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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain and a positive pregnancy test, despite having an intrauterine system. She is urgently referred to the emergency department where an ultrasound scan confirms a tubal ectopic pregnancy with a visible heartbeat. The patient has never been pregnant before but desires to have a family in the future. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: salpingostomy

      Correct Answer: Salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      For women without other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the preferred first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingostomy. This is the case for a patient with visible foetal heartbeat and pain, as expectant management would be inappropriate and methotrexate is not suitable. Misoprostol is also not appropriate as it is used for incomplete miscarriages, which is not the case for this patient.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old primip presents on day seven postpartum with unilateral breast pain. The...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old primip presents on day seven postpartum with unilateral breast pain. The pain started two days ago and is not accompanied by any other symptoms. She is struggling with breastfeeding and thinks her baby is not feeding long enough.
      On examination, you notice an erythematosus, firm and swollen area, in a wedge-shaped distribution, on the right breast. The nipple appears normal.
      Her observations are stable, and she is apyrexial.
      Given the above, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Mastitis

      Explanation:

      Breast Conditions in Lactating Women

      Lactating women may experience various breast conditions, including mastitis, breast abscess, cellulitis, engorged breasts, and full breasts.

      Mastitis is typically caused by a blocked duct or ascending infection from nipple trauma during breastfeeding. Symptoms include unilateral pain, breast engorgement, and erythema. Treatment involves analgesia, reassurance, and continuing breastfeeding. Antibiotics may be necessary if symptoms persist or a milk culture is positive.

      Breast abscess presents as a painful lump in the breast tissue, often with systemic symptoms such as fever and malaise. Immediate treatment is necessary to prevent septicaemia.

      Cellulitis is an acute bacterial infection of the breast skin, presenting with erythema, tenderness, swelling, and blister formation. Non-specific symptoms such as rigors, fevers, and malaise may also occur.

      Engorged breasts can be primary or secondary, causing bilateral breast pain and engorgement. The skin may appear shiny, and the nipple may appear flat due to stretching.

      Full breasts are associated with lactation and cause warm, heavy, and hard breasts. This condition typically occurs between the 2nd and 6th day postpartum.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old nulliparous woman with Factor V Leiden presents for her initial antenatal...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old nulliparous woman with Factor V Leiden presents for her initial antenatal visit. She has a history of unprovoked VTE, and the physician discusses thromboprophylaxis with her. What treatment pathway should be followed based on her risk?

      Your Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) antenatally + 6 weeks postpartum

      Explanation:

      Factor V Leiden is a genetic condition that causes resistance to the breakdown of Factor V by activated Protein C, leading to an increased risk of blood clots. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guideline No.37a) for preventing blood clots in pregnant women with this condition. As this patient has a history of VTE, she is at high risk during and after pregnancy and requires both antenatal and postnatal thromboprophylaxis. It is important to note that postnatal prophylaxis must be given for six weeks following antenatal prophylaxis.

      Venous Thromboembolism in Pregnancy: Risk Assessment and Prophylactic Measures

      Pregnancy increases the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE), a condition that can be life-threatening for both the mother and the fetus. To prevent VTE, it is important to assess a woman’s individual risk during pregnancy and initiate appropriate prophylactic measures. This risk assessment should be done at the first antenatal booking and on any subsequent hospital admission.

      Women with a previous history of VTE are automatically considered high risk and require low molecular weight heparin throughout the antenatal period, as well as input from experts. Women at intermediate risk due to hospitalization, surgery, co-morbidities, or thrombophilia should also be considered for antenatal prophylactic low molecular weight heparin.

      The risk assessment at booking should include factors that increase the likelihood of developing VTE, such as age over 35, body mass index over 30, parity over 3, smoking, gross varicose veins, current pre-eclampsia, immobility, family history of unprovoked VTE, low-risk thrombophilia, multiple pregnancy, and IVF pregnancy.

      If a woman has four or more risk factors, immediate treatment with low molecular weight heparin should be initiated and continued until six weeks postnatal. If a woman has three risk factors, low molecular weight heparin should be initiated from 28 weeks and continued until six weeks postnatal.

      If a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is made shortly before delivery, anticoagulation treatment should be continued for at least three months, as in other patients with provoked DVTs. Low molecular weight heparin is the treatment of choice for VTE prophylaxis in pregnancy, while direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) and warfarin should be avoided.

      In summary, a thorough risk assessment and appropriate prophylactic measures can help prevent VTE in pregnancy, which is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the fetus.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old Caucasian woman who is 26 weeks pregnant with her first child presents to antenatal clinic. She had been invited to attend screening for gestational diabetes on account of her booking BMI, which was 32kg/m². Prior to her pregnancy, she had been healthy and had no personal or family history of diabetes mellitus. She takes no regular medications and has no known allergies.

      During her antenatal visit, she undergoes an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which reveals the following results:
      - Fasting glucose 6.9mmol/L
      - 2-hour glucose 7.8 mmol/L

      An ultrasound scan shows no fetal abnormalities or hydramnios. She is advised on diet and exercise and undergoes a repeat OGTT two weeks later. Due to persistent impaired fasting glucose, she is started on metformin.

      After taking metformin for two weeks, she undergoes another OGTT, with the following results:
      - Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/L
      - 2-hour glucose 7.2mmol/L

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing her glycaemic control?

      Your Answer: Add insulin

      Explanation:

      If blood glucose targets are not achieved through diet and metformin in gestational diabetes, insulin should be introduced. This patient was diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 25 weeks due to a fasting glucose level above 5.6mmol/L. Despite lifestyle changes and the addition of metformin, her glycaemic control has not improved, and her fasting glucose level remains above the target range. Therefore, NICE recommends adding short-acting insulin to her current treatment. Switching to modified-release metformin may help patients who experience side effects, but it would not improve glycaemic control in this case. Insulin should be added in conjunction with metformin for persistent impaired glycaemic control, rather than replacing it. Sulfonylureas like glibenclamide should only be used for patients who cannot tolerate metformin or as an adjunct for those who refuse insulin treatment, and they are not the best option for this patient.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old woman who is 26 weeks’ pregnant presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 26 weeks’ pregnant presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with some swelling of her ankles. She has had no other pregnancy problems and this is her first child. Her blood pressure is 150/95 mmHg and she has 2+ protein in her urine. After 4 hours, her blood pressure has decreased to 130/95 mmHg. Her booking bloods and previous bloods are not available. Her results are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Blood pressure 130/95 mmHg < 120/< 80 mmHg
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 85 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Platelets (Plts) < 210 Ă— 109/l 150-400 Ă— 109/l
      Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 250 U/litre 25–250 U/litre (in pregnancy)

      Which of the following statements is most likely to be true?

      Your Answer: By definition she has pre-eclampsia and should be admitted for investigations and blood pressure (BP) control

      Explanation:

      Understanding Pre-eclampsia and HELLP Syndrome in Pregnancy

      Pre-eclampsia is a serious condition that can occur during pregnancy, characterized by high blood pressure and proteinuria. Diagnosis requires two readings of blood pressure, taken 4-6 hours apart, with a systolic reading of 140 or higher, a diastolic reading of 90 or higher, or an increase of 30 systolic or 20 diastolic from booking blood pressure in the second half of pregnancy. Proteinuria of at least 1+ on reagent stick testing is also required.

      The severity of pre-eclampsia is classified based on blood pressure readings. Mild pre-eclampsia is characterized by a systolic reading of 140-149 or a diastolic reading of 90-99. Moderate pre-eclampsia is characterized by a systolic reading of 150-159 or a diastolic reading of 100-109. Severe pre-eclampsia is diagnosed with a systolic reading of 160 or higher or a diastolic reading of 110 or higher.

      HELLP syndrome is a subtype of severe pre-eclampsia, characterized by haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. Diagnosis requires a blood film showing fragmented red cells, an LDH level over 600 IU/litre, and raised bilirubin. Elevated AST or ALT levels over 70 IU/litre and platelet counts below 100 x 10^9/litre are also required.

      It is important to note that not all cases of high blood pressure in pregnancy are pre-eclampsia or HELLP syndrome. However, if a pregnant woman meets the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia, it is an obstetrical emergency and requires immediate attention. Additionally, if a pregnant woman has high ALP levels, an ultrasound scan of the biliary tree may be necessary to check for biliary obstruction. It is also important to note that ALP levels are typically elevated during pregnancy due to the placenta releasing ALP.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - An obstetrician is getting ready to perform an emergency lower segmental caesarian section...

    Correct

    • An obstetrician is getting ready to perform an emergency lower segmental caesarian section for a 26-year-old woman who is experiencing complications of pre-eclampsia. Once the incision is made through the skin and superficial and deep fascia, what layers will the obstetrician need to traverse/cut through to access the fetus?

      Your Answer: Anterior rectus sheath - rectus abdominis muscle - transversalis fascia - extraperitoneal connective tissue - peritoneum - uterus

      Explanation:

      In obstetric operating theatres or surgical vivas, a frequently asked question pertains to the structures that lie between the skin and the fetus during a lower segment Caesarian section. A confident and clear response indicates a sound understanding of local anatomy and the necessary incisions to reach the fetus. The layers between the skin and the fetus include the superficial fascia, deep fascia, anterior rectus sheath, rectus abdominis muscle (which is not cut but rather pushed laterally after incising the linea alba), transversalis fascia, extraperitoneal connective tissue, peritoneum, and uterus.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - You are asked to review a 32-year-old woman, who is breastfeeding on day...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review a 32-year-old woman, who is breastfeeding on day two post-emergency Caesarean section, because her wound is tender. On examination, you notice that the skin surrounding the wound is erythematosus, with a small amount of yellow discharge. There is no wound dehiscence. The area is tender on examination. Observations are stable, and the patient is apyrexial. You send a swab from the wound for culture. She has an allergy to penicillin.
      Which of the following is the best next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Cellulitis in Post-Caesarean Section Patient

      Cellulitis around the Caesarean wound site requires prompt treatment to prevent the development of sepsis, especially in postpartum women. The initial steps include wound swab for culture and sensitivities, marking the area of cellulitis, and analgesia. Flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic for cellulitis, but oral erythromycin is recommended for patients with penicillin allergy. The dose of erythromycin is 500 mg four times a day orally for five to seven days, and it is safe during breastfeeding. Topical treatment is not as effective as systemic treatment, and analgesia is necessary to manage pain. Antibiotics should not be delayed until culture sensitivities are available, and intravenous antibiotics are not indicated unless the patient’s condition deteriorates. Close monitoring of symptoms, observations, and inflammatory markers should guide treatment.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and severe...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and severe abdominal pain. The abdominal pain started suddenly in the night, about 3 hours ago. It is a severe dull pain in the suprapubic region and doesn't radiate anywhere. The pain has not settled at all since onset and is not positional. She rates the pain as 10/10 in severity. She passed about 2 cupfuls of blood 1 hour previously. She reports that the bleeding has soaked through 2 sanitary pads. She also complains of back pain and is exquisitely tender on suprapubic palpation. She has not noticed any decreased foetal movements, although says that her baby is not particularly active usually. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placenta abruption

      Explanation:

      Placenta abruptio is characterized by painful vaginal bleeding, while placenta praevia typically does not cause pain. In cases of placenta abruptio, the uterus may feel hard and woody to the touch due to retroplacental blood tracking into the myometrium. The absence of fetal heart rate and shock in the mother are common symptoms. Immediate resuscitation is crucial, and once stable, the baby will require urgent delivery. Postpartum hemorrhage is more likely to occur in these cases.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman is on her second day postpartum, following a Caesarean section....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman is on her second day postpartum, following a Caesarean section. She is taking regular paracetamol for pain around the wound site, which has not alleviate her symptoms.
      She is breastfeeding and is asking whether there are any other safe analgesics to help with her pain.
      What is the recommended medication for this patient's pain management?

      Your Answer: Ibuprofen

      Explanation:

      Safe Pain Management Options for Breastfeeding Mothers

      Breastfeeding mothers who experience pain may require medication to manage their symptoms. However, certain drugs can be harmful to both the mother and the baby. Here are some safe pain management options for breastfeeding mothers:

      Ibuprofen: This is the drug of choice for managing pain in breastfeeding mothers. Although it is contraindicated in pregnancy, its transfer into breast milk is very low.

      Codeine: This opioid analgesic can be used during pregnancy, but it should be avoided as the mother approaches delivery due to the risk of respiratory depression in the infant. It should also be avoided when breastfeeding, as it can cause symptoms of overdose in the baby.

      Aspirin: While aspirin is used during pregnancy for prophylaxis, its use as an analgesic should be avoided during breastfeeding as it can cause Reye’s syndrome or impair neonatal platelet function.

      Indometacin: This NSAID can be used for analgesia in breastfeeding, as the concentration that transfers into breast milk is relatively low.

      Tramadol: Although only small amounts of this opioid analgesic are present in breast milk, the manufacturers advise avoidance due to the risk of respiratory depression in the baby.

      It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication while breastfeeding. Additionally, mothers should be aware of any contraindications and potential side effects of the medication they are taking.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 34-year-old woman is at eight weeks’ gestation in her first pregnancy, with...

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman is at eight weeks’ gestation in her first pregnancy, with a body mass index (BMI) of 36.5 kg/m2. She has type 2 diabetes mellitus, and her sister had pre-eclampsia in both her pregnancies. She had deep vein thrombosis (DVT), following a long-haul flight to Australia last year. Which of the following risk factors presenting in this patient’s history is considered a high-risk factor for the development of pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Type 2 diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia Risk Factors in Pregnancy

      During the first prenatal visit, women are screened for their risk of developing pre-eclampsia during pregnancy.

      High-risk factors include a personal history of pre-eclampsia, essential hypertension, type 1 or 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, or autoimmune conditions.

      Moderate risk factors include a BMI of 35-39.9 kg/m2, family history of pre-eclampsia, age of ≥ 40, first pregnancy, multiple pregnancy, and an interpregnancy interval of > 10 years. If any high or moderate risk factor is present, it is recommended that the woman take 75 mg of aspirin daily from the 12th week of gestation until delivery.

      A personal history of DVT is not a risk factor for pre-eclampsia, but it is associated with an increased risk of thrombi during pregnancy and the puerperium.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset abdominal pain and some very light vaginal bleeding which has subsequently stopped. On examination her abdomen is tense and tender. The mother says she has not noticed any reduction in foetal movements. Her vital signs are as follows:

      HR 105 bpm
      BP 120/80 mmHg
      Temperature 37.1ÂşC
      Respiratory Rate 20 min-1

      Cardiotocography (CTG) was performed and showed a foetal heart rate of 140 bpm, with beat-beat variability of 5-30 bpm and 3 accelerations were seen in a 20 minute period.

      Ultrasound demonstrates normal foetal biophysical profile and liquor volume. There is a small collection of retroplacental blood.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit for IV corticosteroids and monitor maternal and foetal condition

      Explanation:

      In the case of a small placental abruption without signs of foetal distress and a gestational age of less than 36 weeks, the recommended management is to admit the patient and administer steroids. While vitamin K can aid in blood clotting, it is not the optimal choice in this situation. A caesarean section is not immediately necessary as the foetus is not in distress and is under 36 weeks. Antibiotics are not indicated as there are no signs of infection and the patient is not experiencing a fever. Continuous monitoring with CTG for 24 hours is not necessary if the foetus is not displaying any distress on initial presentation and the mother has not reported a decrease in foetal movements.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Management, and Complications

      Placental abruption is a condition where the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal haemorrhage. The severity of the condition depends on the extent of the separation and the gestational age of the fetus. Management of placental abruption is crucial to prevent maternal and fetal complications.

      If the fetus is alive and less than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, close observation, administration of steroids, and no tocolysis are recommended. The decision to deliver depends on the gestational age of the fetus. If the fetus is alive and more than 36 weeks, immediate caesarean delivery is recommended if there is fetal distress. If there is no fetal distress, vaginal delivery is recommended. If the fetus is dead, vaginal delivery should be induced.

      Placental abruption can lead to various maternal complications, including shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), renal failure, and postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). Fetal complications include intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), hypoxia, and death. The condition is associated with a high perinatal mortality rate and is responsible for 15% of perinatal deaths.

      In conclusion, placental abruption is a serious condition that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal complications. Close monitoring and timely intervention can improve the prognosis for both the mother and the baby.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old woman who is P1 G2 is 30 minutes post-partum of an...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is P1 G2 is 30 minutes post-partum of an uncomplicated delivery. Suddenly, she starts gasping for breath and appears cyanosed with a blood pressure of 83/65 mmHg, heart rate of 120 bpm, and a respiratory rate of 33/min. She becomes unresponsive. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amniotic fluid embolism

      Explanation:

      The symptoms and time frame mentioned in the question strongly suggest an amniotic fluid embolism, which typically occurs during or within 30 minutes of labor and is characterized by respiratory distress, hypoxia, and hypotension. On the other hand, intracranial hemorrhage is usually preceded by a severe headache, while convulsions are indicative of eclampsia and drug toxicity. The symptoms experienced by the patient during normal labor would not be expected in cases of drug toxicity. Additionally, hypoxia is not a typical symptom of drug toxicity.

      Amniotic fluid embolism is a rare but serious complication of pregnancy that can result in a high mortality rate. It occurs when fetal cells or amniotic fluid enter the mother’s bloodstream, triggering a reaction that leads to various signs and symptoms. While several risk factors have been associated with this condition, such as maternal age and induction of labor, the exact cause remains unclear. It is believed that exposure of maternal circulation to fetal cells or amniotic fluid is necessary for the development of an amniotic fluid embolism, but the underlying pathology is not well understood.

      The majority of cases of amniotic fluid embolism occur during labor, but they can also occur during a cesarean section or in the immediate postpartum period. Symptoms of this condition include chills, shivering, sweating, anxiety, and coughing, while signs may include cyanosis, hypotension, bronchospasms, tachycardia, arrhythmia, and myocardial infarction. Diagnosis is primarily clinical and based on exclusion, as there are no definitive diagnostic tests available.

      Management of amniotic fluid embolism requires a multidisciplinary team and critical care unit. Treatment is mainly supportive, focusing on addressing the patient’s symptoms and stabilizing their condition. Given the high mortality rate associated with this condition, prompt recognition and management are crucial for improving outcomes.

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  • Question 13 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture of the membranes. Following the procedure, a vaginal examination reveals a palpable umbilical cord. What position should she be advised to assume?

      Your Answer: On all fours, on the knees and elbows

      Explanation:

      When a woman experiences cord prolapse, the correct position for her is on all fours, with her knees and elbows on the ground. This condition can be caused by artificial rupture of the membranes, and it is important to keep the cord warm and moist while preparing for a caesarian section. The Trendelenburg position, which involves tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in abdominal surgery to shift abdominal contents upwards. The Lloyd Davis position, which involves separating the legs and tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in rectal and pelvic surgery. The McRoberts manoeuvre, which involves hyperflexing the legs tightly to the abdomen, is used in cases of shoulder dystocia during delivery, but not for cord prolapse. The lithotomy position, which involves raising the legs in stirrups and separating them, is used in obstetrics and gynaecology for various procedures, but not for cord prolapse.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 14 - You are a healthcare professional in obstetrics & gynaecology. A 27-year-old female patient...

    Incorrect

    • You are a healthcare professional in obstetrics & gynaecology. A 27-year-old female patient has come to the early pregnancy assessment clinic complaining of light vaginal spotting and lower abdominal pain that has been present for 48 hours. She had taken a home pregnancy test 6 weeks ago, which was positive, and her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed, but no intrauterine pregnancy was detected. The serum βHCG results show a level of 3,662 IU per ml. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Missed (delayed) miscarriage

      Correct Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 33-year-old primiparous woman has been referred at 35+5 weeks’ gestation to the...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old primiparous woman has been referred at 35+5 weeks’ gestation to the Antenatal Assessment Unit by her community midwife because of a raised blood pressure. On arrival, her blood pressure is 162/114 mmHg despite two doses of oral labetalol and her heart rate is 121 bpm. Examination reveals non-specific abdominal tenderness predominantly in the right upper quadrant; the uterus is soft and fetal movements are palpated. Urine dipstick reveals 3+ protein only. The cardiotocograph is normal.
      Initial blood tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 32 × 109/l 150–450 × 109/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 140 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 129 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 μmol/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 253 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
      Which of the following is the most definitive treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate delivery of the fetus to improve blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Pre-eclampsia with HELLP Syndrome

      Severe pre-eclampsia with HELLP syndrome is a serious complication of pregnancy that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. The first-line medication for pre-eclampsia is labetalol, but if it fails to improve symptoms, second-line treatments such as intravenous hydralazine or oral nifedipine can be used. In cases of severe pre-eclampsia, delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment. However, if delivery is planned before 36 weeks, intramuscular betamethasone is required to protect the fetus from neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Intravenous magnesium sulfate infusion is also necessary for neuroprotection and to lower the risk of eclampsia. It should be considered in cases of mild or moderate pre-eclampsia with certain symptoms. While these interventions are essential in managing severe pre-eclampsia with HELLP syndrome, they are not definitive treatments. Close monitoring of both the mother and fetus is necessary, and delivery should be planned as soon as possible to prevent further complications.

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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old woman in the delivery room experienced a primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH)...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman in the delivery room experienced a primary postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) 3 hours after delivery. Following adequate resuscitation, she was assessed and diagnosed with uterine atony as the underlying cause. Pharmacological treatment was initiated, but proved ineffective. What is the most suitable initial surgical intervention?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine balloon tamponade

      Explanation:

      The majority of cases of postpartum hemorrhage are caused by uterine atony, while trauma, retained placenta, and coagulopathy account for the rest. According to the 2009 RCOG guidelines, if pharmacological management fails to stop bleeding and uterine atony is the perceived cause, surgical intervention should be attempted promptly. Intrauterine balloon tamponade is the recommended first-line measure for most women, but other interventions may also be considered depending on the clinical situation and available expertise. These interventions include haemostatic brace suturing, bilateral ligation of uterine arteries, bilateral ligation of internal iliac (hypogastric) arteries, selective arterial embolization, and hysterectomy.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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  • Question 17 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who comes to see you for a follow-up visit. You initially saw her 1 month ago for low mood and referred her for counselling. She states she is still feeling low and her feelings of anxiety are worsening. She is keen to try medication to help. Sarah has a 5-month-old baby and is breastfeeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate medication for her to commence?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding women can safely take sertraline or paroxetine as their preferred SSRIs. These medications are known to have minimal to low levels of exposure to infants through breast milk, and are not considered harmful to them. Therefore, if a mother is diagnosed with postnatal depression and requires antidepressant treatment, she should not be advised to stop breastfeeding.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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  • Question 18 - A 25-year-old primiparous female is at 39 weeks gestation. Upon examination by a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primiparous female is at 39 weeks gestation. Upon examination by a midwife, her Bishop score is determined to be 4. What is the significance of this score?

      Your Answer: Labour is unlikely to start spontaneously

      Explanation:

      To determine if induction is necessary, the Bishop scoring system evaluates cervical characteristics such as position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and foetal station. If the score is less than 5, induction is likely required. However, if the score is above 9, spontaneous labour is expected.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old gravid 3, para 2 at 24 weeks gestation comes to the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old gravid 3, para 2 at 24 weeks gestation comes to the antenatal clinic to discuss delivery options for her pregnancy. She has a history of delivering her previous pregnancies through vaginal and elective caesarean section, respectively. What is the definite reason for not allowing vaginal delivery after a previous caesarean section?

      Your Answer: Vertical (classic) caesarean scar

      Explanation:

      VBAC is not recommended for patients who have had previous vertical (classical) caesarean scars, experienced uterine rupture in the past, or have other contraindications to vaginal birth such as placenta praevia. However, women who have had two or more previous caesarean sections may still be considered for VBAC. The remaining options in this question do not necessarily rule out VBAC.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her pregnancy. She...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her pregnancy. She is currently at 30 weeks gestation and reports that her pregnancy has been going smoothly thus far. However, over the past few days, she has noticed a decrease in fetal movement. She denies any recent illnesses or feeling unwell and has no significant medical history. On obstetric abdominal examination, there are no notable findings and the patient appears to be in good health. What is the recommended initial management in this case?

      Your Answer: Handheld Doppler

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements after 28 weeks of gestation, the first step recommended by the RCOG guidelines is to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the fetal heartbeat. If the heartbeat cannot be detected, an ultrasound should be offered immediately. However, if a heartbeat is detected, cardiotocography should be used to monitor the heart rate for 20 minutes. Fetal blood sampling is not necessary in this situation. Referral to a fetal medicine unit would only be necessary if no movements had been felt by 24 weeks.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old teacher with type II diabetes is 5-months pregnant with her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old teacher with type II diabetes is 5-months pregnant with her first child. Following reviewing the patient in prenatal clinic, you are interested to find out more about stages of fetal development.
      During the fifth (gestational) month of human development, which organ is the most active site of formation of formed elements of the blood?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      The Sites of Haematopoiesis in the Fetus and Adult

      Haematopoiesis, the process of blood cell formation, occurs in various sites throughout fetal development and in adults. The dominant site of haematopoiesis changes as the fetus develops and bones are formed. Here are the different sites of haematopoiesis and their significance:

      Bone Marrow: From four months into childhood and adulthood, bone marrow becomes the primary source of hematopoiesis. Red blood cells and immune effector cells are derived from pluripotent haematopoietic cells, which are first noted in blood islands of the yolk sac. By 20 weeks, almost all of these cells are produced by the bone marrow.

      Yolk Sac: Haematopoiesis begins in the yolk sac and in angiogenic cell clusters throughout the embryonic body. This involves the formation of nucleated red blood cells, which differentiate from endothelial cells in the walls of blood vessels. Yolk sac haematopoiesis peaks at about one month and becomes insignificant by three months.

      Liver: By the sixth week, the fetal liver performs haematopoiesis. This peaks at 12-16 weeks and continues until approximately 36 weeks. Haematopoietic stem cells differentiate in the walls of liver sinusoids. In adults, there is a reserve haematopoietic capacity, especially in the liver.

      Spleen: The spleen is a minor site of haematopoiesis, being active between the third and sixth months.

      Lymph Nodes: Lymph nodes are not a significant site of haematopoiesis.

      In patients with certain conditions, such as haemolytic anaemia or myeloproliferative disease, hepatic haematopoiesis may be reactivated, leading to hepatomegaly. Understanding the different sites of haematopoiesis is important for understanding blood cell formation and certain medical conditions.

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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of severe lower abdominal pain that is not relieved by painkillers. She has no significant medical history. During the evaluation, her GP conducts a pregnancy test, which comes back positive. The patient is immediately referred to the hospital, where a transvaginal ultrasound confirms an ectopic pregnancy in the left tube. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      If a patient has an ectopic pregnancy, the treatment plan will depend on various factors such as the size and location of the pregnancy, the patient’s overall health, and the potential impact on their fertility. If the pregnancy is small and the patient’s health is stable, they may be able to receive medication to dissolve the pregnancy. However, if the pregnancy is larger or causing severe symptoms, surgery may be necessary.

      In cases where surgery is required, the surgeon may attempt to preserve the affected fallopian tube if possible. However, if the tube is severely damaged or the patient has other factors that may affect their fertility, such as age or previous fertility issues, the surgeon may opt to remove the tube completely. This decision will also depend on the patient’s desire for future fertility and the likelihood of requiring further treatment with methotrexate or a salpingectomy. If the patient’s contralateral tube is unaffected, complete removal of the affected tube may be the most appropriate course of action.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents for her 41 week check-up with consistently high...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman presents for her 41 week check-up with consistently high blood pressure readings of 140/90 mmHg for the past 2 weeks. Her initial blood pressure at booking was 110/70 mmHg. Labetalol is administered to manage the hypertension. What is the recommended next step in her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer induction of labour

      Explanation:

      At 41 weeks gestation, the pregnancy is considered post term. The woman can choose between induction of labour or expectant management. However, the risks to the foetus are higher at this stage, especially for those with pregnancy-induced hypertension or pre-eclampsia, who are usually advised to deliver. Medical induction of labour is the recommended option, while caesarean section is only necessary in cases of foetal compromise. Treatment is not required for this level of blood pressure.

      Understanding Post-Term Pregnancy

      A post-term pregnancy is defined by the World Health Organization as one that has gone beyond 42 weeks. This means that the baby has stayed in the womb for longer than the usual 40 weeks of gestation. However, this prolonged pregnancy can lead to potential complications for both the baby and the mother.

      For the baby, reduced placental perfusion and oligohydramnios can occur, which means that the baby may not be receiving enough oxygen and nutrients. This can lead to fetal distress and even stillbirth. On the other hand, for the mother, there is an increased risk of intervention during delivery, including forceps and caesarean section. There is also a higher likelihood of labor induction, which can be more difficult and painful for the mother.

      It is important for pregnant women to be aware of the risks associated with post-term pregnancy and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. Regular prenatal check-ups and monitoring can help detect any potential complications early on and ensure the best possible outcome for both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old woman of Chinese Han ethnicity contacts her GP to discuss her...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman of Chinese Han ethnicity contacts her GP to discuss her planned pregnancy, estimated to be at 6 weeks gestation. She has a BMI of 31 kg/m² and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Her mild asthma is well-controlled with inhaled beclomethasone. The GP recommends taking folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy.
      What would warrant prescribing high-dose folic acid for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Patient's body mass index (BMI)

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with a BMI of ≥30 kg/m² should be given a high dose of 5mg folic acid to prevent neural tube defects (NTD) in the first trimester of pregnancy. This is in addition to patients with diabetes, sickle cell disease (SCD), thalassaemia trait, coeliac disease, on anti-epileptic medication, personal or family history of NTD, or who have previously given birth to a baby with an NTD. Folic acid should ideally be started before conception to further reduce the risk of NTD. However, a history of asthma, smoking, patient age, and Asian ethnicity are not indications for high-dose folic acid prescribing in pregnancy. Pregnant smokers should not be prescribed high-dose folic acid, although smoking during pregnancy is a risk factor for prematurity, low birth weight, and cleft lip/palate. There is currently no evidence to support high-dose folic acid prescribing for pregnant women with asthma or those at the extremes of maternal age. Additionally, all pregnant women should take vitamin D 10mcg (400 units) daily throughout their pregnancy, as recommended by NICE.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

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  • Question 25 - A multiparous woman at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to the labour ward...

    Incorrect

    • A multiparous woman at 38 weeks gestation is admitted to the labour ward after an artificial rupture of membranes. During four-hourly vaginal examinations, the midwife suddenly palpates the umbilical cord vaginally. The woman is placed on cardiotocography, which reveals late decelerations. What should be the midwife's next immediate step in managing the situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Push presenting part of the foetus back in

      Explanation:

      In the case of an umbilical cord prolapse, it is important to push the presenting part of the fetus back into the uterus to prevent compression of the cord and subsequent fetal distress. This can be aided by retro-filling the bladder with saline and positioning the mother on all fours. Administering oxytocin infusion or tocolytics to stop uterine contractions is not recommended as they can worsen the situation. The McRoberts manoeuvre is also not applicable in this scenario. It is crucial to manage the situation promptly to prevent further harm to the fetus.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment, believing she is 10 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment, believing she is 10 weeks pregnant. Which of the following is not typically done during this appointment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pelvic examination

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

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  • Question 27 - A 24-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the delivery suite...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the delivery suite with complaints of feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, a 32 week size foetus is noted. Her blood pressure is measured at 160/100 mmHg and 2+ protein is detected in her urine. While being examined, she experiences a seizure, leading you to suspect eclampsia. What is the first medication that should be administered?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The primary concern in eclampsia is to manage seizures, which can be prevented and treated with magnesium sulphate as the first-line treatment. If magnesium sulphate is not available or ineffective, benzodiazepines like midazolam can be considered. Additionally, due to high blood pressure, antihypertensive drugs like Labetalol, Hydralazine, and Nifedipine are administered during pregnancy as they are effective and have low teratogenicity. Starting low dose aspirin before 16 weeks of gestation has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of pre-eclampsia.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

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  • Question 28 - A first-time mother who is currently exclusively breastfeeding her infant, now six months...

    Incorrect

    • A first-time mother who is currently exclusively breastfeeding her infant, now six months old, is considering introducing solid foods and she is wondering about breastfeeding recommendations.
      Which of the following best describes the World Health Organization (WHO) breastfeeding recommendations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exclusive breastfeeding for six months, followed by a combination of foods and breastfeeding up to two years of age or beyond

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Breastfeeding and Weaning

      Breastfeeding is crucial for a child’s development and should begin within the first hour of life, according to the WHO and UNICEF. For the first six months, exclusive breastfeeding is recommended, with the baby receiving only breast milk for nutrition. Breastfeeding should occur on demand, and breast milk provides numerous benefits for the child’s cognitive, motor, and immune system development.

      After six months, weaning should begin with the introduction of solid foods, while breast milk continues to provide at least half of the child’s nutrition. The WHO recommends breastfeeding for up to two years of age or beyond, with breast milk providing at least one-third of the child’s nutrition in the second year of life.

      Overall, breastfeeding and weaning play a crucial role in a child’s growth and development, and it is important to follow the recommended guidelines for optimal health outcomes.

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  • Question 29 - Which of the following statements about hCG is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about hCG is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is secreted by syncytiotrophoblasts

      Explanation:

      The syncytiotrophoblast secretes human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) into the maternal bloodstream to sustain the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum during the initial stages of pregnancy. HCG can be identified in the maternal blood as soon as day 8 following conception.

      Understanding Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone that is initially produced by the embryo and later by the placental trophoblast. Its primary function is to prevent the disintegration of the corpus luteum. During the first few weeks of pregnancy, hCG levels double approximately every 48 hours. These levels peak at around 8-10 weeks gestation. As a result, hCG levels are used as the basis for many pregnancy testing kits.

      In summary, hCG is a hormone that plays a crucial role in pregnancy. Its levels increase rapidly during the early stages of pregnancy and peak at around 8-10 weeks gestation. By measuring hCG levels, pregnancy testing kits can accurately determine whether a woman is pregnant or not.

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  • Question 30 - A woman experiences a significant post-partum haemorrhage leading to shock. Subsequently, she develops...

    Incorrect

    • A woman experiences a significant post-partum haemorrhage leading to shock. Subsequently, she develops a visual field defect and severe headache. What are the most probable complications that may arise?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sheehan’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Peripartum Complications: Sheehan’s Syndrome, Eclampsia, and Other Causes of Headache and Visual Disturbances

      Peripartum complications can present with a variety of symptoms, including headache and visual disturbances. Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results from pituitary infarction due to haemorrhagic shock during labour and the peripartum period. It typically affects the anterior pituitary, leading to hormonal deficiencies that may present acutely or more indolently. Hormone replacement is the mainstay of treatment.

      Eclampsia is another peripartum complication that can cause high blood pressure and seizures, sometimes leading to loss of consciousness. It requires urgent medical attention.

      Other causes of headache and visual disturbances in the peripartum period include subarachnoid haemorrhage, which may present with sudden onset headache and visual disturbances, and extradural haemorrhage, which is typically found in trauma adjacent to fractures of the temporal bone. Occipital haemorrhagic infarction can also cause these symptoms, but a visual field defect is more suggestive of Sheehan’s syndrome.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential complications and to promptly evaluate and manage them to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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Obstetrics (18/20) 90%
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