma, iatrogenic irradiation, and infiltrative diseases like hemochromatosis and sarcoidosis. The symptoms of hypopituitarism depend on which hormones are deficient. For instance, low ACTH can cause tiredness and postural hypotension, while low FSH/LH can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and loss of libido. Low TSH can cause constipation and feeling cold, while low GH can result in short stature if it occurs during childhood. Low prolactin can cause problems with lactation.
To diagnose hypopituitarism, hormone profile testing and imaging are usually conducted. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause, such as surgical removal of pituitary macroadenoma, and replacement of deficient hormones. It is important to manage hypopituitarism promptly to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man was admitted 2 weeks ago for pneumonia and was prescribed oral antibiotics. However, the antibiotics were changed after he developed a Clostridium difficile infection 9 days ago, which he is still recovering from. Fortunately, his pneumonia has improved.
He has no significant medical history and is not taking any long-term medications.
What are the expected results of his arterial blood gas test?Your Answer: Raised anion gap metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Diarrhoea caused by a Clostridium difficile infection can result in a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate. The body compensates for this by increasing chloride concentration, which maintains a normal anion gap. Low anion gap metabolic acidosis, normal anion gap metabolic alkalosis, and raised anion gap metabolic acidosis are all incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the compensatory mechanisms in this scenario.
Understanding Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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At what level is the hilum of the right kidney located?
Your Answer: L3
Correct Answer: L1
Explanation:Renal Anatomy: Understanding the Structure and Relations of the Kidneys
The kidneys are two bean-shaped organs located in a deep gutter alongside the vertebral bodies. They measure about 11cm long, 5cm wide, and 3 cm thick, with the left kidney usually positioned slightly higher than the right. The upper pole of both kidneys approximates with the 11th rib, while the lower border is usually alongside L3. The kidneys are surrounded by an outer cortex and an inner medulla, which contains pyramidal structures that terminate at the renal pelvis into the ureter. The renal sinus lies within the kidney and contains branches of the renal artery, tributaries of the renal vein, major and minor calyces, and fat.
The anatomical relations of the kidneys vary depending on the side. The right kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, and transversus abdominis, while the left kidney is in direct contact with the quadratus lumborum, diaphragm, psoas major, transversus abdominis, stomach, pancreas, spleen, and distal part of the small intestine. Each kidney and suprarenal gland is enclosed within a common layer of investing fascia, derived from the transversalis fascia, which is divided into anterior and posterior layers (Gerotas fascia).
At the renal hilum, the renal vein lies most anteriorly, followed by the renal artery (an end artery), and the ureter lies most posteriorly. Understanding the structure and relations of the kidneys is crucial in diagnosing and treating renal diseases and disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl was brought to the clinic by her father who has been worried about increasing 'swelling around her eyes and legs' over the past few weeks. She is otherwise healthy. Upon further inquiry, her father reports no blood in her urine but noticed that it is more foamy than usual. A urinalysis shows severe proteinuria. The girl is referred for a kidney biopsy and eventually started on prednisolone based on the suspected diagnosis. What is the most probable result of the biopsy?
Your Answer: Thickened glomerular basement membrane with granular deposits of IgG in 'spike-and-dome' pattern
Correct Answer: Podocyte effacement with electron microscopy
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest that they may be suffering from nephrotic syndrome, which is characterized by periorbital and peripheral edema, as well as severe proteinuria. In young children, the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome is Minimal Change Disease, which can be identified through podocyte effacement on biopsy using electron microscopy. Fortunately, most cases of this disease in young children respond well to steroid treatment. Other potential diagnoses include membranous glomerulonephritis, Goodpasture syndrome, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis.
Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.
The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been prescribed dapagliflozin by his physician to improve management of his pre-existing type 2 diabetes mellitus following a raised HbA1c reading.
What is the main site of action for this medication?Your Answer: Renal distal convoluted tubule
Correct Answer: Renal proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:The proximal convoluted tubule in the nephron is responsible for the majority of glucose reabsorption. Dapagliflozin, a sodium-glucose co-transporter 2 (SGLT-2) inhibitor, acts on this area to reduce glucose reabsorption, resulting in glycosuria. While this can aid in glycaemic control and weight loss, it also increases the risk of urinary tract infections. Other SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin and empagliflozin. The distal convoluted tubule is important for ion absorption, while the cortical collecting duct regulates water reabsorption. Sulfonylureas act on pancreatic beta cells, not acinar cells, which are responsible for exocrine function and are not targeted by SGLT-2 inhibitors.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male is referred to the cardiology department by his physician due to chest pain during physical activity. The cardiologist plans to evaluate for coronary artery blockage and prescribes a coronary CT angiography. The radiologist will administer a contrast dye intravenously during the imaging. What is the most crucial blood test to conduct before giving the contrast agent?
Your Answer: Liver function tests
Correct Answer: Urea and electrolytes
Explanation:Before administering contrast medium, it is important to assess renal function by checking the patient’s urea and electrolytes (U&Es) due to the nephrotoxic nature of the contrast medium.
Although cardiac enzymes can be useful in ruling out myocardial infarction, they are not relevant to the administration of contrast medium in this particular clinical scenario where an acute myocardial infarction is not suspected.
While a full blood count may be part of the patient’s regular workup, it is not necessary for assessing the administration of contrast medium.
Liver function does not need to be checked prior to administering contrast medium as it is not known to be hepatotoxic.
Although contrast medium can affect thyroid function in some patients due to its iodine content, it is not routinely checked before administration.
Contrast media nephrotoxicity is characterized by a 25% increase in creatinine levels within three days of receiving intravascular contrast media. This condition typically occurs between two to five days after administration and is more likely to affect patients with pre-existing renal impairment, dehydration, cardiac failure, or those taking nephrotoxic drugs like NSAIDs. Procedures that may cause contrast-induced nephropathy include CT scans with contrast and coronary angiography or percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). Around 5% of patients who undergo PCI experience a temporary increase in plasma creatinine levels of more than 88 µmol/L.
To prevent contrast-induced nephropathy, intravenous 0.9% sodium chloride should be administered at a rate of 1 mL/kg/hour for 12 hours before and after the procedure. Isotonic sodium bicarbonate may also be used. While N-acetylcysteine was previously used, recent evidence suggests it is not effective. Patients at high risk for contrast-induced nephropathy should have metformin withheld for at least 48 hours and until their renal function returns to normal to avoid the risk of lactic acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of tingling sensations around her mouth and frequent muscle cramps. During the blood pressure check, her wrist and fingers start to cramp and flex. Despite these symptoms, she appears to be in good health.
What condition is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Hyponatraemia
Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia
Explanation:Hypocalcaemia is characterized by perioral paraesthesia, cramps, tetany, and convulsions. The female in this scenario is displaying these symptoms, along with a positive Trousseau’s sign and potentially a positive Chvostek’s sign. Hypocalcaemia is commonly caused by hyperparathyroidism, vitamin D deficiency, or phosphate infusions.
Hyperkalaemia is when there is an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be caused by chronic kidney disease, dehydration, and certain medications such as spironolactone. Symptoms may include muscle weakness, heart palpitations, and nausea and vomiting.
Hypermagnesaemia is rare and can cause decreased respiratory rate, muscle weakness, and decreased reflexes. It may be caused by renal failure, excessive dietary intake, or increased cell destruction.
Hypokalaemia is relatively common and can cause weakness, fatigue, and muscle cramps. It may be caused by diuretic use, low dietary intake, or vomiting.
Hyponatraemia may also cause cramps, but typically presents with nausea and vomiting, fatigue, confusion, and in severe cases, seizures or coma. Causes may include syndrome of inappropriate ADH release (SIADH), excessive fluid intake, and certain medications such as diuretics, SSRIs, and antipsychotics.
Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs
Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. As calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval.
Two specific signs that are commonly used to diagnose hypocalcaemia are Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign. Trousseau’s sign is observed when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, which is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign is observed when tapping over the parotid gland causes facial muscles to twitch. This sign is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people. Overall, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs that are related to neuromuscular excitability, and specific diagnostic signs can be used to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy presents with symptoms of right sided loin pain, lethargy and haematuria. On examination he is pyrexial and has a large mass in the right upper quadrant. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Perinephric abscess
Correct Answer: Nephroblastoma
Explanation:Based on the symptoms presented, it is highly probable that the child has nephroblastoma, while perinephric abscess is an unlikely diagnosis. Even if an abscess were to develop, it would most likely be contained within Gerota’s fascia initially, making anterior extension improbable.
Nephroblastoma: A Childhood Cancer
Nephroblastoma, also known as Wilms tumours, is a type of childhood cancer that typically occurs in the first four years of life. The most common symptom is the presence of a mass, often accompanied by haematuria (blood in urine). In some cases, pyrexia (fever) may also occur in about 50% of patients. Unfortunately, nephroblastomas tend to metastasize early, usually to the lungs.
The primary treatment for nephroblastoma is nephrectomy, which involves the surgical removal of the affected kidney. The prognosis for younger children is generally better, with those under one year of age having an overall 5-year survival rate of 80%. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if any of the symptoms associated with nephroblastoma are present, as early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of a positive outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a head injury after a night of heavy drinking. All his vital signs are normal, and his pupils react to light equally. A CT scan of his head shows no abnormalities. He reports feeling thirsty and experiencing excessive urination.
What is causing his polyuria?Your Answer: The sugar in alcoholic drinks leads to osmotic diuresis
Correct Answer: Inhibition of posterior pituitary gland
Explanation:Excessive alcohol consumption can result in the suppression of ADH in the posterior pituitary gland, which can lead to polyuria.
Normally, dehydration causes an increase in plasma osmolality, which triggers the release of vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) from the posterior pituitary gland. This hormone increases the insertion of aquaporin 2 channels in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting duct in the kidney, which in turn increases water reabsorption. This leads to a decrease in plasma osmolality and a reduction in the volume of urine produced, i.e., antidiuretic.
However, alcohol inhibits this mechanism, resulting in polyuria and dehydration. Polyuria can then cause thirst, i.e., polydipsia.
It is important to note that the sugars in alcohol do not typically cause osmotic diuresis unless there is an underlying condition such as diabetes and hyperglycemia.
Polyuria, or excessive urination, can be caused by a variety of factors. A recent review in the BMJ categorizes these causes by their frequency of occurrence. The most common causes of polyuria include the use of diuretics, caffeine, and alcohol, as well as diabetes mellitus, lithium, and heart failure. Less common causes include hypercalcaemia and hyperthyroidism, while rare causes include chronic renal failure, primary polydipsia, and hypokalaemia. The least common cause of polyuria is diabetes insipidus, which occurs in less than 1 in 10,000 cases. It is important to note that while these frequencies may not align with exam questions, understanding the potential causes of polyuria can aid in diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents to the emergency department after his GP performed an ECG due to complaints of palpitations, which showed active changes associated with hyperkalaemia. The emergency department confirms these changes and an arterial blood gas reveals a serum potassium level of 6.9 mmol/l. The patient is promptly initiated on treatment. What intervention will stabilize the cardiac membrane?
Your Answer: Salbutamol
Correct Answer: Calcium gluconate
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is present in the patient.
Although all the options are used in treating hyperkalaemia, they have distinct roles. Calcium gluconate is the only option used to stabilise the cardiac membrane.
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.
It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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At which of the following locations is the highest amount of water absorbed?
Your Answer: Right colon
Correct Answer: Jejunum
Explanation:The small bowel, specifically the jejunum and ileum, is the primary location for water absorption in the gastrointestinal tract. While the colon does play a role in water absorption, its contribution is minor in comparison. However, if there is a significant removal of the small bowel, the importance of the colon in water absorption may become more significant.
Water Absorption in the Human Body
Water absorption in the human body is a crucial process that occurs in the small bowel and colon. On average, a person ingests up to 2000ml of liquid orally within a 24-hour period. Additionally, gastrointestinal secretions contribute to a further 8000ml of fluid entering the small bowel. The process of intestinal water absorption is passive and is dependent on the solute load. In the jejunum, the active absorption of glucose and amino acids creates a concentration gradient that facilitates the flow of water across the membrane. On the other hand, in the ileum, most water is absorbed through facilitated diffusion, which involves the movement of water molecules with sodium ions.
The colon also plays a significant role in water absorption, with approximately 150ml of water entering it daily. However, the colon can adapt and increase this amount following resection. Overall, water absorption is a complex process that involves various mechanisms and is essential for maintaining proper hydration levels in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A patient in his 60s is recovering on the ward following a kidney transplant. Six days after the operation he still requires dialysis, however he is not in any pain and the graft was a very good HLA match from a deceased donor. His renal function test results are shown below.
Hb 93 g/L
Plts. 232 x 109
Na+ 151 mmol/l
K+ 5.7 mmol/l
Urea 7.9 mmol/l
eGFR 27 mL/min/1.73m2
What could be the probable reason for his abnormal renal function tests?Your Answer: Addison's disease
Correct Answer: Delayed graft function
Explanation:Delayed graft function (DGF) is a common form of acute renal failure that can occur following a kidney transplant. In this case, delayed graft function is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms. It is not uncommon for patients to require continued dialysis after a transplant, especially if the donor was deceased. However, if the need for dialysis persists beyond 7 days, further investigations may be necessary. Other potential causes, such as Addison’s disease or hyper-acute graft rejection, are less likely based on the patient’s history and the characteristics of the transplant.
Complications Following Renal Transplant
Renal transplantation is a common procedure, but it is not without its complications. The most common technical complications are related to the ureteric anastomosis, and the warm ischaemic time is also important as graft survival is directly related to this. Long warm ischaemic times increase the risk of acute tubular necrosis, which can occur in all types of renal transplantation. Organ rejection is also a possibility at any phase following the transplantation process.
There are three types of organ rejection: hyperacute, acute, and chronic. Hyperacute rejection occurs immediately due to the presence of preformed antibodies, such as ABO incompatibility. Acute rejection occurs during the first six months and is usually T cell mediated, with tissue infiltrates and vascular lesions. Chronic rejection occurs after the first six months and is characterized by vascular changes, with myointimal proliferation leading to organ ischemia.
In addition to immunological complications, there are also technical complications that can arise following renal transplant. These include renal artery thrombosis, renal artery stenosis, renal vein thrombosis, urine leaks, and lymphocele. Each of these complications presents with specific symptoms and requires different treatments, ranging from immediate surgery to angioplasty or drainage techniques.
Overall, while renal transplantation can be a life-saving procedure, it is important to be aware of the potential complications and to monitor patients closely for any signs of rejection or technical issues.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 29
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department with confusion and lethargy. Arterial blood gas results indicate an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. After identifying the underlying cause, appropriate treatment is initiated. Within a few hours, the patient's mental status significantly improves.
Upon repeat laboratory studies, there is an increase in serum bicarbonate and sodium levels, a decrease in serum osmolarity, and a drop in serum potassium levels.
What is the most probable treatment administered to this patient?Your Answer: Insulin and normal saline
Explanation:Insulin and hydration are the primary treatments for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which causes an increased anion gap metabolic acidosis. Insulin allows cells to use glucose as an energy source, decreasing ketone body production and causing an intracellular shift of potassium. Loop diuretics, mineralocorticoid injections, and opioid antagonists are not appropriate treatments for DKA.
Managing Hyperkalaemia: A Step-by-Step Guide
Hyperkalaemia is a serious condition that can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias if left untreated. To manage hyperkalaemia, it is important to address any underlying factors that may be contributing to the condition, such as acute kidney injury, and to stop any aggravating drugs, such as ACE inhibitors. Treatment can be categorised based on the severity of the hyperkalaemia, which is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the patient’s potassium levels.
ECG changes are also important in determining the appropriate management for hyperkalaemia. Peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, and a sinusoidal wave pattern are all associated with hyperkalaemia and should be evaluated in all patients with new hyperkalaemia.
The principles of treatment modalities for hyperkalaemia include stabilising the cardiac membrane, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments, and removing potassium from the body. IV calcium gluconate is used to stabilise the myocardium, while insulin/dextrose infusion and nebulised salbutamol can be used to shift potassium from the extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments. Calcium resonium, loop diuretics, and dialysis can be used to remove potassium from the body.
In practical terms, all patients with severe hyperkalaemia or ECG changes should receive emergency treatment, including IV calcium gluconate to stabilise the myocardium and insulin/dextrose infusion to shift potassium from the extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments. Other treatments, such as nebulised salbutamol, may also be used to temporarily lower serum potassium levels. Further management may involve stopping exacerbating drugs, treating any underlying causes, and lowering total body potassium through the use of calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 30
Correct
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A 90-year-old man is discovered unconscious in his residence. He is transported to the hospital for further evaluation and is diagnosed with dehydration-induced hypotension. What is the most probable physiological response?
Your Answer: Renin release due to reduced perfusion of organs
Explanation:Renin is released when there is a decrease in renal perfusion.
The secretion of aldosterone would increase due to elevated levels of angiotensin II.
Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole to the glomerulus, which increases the pressure across the glomerulus and filtration fraction, ultimately preserving GFR.
Angiotensin II stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete more ADH, which acts on the collecting duct to increase water absorption.
The baroreceptor reflex is another mechanism that helps maintain blood pressure homeostasis, along with the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. When blood pressure increases, baroreceptors in the aortic arch/carotid sinus detect the stretching of the vessel, leading to inhibition of sympathetic tone and increased parasympathetic tone, which decreases blood pressure. In hypotension, the baroreceptors detect less stretching in the vessel, leading to increased sympathetic tone and decreased parasympathetic tone. In this case, increased sympathetic tone would result in an increase in heart rate.
The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient visits their GP complaining of non-specific malaise. The patient has a medical history of recurrent haematuria during childhood with infections and fever, as well as bilateral mild sensorineural hearing loss. Due to frequent moves between countries, the patient has never had continuous medical care. Further investigations reveal proteinuria and haematuria, leading to a referral to secondary care and a subsequent renal biopsy. The biopsy results show splitting of the lamina densa on electron microscopy.
What is the most common mode of inheritance for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: X-linked recessive
Correct Answer: X-linked dominant
Explanation:Alport’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is typically inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. It is caused by a defect in the gene responsible for producing type IV collagen, which leads to an abnormal glomerular-basement membrane (GBM). The disease is more severe in males, with females rarely developing renal failure. Symptoms usually present in childhood and may include microscopic haematuria, progressive renal failure, bilateral sensorineural deafness, lenticonus, retinitis pigmentosa, and splitting of the lamina densa seen on electron microscopy. In some cases, an Alport’s patient with a failing renal transplant may have anti-GBM antibodies, leading to a Goodpasture’s syndrome-like picture. Diagnosis can be made through molecular genetic testing, renal biopsy, or electron microscopy. In around 85% of cases, the syndrome is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern, while 10-15% of cases are inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion, with rare autosomal dominant variants existing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 32
Incorrect
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Whilst on the ward, you observe that a severely underweight 25-year-old male patient with anorexia nervosa has become acutely drowsy and confused. You are informed that he was artificially fed 30 minutes ago, are given a set of blood tests taken since his new symptoms began and suspect that he has refeeding syndrome.
What are the blood results that you are likely to observe?Your Answer: Hyperkalaemia, hypophosphataemia and hypomagnesemia
Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia, hypophosphataemia and hypomagnesemia
Explanation:When severely underweight patients are given high levels of artificial feeding, it can trigger refeeding syndrome. This condition is characterized by a sudden surge of insulin, which causes protein channels to move to the apical layer of cell membranes. As a result, glucose and electrolytes like potassium, phosphate, and magnesium are rapidly taken up by cells, leading to a significant drop in their serum levels. This can cause hypokalemia, hypophosphatemia, and hypomagnesemia.
Hypophosphataemia is a medical condition characterized by low levels of phosphate in the blood. This condition can be caused by various factors such as alcohol excess, acute liver failure, diabetic ketoacidosis, refeeding syndrome, primary hyperparathyroidism, and osteomalacia.
Alcohol excess, acute liver failure, and diabetic ketoacidosis are some of the common causes of hypophosphataemia. Refeeding syndrome, which occurs when a malnourished individual is given too much food too quickly, can also lead to this condition. Primary hyperparathyroidism, a condition where the parathyroid gland produces too much hormone, and osteomalacia, a condition where bones become soft and weak, can also cause hypophosphataemia.
Hypophosphataemia can have serious consequences on the body. Low levels of phosphate can lead to red blood cell haemolysis, white blood cell and platelet dysfunction, muscle weakness, and rhabdomyolysis. It can also cause central nervous system dysfunction, which can lead to confusion, seizures, and coma. Therefore, it is important to identify and treat hypophosphataemia promptly to prevent any further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presents with a three-week history of leg swelling. He has no past medical history except for a bout of sore throat at the age of 15. He is not on any medications. On examination, his blood pressure is 155/94 mmHg, and he has pitting edema. Urinalysis reveals 4+ protein with no RBC casts. A biopsy confirms the diagnosis of membranous glomerulonephritis.
What is the most probable cause of this patient's condition?Your Answer: Malignancy
Correct Answer: Anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies
Explanation:The likely diagnosis for this patient is idiopathic membranous glomerulonephritis, which is associated with anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies. While hypertension may be present in patients with nephrotic syndrome, it is not the cause of membranous glomerulonephritis. Secondary causes of membranous glomerulonephritis include malignancy (such as lung cancer, lymphoma, or leukemia) and systemic lupus erythematosus, but there are no indications of these in this patient. Sore throat is associated with post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis and IgA nephropathy, but these are not relevant to this case.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 34
Incorrect
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What are the probable outcomes of the discharge of vasopressin from the pituitary gland?
Your Answer: Vasoconstriction of the afferent glomerular arteriole
Correct Answer: Increased water permeability of the distal tubule cells of the kidney
Explanation:Aquaporin channels are inserted into the apical membrane of the distal tubule and collecting ducts as a result of ADH (vasopressin).
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old man visits the urology clinic due to an elevated PSA level. Despite undergoing a biopsy, there are no indications of cancer or benign prostatic hypertrophy.
The patient has a medical history of diabetes mellitus, hypertension, scrotal varicocele, renal calculi, and acute urine retention.
Out of his existing medical conditions, which one is the probable culprit for his increased PSA level?Your Answer: Renal calculi
Correct Answer: Urine retention
Explanation:Urinary retention is a common cause of a raised PSA reading, as it can lead to bladder enlargement. Other conditions such as diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and renal calculi are not direct causes of elevated PSA levels.
Understanding PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland that has become an important marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, there is also a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.
PSA levels may be raised by various factors, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract. However, PSA levels are not always a reliable indicator of prostate cancer. For example, around 20% of men with prostate cancer have a normal PSA level, while around 33% of men with a PSA level of 4-10 ng/ml will be found to have prostate cancer. To add greater meaning to a PSA level, age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA level over time (PSA velocity or PSA doubling time) are used. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, with a limit of 3.0 ng/ml for men aged 50-59 years, 4.0 ng/ml for men aged 60-69 years, and 5.0 ng/ml for men over 70 years old.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is having a radical cystectomy for bladder carcinoma. Significant venous bleeding occurs during the surgery. What is the main location for venous drainage from the bladder?
Your Answer: Common iliac vein
Correct Answer: Vesicoprostatic venous plexus
Explanation:The urinary bladder is surrounded by a complex network of veins that drain into the internal iliac vein. During cystectomy, the vesicoprostatic plexus can be a significant source of venous bleeding.
Bladder Anatomy and Innervation
The bladder is a three-sided pyramid-shaped organ located in the pelvic cavity. Its apex points towards the symphysis pubis, while the base lies anterior to the rectum or vagina. The bladder’s inferior aspect is retroperitoneal, while the superior aspect is covered by peritoneum. The trigone, the least mobile part of the bladder, contains the ureteric orifices and internal urethral orifice. The bladder’s blood supply comes from the superior and inferior vesical arteries, while venous drainage occurs through the vesicoprostatic or vesicouterine venous plexus. Lymphatic drainage occurs mainly to the external iliac and internal iliac nodes, with the obturator nodes also playing a role. The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and sympathetic nerve fibers from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. The parasympathetic fibers cause detrusor muscle contraction, while the sympathetic fibers innervate the trigone muscle. The external urethral sphincter is under conscious control, and voiding occurs when the rate of neuronal firing to the detrusor muscle increases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A patient diagnosed with chronic primary hyperparathyroidism underwent parathyroidectomy and is now being seen for follow-up. The patient's postoperative blood results are as follows:
Parathyroid hormone: 1.8 pmol/L (normal range: 1.6 - 6.9 pmol/L)
Corrected calcium: 1.7 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1 - 2.6 mmol/L)
Phosphate: 0.1 mmol/L (normal range: 0.1 - 0.8 mmol/L)
What is the most likely explanation for these results?Your Answer: Parathyroid adenoma
Correct Answer: Hungry bone syndrome
Explanation:The sudden drop in previously high parathyroid hormone levels can lead to hungry bone syndrome, which is a significant complication of a parathyroidectomy following chronic hyperparathyroidism. This condition causes hypocalcaemia and is rare but important to recognize. Osteomalacia, rickets, and scurvy are not consistent with this patient’s history and are not the correct answers.
Understanding Hungry Bone Syndrome
Hungry bone syndrome is a rare condition that can occur after a parathyroidectomy, especially if the patient has had hyperparathyroidism for a long time. The condition is caused by high levels of parathyroid hormone before surgery, which stimulate osteoclast activity and lead to demineralization of the bones, resulting in hypercalcemia. If left untreated, this can cause x-ray changes that resemble metastatic lytic lesions.
During the parathyroidectomy, the parathyroid adenoma is removed, causing a rapid drop in hormone levels, which have a short half-life. As a result, osteoclast activity decreases, and the bones begin to rapidly re-mineralize, leading to hungry bone syndrome. This process can be uncomfortable and can also cause systemic hypocalcemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father. Her father reports that for the past 5 days, she has been experiencing swelling in her lower limbs. The girl is otherwise healthy, has not had any recent illnesses, and her blood pressure during the visit was normal. The results of her urinalysis are as follows:
Leucocytes: Negative
Nitrites: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Proteins: 3+
Blood: Negative
Ketones: Negative
Glucose: Negative
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:The boy’s symptoms are typical of nephrotic syndrome, which is characterized by a triad of proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema. Oedema is usually seen in the lower limbs, and proteinuria may cause frothy urine. Minimal change disease, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, and membranous nephropathy are examples of nephrotic syndrome. Minimal change disease is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome, and it is characterized by effacement of the podocyte foot processes, which increases the permeability of the glomerular basement membrane and causes proteinuria.
It is important to differentiate nephrotic syndrome from nephritic syndrome, which is characterized by the presence of protein and blood in the urine. Nephritic syndrome typically presents with haematuria, oliguria, and hypertension. Alport syndrome is not a correct answer as it causes nephritic syndrome, and it is a genetic condition that affects kidney function, hearing, and vision. IgA nephropathy is also an incorrect answer as it causes nephritic syndrome and is typically associated with upper respiratory tract infections. A careful history is required to distinguish it from post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, another cause of nephritic syndrome that occurs after a streptococcal infection.
Understanding Nephrotic Syndrome and its Presentation
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by a triad of symptoms, namely proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and oedema. Proteinuria refers to the presence of excessive protein in the urine, typically exceeding 3g in a 24-hour period. Hypoalbuminaemia is a condition where the levels of albumin in the blood fall below 30g/L. Oedema, on the other hand, is the accumulation of fluid in the body tissues, leading to swelling.
Nephrotic syndrome is associated with the loss of antithrombin-III, proteins C and S, and an increase in fibrinogen levels, which increases the risk of thrombosis. Additionally, the loss of thyroxine-binding globulin leads to a decrease in total thyroxine levels, although free thyroxine levels remain unaffected.
The diagram below illustrates the different types of glomerulonephritides and how they typically present. Understanding the presentation of nephrotic syndrome and its associated risks is crucial in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
[Insert diagram here]
Overall, nephrotic syndrome is a complex condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. By understanding its presentation and associated risks, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and support to patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the GP clinic with her husband after attempting a dehydration detox. She appears confused and drowsy, and reports having vomited three times in the past 12 hours without passing urine. The patient has a medical history of allergic rhinitis, anxiety, hypothyroidism, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and chronic lower back pain.
During the examination, you observe dry mucous membranes, a pulse rate of 112/min, a respiratory rate of 24/min, a blood pressure of 97/65 mmHg, a temperature of 37.1ºC, and O2 saturation of 98%.
Given the patient's condition, you suspect that she requires immediate hospital care and refer her to the emergency department.
What medication should be stopped immediately for this patient?Your Answer: Paracetamol
Correct Answer: Losartan
Explanation:In cases of AKI, it is recommended to discontinue the use of angiotensin II receptor antagonists such as Losartan as they can worsen renal function by reducing renal perfusion. This is because angiotensin II plays a role in constricting systemic blood vessels and the efferent arteriole of the glomerulus, which increases GFR. Blocking angiotensin II can lead to a drop in systemic blood pressure and dilation of the efferent glomerular arteriole, which can exacerbate kidney impairment.
Cetirizine is not the most important medication to discontinue in AKI, as it is a non-sedating antihistamine and is unlikely to be a major cause of drowsiness. Diazepam may be contributing to drowsiness and is excreted in the urine, but sudden discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Levothyroxine does not need to be stopped in AKI as thyroid hormones are primarily metabolized in the liver and are not considered high risk in renal impairment.
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.
The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.
Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy is being evaluated on postoperative day 2. She reports multiple episodes of vomiting and passing urine only once since the operation. Her medical history includes poorly controlled hypertension on dual therapy. She is currently taking fenoldopam, ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, atorvastatin, and paracetamol. On physical examination, she has dry mucous membranes and a BMI of 31 kg/m². Her vital signs show a mean arterial pressure of 80 mmHg and a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. Laboratory results reveal:
Na+ 130 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5.1 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Creatinine 160 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most important medication that should be discontinued in this patient?Your Answer: Atorvastatin
Correct Answer: ACE inhibitors
Explanation:In cases of acute kidney injury (AKI), it is crucial to identify and treat the underlying cause. However, it is important to note that ACE inhibitors should be discontinued as they can worsen renal function by causing efferent arteriolar vasodilation, leading to a decrease in GFR. On the other hand, atorvastatin should not be stopped as it does not accumulate and worsen renal function, but frequent monitoring is necessary. If AKI is caused by rhabdomyolysis, then statins should be immediately discontinued. Calcium channel blockers do not exacerbate renal impairment, but it is advisable to reduce the dose and withhold them if clinical signs appear. Fenoldopam, on the other hand, does not impair kidney function but rather increases blood flow to the renal cortex and medullary regions by decreasing systemic vascular resistance.
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.
The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.
Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 41
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to you with complaints of pedal oedema, frothy urine and decreased urine output. He has no significant medical history. You suspect that the patient's nephrotic syndrome may be caused by a common form of idiopathic glomerulonephritis that affects adults.
What would be the most helpful initial test to confirm this particular diagnosis?Your Answer: Anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies
Explanation:Idiopathic membranous glomerulonephritis is believed to be associated with anti-phospholipase A2 antibodies. This condition is a common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults, and since the patient has no other relevant medical history, an idiopathic cause is likely. To confirm the diagnosis, measuring anti-phospholipase A2 levels is recommended.
Testing for ASOT would suggest post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), which is more common in children and typically presents with an acute nephritic picture rather than nephrotic syndrome. Therefore, this is not the most likely diagnosis.
While dyslipidaemia is commonly found in nephrotic syndrome, confirming it would not help confirm the suspected diagnosis of idiopathic membranous glomerulonephritis.
Although acute kidney injury (AKI) can occur in individuals with nephrotic syndrome, assessing renal function is unlikely to help diagnose membranous glomerulonephritis.
While assessing the protein content in a sample may be useful in diagnosing nephrotic syndrome, it is not specific to membranous glomerulonephritis.
Membranous glomerulonephritis is the most common type of glomerulonephritis in adults and is the third leading cause of end-stage renal failure. It typically presents with proteinuria or nephrotic syndrome. A renal biopsy will show a thickened basement membrane with subepithelial electron dense deposits, creating a spike and dome appearance. The condition can be caused by various factors, including infections, malignancy, drugs, autoimmune diseases, and idiopathic reasons.
Management of membranous glomerulonephritis involves the use of ACE inhibitors or ARBs to reduce proteinuria and improve prognosis. Immunosuppression may be necessary for patients with severe or progressive disease, but many patients spontaneously improve. Corticosteroids alone are not effective, and a combination of corticosteroid and another agent such as cyclophosphamide is often used. Anticoagulation may be considered for high-risk patients.
The prognosis for membranous glomerulonephritis follows the rule of thirds: one-third of patients experience spontaneous remission, one-third remain proteinuric, and one-third develop end-stage renal failure. Good prognostic factors include female sex, young age at presentation, and asymptomatic proteinuria of a modest degree at the time of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A patient with compromised kidney function is given a new medication that is typically eliminated through renal excretion. What factors might impact the excretion of the medication?
Your Answer: Tubular secretion/reabsorption
Correct Answer: Diffusivity across the basement membrane and tubular secretion/reabsorption
Explanation:The clearance of a substance in the kidneys is influenced by two important factors: diffusivity across the basement membrane and tubular secretion/reabsorption. Additionally, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in generating a significant osmotic gradient, while the primary function of the collecting duct is to facilitate the reabsorption of water.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 43
Correct
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A 13-year-old boy presents to his pediatrician with complaints of red-colored urine and foamy urine for a while. His parents also noticed puffiness in his face and high blood pressure for his age and sex. The boy has been complaining of hearing difficulties in class and requested to be seated in front. The doctor suspects a genetically inherited disease that is passed down from affected mothers to fifty percent of their daughters and from fathers to all their sons. What is the underlying pathology of this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Abnormal type IV collagen causing glomerular basement membrane splitting
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a combination of nephritic and nephrotic syndrome, along with hearing problems, indicating a likely diagnosis of Alport syndrome. This X-linked dominant condition is caused by a defect in type IV collagen, which forms the basement membrane. The glomerular basement membrane in Alport syndrome is characterized by thinning and thickening with areas of splitting, resulting in a basketweave appearance on electron microscopy. The condition is inherited from affected mothers to 50% of their daughters and from fathers to all their sons.
IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger disease, is characterized by IgA-based mesangial deposits on immunofluorescence and mesangial proliferation on light microscopy. Type 1 membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis presents with symptoms of both nephritic and nephrotic syndrome and is characterized by a tram-track appearance on periodic acid-Schiff stain due to mesangium proliferating into the glomerular basement membrane. Subendothelial immunocomplex deposits are seen on immunofluorescence. Poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis is a type of nephritic syndrome that occurs after a group A streptococcal infection and is characterized by enlarged and hypercellular glomeruli on light microscopy and subepithelial immunocomplexes on electron microscopy. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, often seen in SLE patients, presents with symptoms of both nephritic and nephrotic syndrome and is characterized by wire looping of capillaries on light microscopy and subendothelial immunocomplex deposits on electron microscopy. A granular appearance is found on immunofluorescence.
Alport’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is typically inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. It is caused by a defect in the gene responsible for producing type IV collagen, which leads to an abnormal glomerular-basement membrane (GBM). The disease is more severe in males, with females rarely developing renal failure. Symptoms usually present in childhood and may include microscopic haematuria, progressive renal failure, bilateral sensorineural deafness, lenticonus, retinitis pigmentosa, and splitting of the lamina densa seen on electron microscopy. In some cases, an Alport’s patient with a failing renal transplant may have anti-GBM antibodies, leading to a Goodpasture’s syndrome-like picture. Diagnosis can be made through molecular genetic testing, renal biopsy, or electron microscopy. In around 85% of cases, the syndrome is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern, while 10-15% of cases are inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion, with rare autosomal dominant variants existing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man visits his GP complaining of hesitancy, frequency, poor flow, and incomplete emptying for the past 8 months. During the examination, the GP discovers a hard, craggy, and enlarged prostate on one side. The GP urgently refers the patient to a urologist within 2 weeks and orders a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test.
Upon seeing the urologist, the patient is informed that his PSA level is 22ng/ml. The urologist repeats the digital rectal examination and requests a multiparametric MRI to confirm the diagnosis. The urologist prescribes medication to the patient, explaining that it will initially cause a flare of tumor growth before shrinking.
What type of medication is the urologist describing that will cause this initial flare of tumor growth?Your Answer: Progestogens
Correct Answer: Gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonists
Explanation:Prostate cancer management involves inhibiting or down-regulating hormones involved in the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis at different stages to prevent tumour growth. Testosterone, converted to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) in the prostate, causes growth and proliferation of prostate cells.
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists like goserelin suppress both GnRH and LH production, causing downregulation of GnRH and LH after an initial stimulatory effect that can cause a flare in tumour growth. GnRH agonists outmatch the body’s natural production rhythm, leading to reduced LH and GnRH production.
GnRH antagonists like abarelix suppress LH production by the anterior pituitary, preventing stimulation of testosterone production in the testes and reducing DHT production. This can cause the prostate to shrink instead of growing.
Anti-androgens like bicalutamide directly block the actions of testosterone and DHT within the cells of the prostate, preventing growth. They are often prescribed alongside GnRH agonists to prevent the flare in tumour growth.
5-a-reductase inhibitors, also known as DHT-blockers, shrink the prostate by stopping the conversion of testosterone to DHT. This prevents tumour growth and overall shrinkage of the prostate, but does not cause initial tumour growth.
Prostate cancer management varies depending on the stage of the disease and the patient’s life expectancy and preferences. For localized prostate cancer (T1/T2), treatment options include active monitoring, watchful waiting, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy (external beam and brachytherapy). For localized advanced prostate cancer (T3/T4), options include hormonal therapy, radical prostatectomy, and radiotherapy. Patients may develop proctitis and are at increased risk of bladder, colon, and rectal cancer following radiotherapy for prostate cancer.
In cases of metastatic prostate cancer, reducing androgen levels is a key aim of treatment. A combination of approaches is often used, including anti-androgen therapy, synthetic GnRH agonist or antagonists, bicalutamide, cyproterone acetate, abiraterone, and bilateral orchidectomy. GnRH agonists, such as Goserelin (Zoladex), initially cause a rise in testosterone levels before falling to castration levels. To prevent a rise in testosterone, anti-androgens are often used to cover the initial therapy. GnRH antagonists, such as degarelix, are being evaluated to suppress testosterone while avoiding the flare phenomenon. Chemotherapy with docetaxel is also an option for the treatment of hormone-relapsed metastatic prostate cancer in patients who have no or mild symptoms after androgen deprivation therapy has failed, and before chemotherapy is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient is admitted to the hospital with a chief complaint of lethargy and a vague medical history. As part of the assessment, a venous blood gas (VBG) is performed and the results are as follows:
Na+ 137 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 3.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Cl- 105 mEq/L (98 - 106)
pH 7.29 (7.35-7.45)
pO2 42mmHg (35 - 45)
pCO2 46mmHg (42 - 48)
HCO3- 19 mmol/L (22 - 26)
BE -3 mmol/L (-2 to +2)
What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:The likely cause of the patient’s normal anion gap metabolic acidosis is diarrhoea. The anion gap calculation shows a normal range of 14 mmol/L, which is within the normal range of 8-14 mmol/L. Diarrhoea causes a loss of bicarbonate from the GI tract, resulting in less alkali to balance out the acid in the blood. Additionally, diarrhoea causes hypokalaemia due to potassium ion loss from the GI tract. COPD, Cushing’s syndrome, and diabetic ketoacidosis are incorrect options as they would result in respiratory acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, and raised anion gap metabolic acidosis, respectively.
Understanding Metabolic Acidosis
Metabolic acidosis is a condition that can be classified based on the anion gap, which is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium. The normal range for anion gap is 10-18 mmol/L. If a question provides the chloride level, it may be an indication to calculate the anion gap.
Hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. It can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, prolonged diarrhea, ureterosigmoidostomy, fistula, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis is caused by lactate, ketones, urate, acid poisoning, and other factors.
Lactic acidosis is a type of metabolic acidosis that is caused by high lactate levels. It can be further classified into two types: lactic acidosis type A, which is caused by sepsis, shock, hypoxia, and burns, and lactic acidosis type B, which is caused by metformin. Understanding the different types and causes of metabolic acidosis is important in diagnosing and treating the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 46
Incorrect
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In a 70 Kg person, what percentage of the entire body fluid will be provided by plasma?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5%
Explanation:Understanding the Physiology of Body Fluid Compartments
Body fluid compartments are essential components of the human body, consisting of intracellular and extracellular compartments. The extracellular compartment is further divided into interstitial fluid, plasma, and transcellular fluid. In a typical 70 Kg male, the intracellular compartment comprises 60-65% of the total body fluid volume, while the extracellular compartment comprises 35-40%. The plasma volume is approximately 5%, while the interstitial fluid volume is 24%. The transcellular fluid volume is approximately 3%. These figures are only approximate and may vary depending on the individual’s weight and other factors. Understanding the physiology of body fluid compartments is crucial in maintaining proper fluid balance and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman is having surgery for Conns syndrome and experiences bleeding due to damage to the middle adrenal artery. Where does this vessel originate from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aorta
Explanation:The aorta usually gives rise to the middle adrenal artery, while the renal vessels typically give rise to the lower adrenal artery.
Adrenal Gland Anatomy
The adrenal glands are located superomedially to the upper pole of each kidney. The right adrenal gland is posteriorly related to the diaphragm, inferiorly related to the kidney, medially related to the vena cava, and anteriorly related to the hepato-renal pouch and bare area of the liver. On the other hand, the left adrenal gland is postero-medially related to the crus of the diaphragm, inferiorly related to the pancreas and splenic vessels, and anteriorly related to the lesser sac and stomach.
The arterial supply of the adrenal glands is through the superior adrenal arteries from the inferior phrenic artery, middle adrenal arteries from the aorta, and inferior adrenal arteries from the renal arteries. The right adrenal gland drains via one central vein directly into the inferior vena cava, while the left adrenal gland drains via one central vein into the left renal vein.
In summary, the adrenal glands are small but important endocrine glands located above the kidneys. They have a unique blood supply and drainage system, and their location and relationships with other organs in the body are crucial for their proper functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 48
Incorrect
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During your placement on a gastro ward, a patient in their late 60s develops excessive diarrhea. Can you identify the location in the gastrointestinal tract where most of the water is absorbed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Jejunum
Explanation:The absorption of water in the gastrointestinal tract is facilitated by the absorption of ions across cell membranes. The majority of water is absorbed in the small intestine, particularly in the jejunum.
Water Absorption in the Human Body
Water absorption in the human body is a crucial process that occurs in the small bowel and colon. On average, a person ingests up to 2000ml of liquid orally within a 24-hour period. Additionally, gastrointestinal secretions contribute to a further 8000ml of fluid entering the small bowel. The process of intestinal water absorption is passive and is dependent on the solute load. In the jejunum, the active absorption of glucose and amino acids creates a concentration gradient that facilitates the flow of water across the membrane. On the other hand, in the ileum, most water is absorbed through facilitated diffusion, which involves the movement of water molecules with sodium ions.
The colon also plays a significant role in water absorption, with approximately 150ml of water entering it daily. However, the colon can adapt and increase this amount following resection. Overall, water absorption is a complex process that involves various mechanisms and is essential for maintaining proper hydration levels in the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man visits the outpatient clinic complaining of feeling generally unwell with increased diarrhoea and vomiting for the past week. He has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking amlodipine, candesartan, doxazosin, metformin, gliclazide, and insulin.
The following investigations were conducted:
Results today 3 months ago Reference ranges
Na+ 137 mmol/L 133 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 6.1 mmol/L 3.6 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Urea 8.9 mmol/L 4.5 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 155 µmol/L 65 µmol/L (55 - 120)
eGFR 35 mL/min/1.73m² 90 mL/min/1.73m² (> 60)
Which medication should be discontinued?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Candesartan
Explanation:In cases of acute kidney injury, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause while preventing further deterioration. However, certain medications must be discontinued, including angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors or angiotensin receptor blockers, NSAIDs, and diuretics. Therefore, candesartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, should be stopped in this patient. On the other hand, amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, and doxazosin, an alpha antagonist, are safe to continue in patients with acute kidney injury.
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.
The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.
Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 50
Incorrect
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Which serum protein is most likely to increase in a patient with severe sepsis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ferritin
Explanation:During an acute phase response, ferritin levels can significantly rise while other parameters typically decrease.
Acute Phase Proteins and their Role in the Body’s Response to Infection
During an infection or injury, the body undergoes an acute phase response where it produces a variety of proteins to help fight off the infection and promote healing. These proteins are known as acute phase proteins and include CRP, procalcitonin, ferritin, fibrinogen, alpha-1 antitrypsin, ceruloplasmin, serum amyloid A, serum amyloid P component, haptoglobin, and complement.
CRP is a commonly measured acute phase protein that is synthesized in the liver and binds to bacterial cells and those undergoing apoptosis. It is able to activate the complement system and its levels are known to rise in patients following surgery. Procalcitonin is another acute phase protein that is used as a marker for bacterial infections. Ferritin is involved in iron storage and transport, while fibrinogen is important for blood clotting. Alpha-1 antitrypsin helps protect the lungs from damage, and ceruloplasmin is involved in copper transport. Serum amyloid A and serum amyloid P component are involved in inflammation, while haptoglobin binds to hemoglobin to prevent its breakdown. Complement is a group of proteins that help to destroy pathogens.
During the acute phase response, the liver decreases the production of other proteins known as negative acute phase proteins, including albumin, transthyretin, transferrin, retinol binding protein, and cortisol binding protein. These proteins are important for maintaining normal bodily functions, but their production is decreased during an infection or injury to allow for the production of acute phase proteins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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