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  • Question 1 - A 4-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old infant boy born at 37 weeks gestation by caesarian section is presented to his pediatrician for a routine check-up. The pediatrician observes that the neonate's urethral meatus is situated on the ventral aspect of the penile shaft, instead of the distal glans penis. What other congenital anomaly is this neonate more likely to have?

      Your Answer: Obstructive uropathy with a patent urachus

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Hypospadias is often accompanied by cryptorchidism in neonates, indicating a potential issue with embryological urogenital migration that may be linked to endocrine disruptions during pregnancy, such as low serum androgens. Imperforate anus, obstructive uropathy with a patent urachus, and posterior urethral valve are not associated with hypospadias and would present with different symptoms or complications.

      Understanding Hypospadias: A Congenital Abnormality of the Penis

      Hypospadias is a condition that affects approximately 3 out of 1,000 male infants. It is a congenital abnormality of the penis that is usually identified during the newborn baby check. However, if missed, parents may notice an abnormal urine stream. This condition is characterized by a ventral urethral meatus, a hooded prepuce, and chordee in more severe forms. The urethral meatus may open more proximally in the more severe variants, but 75% of the openings are distally located. There appears to be a significant genetic element, with further male children having a risk of around 5-15%.

      Hypospadias most commonly occurs as an isolated disorder, but it can also be associated with other conditions such as cryptorchidism (present in 10%) and inguinal hernia. Once hypospadias has been identified, infants should be referred to specialist services. Corrective surgery is typically performed when the child is around 12 months of age. It is essential that the child is not circumcised prior to the surgery as the foreskin may be used in the corrective procedure. In boys with very distal disease, no treatment may be needed. Understanding hypospadias is important for parents and healthcare providers to ensure proper management and treatment of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman delivers a male infant who presents with low muscle tone and is later diagnosed with Down's syndrome. Which of the following features is the least probable in this case?

      Your Answer: Rocker-bottom feet

      Explanation:

      Understanding the features of Down’s syndrome is crucial for clinical practice and final examinations. The correct answer to this question is option 4. While rocker-bottom feet are a characteristic of trisomy 18 or Edward’s syndrome, they are not typically observed in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old woman comes to see her GP to talk about her pregnancy....

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman comes to see her GP to talk about her pregnancy. She has a history of asthma and is concerned about the possibility of her child developing asthma as well. She has been a smoker since she was 16 years old but has reduced her smoking to ten cigarettes a day since becoming pregnant.

      What steps can she take to minimize the risk of her baby developing asthma?

      Your Answer: Stop smoking

      Explanation:

      Tips for a Healthy Pregnancy: Avoiding Risks and Taking Folic Acid

      Pregnancy is a crucial time for both the mother and the developing baby. To ensure a healthy pregnancy, there are certain things that should be avoided and others that should be taken. Here are some tips for a healthy pregnancy:

      Stop smoking: Smoking during pregnancy can increase the risk of stillbirth, premature labour, and low birth weight. Second-hand smoke can also increase the risk of sudden infant death syndrome and asthma in children. It is best for everyone to stop smoking, and support and advice can be obtained from GPs.

      Avoid alcohol: Alcohol can lead to fetal alcohol syndrome, which can cause a range of developmental issues in the baby. It is best to avoid alcohol during pregnancy.

      Avoid caffeine: Caffeine can increase the risk of low birth weight and miscarriage. It is advised to reduce caffeine consumption as much as possible during pregnancy.

      Avoid eating peanuts: Contrary to previous advice, it is now considered safe for pregnant women to eat peanuts as long as they do not have a history of allergy themselves.

      Take folic acid: Folic acid is important in reducing the risk of neural tube defects in the developing baby. The standard dose is 400 μg daily, but a higher dose may be recommended for those with other risk factors.

      By following these tips, pregnant women can help ensure a healthy pregnancy and a healthy baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A 4-year-old boy visits his GP for his routine vaccinations. He has received...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy visits his GP for his routine vaccinations. He has received all the recommended vaccines for his age group and has not experienced any adverse reactions. He is in good health and his height and weight are within normal range. The child's family migrated from India six years ago. What vaccinations should the doctor administer during this visit?

      Your Answer: BCG vaccination

      Correct Answer: 4-in-1 booster and MMR vaccination

      Explanation:

      For a child between 3 and 4 years old, the recommended immunisations are the MMR vaccine and the 4-in-1 booster, which includes vaccinations for diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, and polio. It is important to note that the child should have already received a BCG vaccination when they were between 0 and 12 months old if their parents were born in a country with a high incidence of tuberculosis. The HPV vaccine is not recommended for children of this age. The 3-in-1 booster and meningococcal B vaccine is an inappropriate combination, as is the 6-in-1 vaccine and meningococcal ACWY vaccine.

      The UK immunisation schedule recommends certain vaccines at different ages. At birth, the BCG vaccine is given if the baby is at risk of tuberculosis. At 2, 3, and 4 months, the ‘6-1 vaccine’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib and hepatitis B) and oral rotavirus vaccine are given, along with Men B and PCV at certain intervals. At 12-13 months, the Hib/Men C, MMR, and PCV vaccines are given, along with Men B. At 3-4 years, the ‘4-in-1 preschool booster’ (diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough and polio) and MMR vaccines are given. At 12-13 years, the HPV vaccination is given, and at 13-18 years, the ‘3-in-1 teenage booster’ (tetanus, diphtheria and polio) and Men ACWY vaccines are given. Additionally, the flu vaccine is recommended annually for children aged 2-8 years.

      It is important to note that the meningitis ACWY vaccine has replaced meningitis C for 13-18 year-olds due to an increased incidence of meningitis W disease in recent years. The ACWY vaccine will also be offered to new students (up to the age of 25 years) at university. GP practices will automatically send letters inviting 17-and 18-year-olds in school year 13 to have the Men ACWY vaccine. Students going to university or college for the first time as freshers, including overseas and mature students up to the age of 25, should contact their GP to have the Men ACWY vaccine, ideally before the start of the academic year.

      It is worth noting that the Men C vaccine used to be given at 3 months but has now been discontinued. This is because the success of the Men C vaccination programme means there are almost no cases of Men C disease in babies or young children in the UK any longer. All children will continue to be offered the Hib/Men C vaccine at one year of age, and the Men ACWY vaccine at 14 years of age to provide protection across all age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - Which of the following features is not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following features is not typically associated with patent ductus arteriosus?

      Your Answer: Bisferiens pulse

      Explanation:

      A collapsing pulse is linked to PDA.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 9-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough, and difficulty breathing. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5ËšC, heart rate 170 bpm, respiratory rate 60/min, oxygen saturation 92% on room air, blood pressure 100/65 mmHg, capillary refill time is 3 seconds. Her parents report that she has been eating poorly for the past few days and has had a high temperature for the past 24 hours. A senior clinician has admitted her and started IV antibiotics, IV fluids, and supplemental oxygen. The patient is currently awake and alert.

      According to the NICE pediatric traffic light system, which of the following in her presentation is a red flag?

      Your Answer: Oxygen saturations

      Correct Answer: Tachypnoea

      Explanation:

      The child’s capillary refill time is normal, as it falls within the acceptable range of less than 3 seconds. However, his tachycardia is a cause for concern, as a heart rate over 160 bpm is considered an amber flag for his age. Although reduced skin turgor is not mentioned, it would be considered a red flag indicating severe dehydration and poor circulation according to the NICE traffic light system. As the child is older than 3 months, a temperature above 38ËšC would not be considered a red flag.

      The NICE Feverish illness in children guidelines were introduced in 2007 and updated in 2013. These guidelines use a ‘traffic light’ system to assess the risk of children under 5 years old presenting with a fever. It is important to note that these guidelines only apply until a clinical diagnosis of the underlying condition has been made. When assessing a febrile child, their temperature, heart rate, respiratory rate, and capillary refill time should be recorded. Signs of dehydration should also be looked for. Measuring temperature should be done with an electronic thermometer in the axilla if the child is under 4 weeks old or with an electronic/chemical dot thermometer in the axilla or an infrared tympanic thermometer.

      The risk stratification table includes green for low risk, amber for intermediate risk, and red for high risk. The table includes categories such as color, activity, respiratory, circulation and hydration, and other symptoms. If a child is categorized as green, they can be managed at home with appropriate care advice. If they are categorized as amber, parents should be provided with a safety net or referred to a pediatric specialist for further assessment. If a child is categorized as red, they should be urgently referred to a pediatric specialist. It is important to note that oral antibiotics should not be prescribed to children with fever without an apparent source, and a chest x-ray does not need to be routinely performed if a pneumonia is suspected but the child is not going to be referred to the hospital.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 9-year-old girl presents with a 1-day history of abdominal pain. Her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents with a 1-day history of abdominal pain. Her mother reports that the pain woke the child up this morning, with one episode of vomiting this afternoon, and she has since lost her appetite. She has had no fever or diarrhoea. There is no history of foreign travel and no ill contacts. On examination, the temperature is 37.5 °C and heart rate (HR) 123 bpm, and there is generalised abdominal tenderness, without guarding or rigidity. Urine dip is negative, and blood tests show white cell count (WCC) of 15 with C-reactive protein (CRP) of 10.
      What would the next best step in management be?

      Your Answer: Discharge with oral analgesia

      Correct Answer: Nil by mouth, intravenous fluids and review

      Explanation:

      Management of Appendicitis in Children: Nil by Mouth, Laparoscopy, and Monitoring

      Appendicitis in children can present with atypical symptoms, such as general abdominal pain, anorexia, and vomiting, accompanied by a low-grade fever. If a child presents with these symptoms, it is important to suspect appendicitis and admit the child for monitoring.

      The first line of management is to keep the child nil by mouth and monitor their condition closely. If the child’s pain worsens or their condition deteriorates, a diagnostic or Exploratory laparoscopy may be necessary, with or without an appendicectomy.

      While a laparotomy may be necessary in emergency situations where the child is haemodynamically unstable, a laparoscopic appendicectomy is usually the preferred option.

      An abdominal X-ray is not the best diagnostic tool for appendicitis, but it can rule out bowel perforation and free pneumoperitoneum. Ultrasound is the preferred modality for children due to the lower radiation dose compared to CT scans.

      It is crucial to monitor the child’s condition closely and prevent any complications from a perforated appendix. Discharge with oral analgesia is not recommended if the child is tachycardic and has a low-grade fever, as these symptoms can be associated with peritonitis. Overall, early recognition and prompt management are essential in the successful treatment of appendicitis in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - A 14-year-old boy comes to the GP complaining of gradual onset right groin...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old boy comes to the GP complaining of gradual onset right groin pain and a limp. He has no significant medical or family history. During the examination, the right leg appears shortened and externally rotated, with limited range of motion. No joint swelling or warmth is detected. The patient's vital signs are normal, and he is in the 50th percentile for height and 90th percentile for weight. What is the most suitable initial investigation to perform?

      Your Answer: Plain X-ray of both hips (AP and frog-leg views)

      Explanation:

      To diagnose SUFE, X-rays are the preferred imaging method. It is important to image both hips, even if there are no symptoms, to rule out involvement of the other hip. MRI is not typically used as a first-line investigation, but may be considered if there is still suspicion of SUFE despite normal X-rays. While CT is sensitive for SUFE, it is not typically used as a first-line investigation in children due to the radiation exposure.

      Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis: A Rare Hip Condition in Children

      Slipped capital femoral epiphysis, also known as slipped upper femoral epiphysis, is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children between the ages of 10 and 15. It is more commonly seen in obese boys. This condition is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly, which may present acutely following trauma or with chronic, persistent symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped capital femoral epiphysis include hip, groin, medial thigh, or knee pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion. In some cases, a bilateral slip may occur. Diagnostic imaging, such as AP and lateral (typically frog-leg) views, can confirm the diagnosis.

      The management of slipped capital femoral epiphysis typically involves internal fixation, which involves placing a single cannulated screw in the center of the epiphysis. However, if left untreated, this condition can lead to complications such as osteoarthritis, avascular necrosis of the femoral head, chondrolysis, and leg length discrepancy.

      In summary, slipped capital femoral epiphysis is a rare hip condition that primarily affects children, especially obese boys. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly and can present with various symptoms. Early diagnosis and management are crucial to prevent complications.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - Which one of the following statements regarding cow's milk protein intolerance/allergy in toddlers...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding cow's milk protein intolerance/allergy in toddlers is true?

      Your Answer: The majority of cases resolve before the age of 5 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father following a 2-day history of a non-productive cough. Her father denies any recent viral illness.
      On examination, the patient has no accessory muscle usage and is afebrile. On auscultation, she is noted to have a left-sided wheeze without crepitations. The patient has been developing normally and has never had any respiratory problems before. She has no significant past medical or family history. Her immunisation records are up to date.
      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Correct Answer: Inhaled foreign body

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Child with Respiratory Symptoms

      When a child presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In the case of a short duration of non-productive cough, an audible wheeze, and unilateral wheeze on auscultation, an inhaled foreign body should be considered as a possible cause. Other potential diagnoses include croup, bronchiolitis, pneumonia, and asthma.

      Croup, caused by a virus such as the parainfluenza virus, is characterized by a barking-seal-like cough and may be accompanied by stridor. Bronchiolitis, on the other hand, typically follows a coryzal period of cough and/or cold and causes respiratory distress as evidenced by accessory muscle usage, nasal flare, and tachypnea. It is also characterized by widespread inspiratory crepitations.

      Pneumonia should also be included in the differential diagnosis, but the lack of respiratory distress and fever, as well as the absence of a productive cough, make it less likely. Asthma, which is rarely diagnosed in children of this age, would present with sudden onset respiratory distress and widespread wheezing.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and clinical findings is necessary to arrive at an accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A mother brings her 3-year-old son to see the GP as his walk...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old son to see the GP as his walk has changed. She explains that he started walking shortly after 13 months old. She has noticed that, over the last 3 days, his walking has been different. There is no history of trauma.

      The GP assesses him and notices an asymmetric gait. He appears well otherwise and basic observations are within normal limits. He is up-to-date with his immunisations and is developing normally.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Refer for urgent paediatric assessment

      Explanation:

      It is imperative to promptly schedule an evaluation for a child under the age of three who is experiencing a sudden limp.

      Causes of Limping in Children

      Limping in children can be caused by various factors, which may differ depending on the child’s age. One possible cause is transient synovitis, which has an acute onset and is often accompanied by viral infections. This condition is more common in boys aged 2-12 years. On the other hand, septic arthritis/osteomyelitis may cause a child to feel unwell and have a high fever. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis may cause a painless limp, while trauma can usually be diagnosed through the child’s history. Development dysplasia of the hip is usually detected in neonates and is six times more common in girls. Perthes disease, which is due to avascular necrosis of the femoral head, is more common in children aged 4-8 years. Finally, slipped upper femoral epiphysis may occur in children aged 10-15 years and is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head epiphysis postero-inferiorly. It is important to identify the cause of a child’s limp in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of diarrhoea lasting...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with a history of diarrhoea lasting for 2 weeks. Upon examination, he is found to be dehydrated. Further investigations reveal hypernatraemia. What signs are most likely to be observed during the physical examination?

      Your Answer: Decreased muscle tone

      Correct Answer: Jittery movements

      Explanation:

      Signs indicating hypernatraemic dehydration include tremulous movements, heightened muscle tension, exaggerated reflexes, seizures, and lethargy or unconsciousness.

      Managing Diarrhoea and Vomiting in Children

      Diarrhoea and vomiting are common in young children, with rotavirus being the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the UK. According to the 2009 NICE guidelines, diarrhoea usually lasts for 5-7 days and stops within 2 weeks, while vomiting usually lasts for 1-2 days and stops within 3 days. When assessing hydration status, NICE recommends using normal, dehydrated, or shocked categories instead of the traditional mild, moderate, or severe categories.

      Children younger than 1 year, especially those younger than 6 months, infants who were of low birth weight, and those who have passed six or more diarrhoeal stools in the past 24 hours or vomited three times or more in the past 24 hours are at an increased risk of dehydration. Additionally, children who have not been offered or have not been able to tolerate supplementary fluids before presentation, infants who have stopped breastfeeding during the illness, and those with signs of malnutrition are also at risk.

      If clinical shock is suspected, children should be admitted for intravenous rehydration. For children without evidence of dehydration, it is recommended to continue breastfeeding and other milk feeds, encourage fluid intake, and discourage fruit juices and carbonated drinks. If dehydration is suspected, give 50 ml/kg low osmolarity oral rehydration solution (ORS) solution over 4 hours, plus ORS solution for maintenance, often and in small amounts. It is also important to continue breastfeeding and consider supplementing with usual fluids, including milk feeds or water, but not fruit juices or carbonated drinks.

      In terms of diagnosis, NICE suggests doing a stool culture in certain situations, such as when septicaemia is suspected, there is blood and/or mucous in the stool, or the child is immunocompromised. A stool culture should also be considered if the child has recently been abroad, the diarrhoea has not improved by day 7, or there is uncertainty about the diagnosis of gastroenteritis. Features suggestive of hypernatraemic dehydration include jittery movements, increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, convulsions, and drowsiness or coma.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A father brings his 5-year-old child for a routine general practice (GP) appointment....

    Correct

    • A father brings his 5-year-old child for a routine general practice (GP) appointment. During the consultation, the father mentions that the child recently started playing soccer and has been enjoying it. You observe that the child has a short stature, upslanting palpebral fissures, a flat occiput and a single palmar crease.

      What should be the GP's primary concern for this 5-year-old child with short stature, upslanting palpebral fissures, a flat occiput, and a single palmar crease who recently started playing soccer?

      Your Answer: Atlantoaxial instability

      Explanation:

      Individuals with Down syndrome who engage in sports that have a higher risk of neck dislocation, such as gymnastics, boxing, diving, horse riding, rugby, and trampolining, should be screened for Atlantoaxial instability. This complication of Down syndrome can increase the likelihood of sudden neck dislocation, and while the child in this scenario does not exhibit any immediate concerns related to hypothyroidism, dementia, leukaemia, or seizures, it is important to prioritize screening for Atlantoaxial instability.

      Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is characterized by various clinical features. These features include an upslanting of the palpebral fissures, epicanthic folds, Brushfield spots in the iris, a protruding tongue, small low-set ears, and a round or flat face. Additionally, individuals with Down’s syndrome may have a flat occiput, a single palmar crease, and a pronounced sandal gap between their big and first toe. Hypotonia, congenital heart defects, duodenal atresia, and Hirschsprung’s disease are also common in individuals with Down’s syndrome.

      Cardiac complications are also prevalent in individuals with Down’s syndrome, with multiple cardiac problems potentially present. The most common cardiac defect is the endocardial cushion defect, also known as atrioventricular septal canal defects, which affects 40% of individuals with Down’s syndrome. Other cardiac defects include ventricular septal defect, secundum atrial septal defect, tetralogy of Fallot, and isolated patent ductus arteriosus.

      Later complications of Down’s syndrome include subfertility, learning difficulties, short stature, repeated respiratory infections, hearing impairment from glue ear, acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, hypothyroidism, Alzheimer’s disease, and atlantoaxial instability. Males with Down’s syndrome are almost always infertile due to impaired spermatogenesis, while females are usually subfertile and have an increased incidence of problems with pregnancy and labour.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - A 6-week old infant is seen by the health visitor. She was born...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-week old infant is seen by the health visitor. She was born via breech caesarean section at 36+2 weeks gestation due to suspected chorioamnionitis and received antibiotics post-partum. Her hospital newborn physical examination (NIPE) was normal. She is currently thriving and following the 60th centile. What further assessments should the health visitor arrange for this infant based on her medical history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasounds of pelvis in 2 weeks

      Explanation:

      An ultrasound of the pelvis in 2 weeks is the correct answer. This is because infants born in a breech position have an increased risk of DDH and require screening at 6 weeks to ensure there is no hip laxity. Vaginal swabs for group B streptococcus are not necessary if the mother is asymptomatic. Reviewing the infant’s progress along the centiles once or twice weekly is too frequent, as infants are usually weighed no more than once a month up to 6 months of age unless there are concerns about development. A full blood count is unnecessary for a well-looking infant without signs of anaemia or infection.

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - You are asked to help with the resuscitation of a premature neonate who...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to help with the resuscitation of a premature neonate who is displaying respiratory distress immediately after birth at 36 +4 weeks. During auscultation of the precordium, you observe the absence of heart sounds on the left side but can hear tinkling sounds. Additionally, the infant is exhibiting cyanosis.

      What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intubation and ventilation

      Explanation:

      If you hear bowel sounds during a respiratory exam of a neonate experiencing respiratory distress, it may indicate the presence of a diaphragmatic hernia. This condition occurs when abdominal organs protrude through a hole in the diaphragm, typically on the left side, leading to underdeveloped lungs and breathing difficulties. The sound of bowel in the chest cavity causes the bowel sounds to be audible. The heart sounds may also be louder on the right side due to the displacement of the heart. The initial treatment involves inserting a nasogastric tube to prevent air from entering the gut, but for a cyanotic patient, intubation and ventilation are necessary. Surgical repair of the diaphragm is the definitive treatment. BIPAP and CPAP are not appropriate for this condition, as they are used to keep the airway open in conditions such as COPD or respiratory distress syndrome. Facemask ventilation and nasal cannulae should be avoided as they increase the risk of air entering the gut, and an artificial airway is necessary to ensure adequate oxygenation.

      Understanding Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia

      Congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH) is a rare condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,000 newborns. It occurs when the diaphragm, a muscle that separates the chest and abdominal cavities, fails to form completely during fetal development. As a result, abdominal organs can move into the chest cavity, which can lead to underdeveloped lungs and high blood pressure in the lungs. This can cause respiratory distress shortly after birth.

      The most common type of CDH is a left-sided posterolateral Bochdalek hernia, which accounts for about 85% of cases. This type of hernia occurs when the pleuroperitoneal canal, a structure that connects the chest and abdominal cavities during fetal development, fails to close properly.

      Despite advances in medical treatment, only about 50% of newborns with CDH survive. Early diagnosis and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes. Treatment may involve surgery to repair the diaphragm and move the abdominal organs back into their proper position. In some cases, a ventilator or extracorporeal membrane oxygenation (ECMO) may be necessary to support breathing until the lungs can function properly. Ongoing care and monitoring are also important to manage any long-term complications that may arise.

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  • Question 16 - A 6-year-old girl is presented to the GP clinic with a flare-up of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl is presented to the GP clinic with a flare-up of asthma. Upon examination, she displays bilateral expiratory wheezing but no signs of respiratory distress. Her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute and PEF is approximately 60% of normal. What is the recommended course of action for steroid treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone for 3 days

      Explanation:

      According to the 2016 guidelines of the British Thoracic Society, children should be given a specific dose of steroids based on their age. For children under 2 years, the dose should be 10 mg of prednisolone, for those aged 2-5 years, it should be 20 mg, and for those over 5 years, it should be 30-40 mg. Children who are already taking maintenance steroid tablets should receive a maximum dose of 60 mg or 2 mg/kg of prednisolone. If a child vomits after taking the medication, the dose should be repeated, and if they are unable to retain the medication orally, intravenous steroids should be considered. The duration of treatment should be tailored to the number of days required for recovery, and a course of steroids exceeding 14 days does not require tapering.

      Managing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When it comes to managing acute asthma attacks in children, it is important to assess the severity of the attack and take appropriate action. For children between the ages of 2 and 5, those with severe or life-threatening asthma should be immediately transferred to the hospital. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92% and no clinical features of severe asthma. However, for severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, be too breathless to talk or feed, have a heart rate above 140/min, and use accessory neck muscles. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children over the age of 5, it is recommended to attempt to measure PEF in all cases. For moderate attacks, children should have a SpO2 level above 92%, a PEF level above 50% best or predicted, and no clinical features of severe asthma. For severe attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% best or predicted, and be unable to complete sentences in one breath or too breathless to talk or feed. For life-threatening attacks, children may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% best or predicted, a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, altered consciousness, and cyanosis.

      For children with mild to moderate acute asthma, bronchodilator therapy should be given via a beta-2 agonist and spacer (or close-fitting mask for children under 3 years old). One puff should be given every 30-60 seconds up to a maximum of 10 puffs. If symptoms are not controlled, the beta-2 agonist should be repeated and the child should be referred to the hospital. Steroid therapy should also be given to all children with an asthma exacerbation for 3-5 days, with the usual prednisolone dose varying based on age and weight.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A father brings his 10-month-old daughter to the emergency department due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 10-month-old daughter to the emergency department due to a rash that has developed. Upon further inquiry, the father explains that the rash started behind her ears two days ago and has since spread. Prior to the rash, the baby had a fever and cough. Although she is up to date with her vaccinations, the father has not yet scheduled her next appointment. During the examination, the baby appears irritable, has white spots in her mouth, and inflamed eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what is the potential risk for the baby?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Otitis media

      Explanation:

      Otitis media is the most frequent complication that arises from measles, which typically presents with an initial prodrome of cough, coryza, and the appearance of white spots on the buccal mucosa known as koplik spots. The rash usually emerges between day 3 and 5, starting behind the ears and spreading down the body.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 18 - A 10-day old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-day old infant is brought to the emergency department by his mother due to poor feeding and drinking for the past 48 hours. The mother is concerned about the baby's weight gain and has noticed pale stools. During the examination, the baby appears jaundiced and has an enlarged liver. The medical team performs a newborn jaundice screen and considers biliary atresia as a possible diagnosis. What clinical finding would be most indicative of biliary atresia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Raised level of conjugated bilirubin

      Explanation:

      Elevated conjugated bilirubin is a characteristic feature of biliary atresia. This condition is often associated with prolonged jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, abnormal growth, and cardiac murmurs in the presence of cardiac abnormalities. While liver transaminases and bile acids may also be elevated in biliary atresia, they are not specific to this condition and cannot distinguish it from other causes of neonatal cholestasis. Poor feeding and drinking are not helpful in making a diagnosis, as they can occur in many different conditions. While the age of presentation may suggest biliary atresia, there are several other potential causes of neonatal jaundice in a 15-day old infant, including congenital infections, urinary tract infections, breast milk jaundice, and hypothyroidism. Elevated unconjugated bilirubin is not a typical finding in biliary atresia, but may be seen in cases of hypothyroidism.

      Understanding Biliary Atresia in Neonatal Children

      Biliary atresia is a condition that affects the extrahepatic biliary system in neonatal children, resulting in an obstruction in the flow of bile. This condition is more common in females than males and occurs in 1 in every 10,000-15,000 live births. There are three types of biliary atresia, with type 3 being the most common. Patients typically present with jaundice, dark urine, pale stools, and abnormal growth.

      To diagnose biliary atresia, doctors may perform various tests, including serum bilirubin, liver function tests, serum alpha 1-antitrypsin, sweat chloride test, and ultrasound of the biliary tree and liver. Surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment for biliary atresia, and medical intervention includes antibiotic coverage and bile acid enhancers following surgery.

      Complications of biliary atresia include unsuccessful anastomosis formation, progressive liver disease, cirrhosis, and eventual hepatocellular carcinoma. However, the prognosis is good if surgery is successful. In cases where surgery fails, liver transplantation may be required in the first two years of life. Overall, understanding biliary atresia is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management in neonatal children.

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  • Question 19 - A 10-week-old girl is brought to the emergency department with concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-week-old girl is brought to the emergency department with concerns about her breathing. Three days ago, the girl started with a runny nose and mild fever. She seemed to be getting better for a day, but now she is coughing frequently, struggling to breathe, and refusing to eat.
      During the examination, there is evidence of nasal flaring. On chest auscultation, there are bilateral crackles and an expiratory wheeze. Her temperature is 38.1ºC (normal: 36.1-38.0ºC), oxygen saturations are 97% on air (normal: >96%), the heart rate is 128 beats per minute (normal: 115-160), and she has a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute (normal: 25-45).
      What is the most appropriate treatment for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Supportive measures only

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis in children can be managed with supportive therapy and does not require antibiotics. The patient in this case presents with typical symptoms of bronchiolitis, including a preceding coryzal phase, cough, increased work of breathing, and crackles and wheeze on auscultation. Although the patient has a mild temperature and tachypnoea, sepsis is not suspected as the normal parameters for children of this age are different. According to NICE guidelines, treatment for bronchiolitis should focus on supportive therapy, such as humidified oxygen or fluids if necessary. Salbutamol, amoxicillin, oral dexamethasone, and erythromycin are not recommended for bronchiolitis.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

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  • Question 20 - A 14-month-old boy is brought to the children's emergency department by his parents...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-month-old boy is brought to the children's emergency department by his parents who report loss of consciousness and seizure activity. Paramedics state that he was not seizing when they arrived. He has a temperature of 38.5ºC and has been unwell recently. His other observations are normal. He has no known past medical history.

      After investigations, the child is diagnosed with a febrile convulsion. What advice should you give his parents regarding this new diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call an ambulance only when a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Febrile convulsions are a common occurrence in young children, with up to 5% of children experiencing them. However, only a small percentage of these children will develop epilepsy. Risk factors for febrile convulsions include a family history of the condition and a background of neurodevelopmental disorder. The use of regular antipyretics has not been proven to decrease the likelihood of febrile convulsions.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

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  • Question 21 - A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a 1 week...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl is brought to the emergency department with a 1 week history of fever, lethargy, and irritability. The symptoms appeared suddenly and have not improved despite the GP's recommendation of antipyretics. The child has also experienced a loss of appetite and diarrhea during this time. This morning, a red rash appeared all over her body.

      Upon examination, the child appears toxic, has a temperature of 39.2ºC, and is tachycardic. The doctor observes a widespread maculopapular rash, left-sided cervical lymph node enlargement, and a swollen, erythematosus tongue.

      What is the most important investigation for this child, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      To detect the development of coronary artery aneurysms, it is crucial to conduct an echocardiogram when dealing with Kawasaki disease. This is because such an examination can identify any coronary artery dilation or aneurysm formation, which is the primary cause of death associated with this condition. While an ECG is also necessary to evaluate any conduction abnormalities that may arise due to carditis, it is not as fatal as coronary artery complications. On the other hand, a chest x-ray or lumbar puncture is unnecessary since Kawasaki disease typically does not affect the lungs or central nervous system. Similarly, an abdominal ultrasound scan is not required unless liver function tests suggest gallbladder distension.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

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  • Question 22 - A 3-year-old girl with meningococcal septicaemia has a cardiac arrest on the ward....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl with meningococcal septicaemia has a cardiac arrest on the ward. You are the first responder. After confirming the arrest and following the paediatric BLS protocol, what is the appropriate rate for chest compressions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 100-120 compressions per minute

      Explanation:

      The Paediatric Basic Life Support guideline of the UK Resuscitation Council mandates that chest compressions for children of all ages should be administered at a rate of 100-120 per minute, with a depth that depresses the sternum by at least one-third of the chest’s depth. Individuals without paediatric resuscitation training are advised to use the adult chest compression to rescue breaths ratio of 30:2, while those caring for children and trained to do so should use a ratio of 15:2. It is important to note that the initial danger-response-airway-breathing-circulation sequence must still be followed.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 23 - Which one of the following statements regarding bronchiolitis is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding bronchiolitis is true?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Peak incidence is 3-6 months of age

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

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  • Question 24 - You are observing a doctor on the neonatal ward who is asked to...

    Incorrect

    • You are observing a doctor on the neonatal ward who is asked to assess a 3-hour-old baby delivered at 40+5 weeks by ventouse. The mother is concerned about the appearance of her baby's head. Upon examination, you notice a soft, puffy swelling at the back of the head with some light bruising from the ventouse cup. The swelling seems to extend across the suture lines. However, the baby appears to be in good health otherwise, and the neonatal hearing screen conducted earlier that morning was normal. What could be the probable cause of this presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Caput succedaneum

      Explanation:

      Caput succedaneum is a puffy swelling that occurs over the presenting part during prolonged ventouse delivery and resolves spontaneously. It differs from bulging fontanelle, which is caused by increased intracranial pressure, and cephalohaematoma, which is a swelling caused by fluid collecting between the periosteum and skull. Hydrocephalus is a condition where there is an accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid around the brain, and subaponeurotic haemorrhage is a rare condition caused by rupturing of emissary veins.

      Understanding Caput Succedaneum

      Caput succedaneum is a condition that refers to the swelling of the scalp at the top of the head, usually at the vertex. This swelling is caused by the mechanical trauma that occurs during delivery, particularly in prolonged deliveries or those that involve the use of vacuum delivery. The condition is characterized by soft, puffy swelling due to localized edema that crosses suture lines.

      Compared to cephalohaematoma, which is a collection of blood under the scalp, caput succedaneum is caused by edema. While cephalohaematoma is limited to a specific area and does not cross suture lines, caput succedaneum can affect a larger area and cross suture lines. Fortunately, no treatment is needed for caput succedaneum, as the swelling usually resolves on its own within a few days.

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  • Question 25 - A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a dry cough that has...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy visits his pediatrician complaining of a dry cough that has been bothering him for the past three days. The child has been experiencing intense coughing spells that make him turn blue and vomit. He had previously suffered from a cold with fever, sore throat, and a runny nose. The doctor diagnoses him with pertussis and prescribes a course of clarithromycin.

      What guidance should be provided regarding the child's return to school?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exclusion from school for 48 hours

      Explanation:

      If a child has whooping cough, they must stay away from school for 48 hours after starting antibiotics. This is because whooping cough is contagious, and it is important to prevent the spread of the disease. Additionally, during this time, the child should avoid contact with infants who have not been vaccinated.

      The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. influenzae requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.

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  • Question 26 - A 16-year-old girl visits your GP practice seeking contraception. After counseling her, you...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl visits your GP practice seeking contraception. After counseling her, you both agree that the implant would be the most suitable option. You believe that she has the ability to make this decision and give her consent for the insertion. However, during previous consultations, you have found her to lack capacity for certain decisions and have involved her parents. According to the GMC, what is necessary to proceed with the implant insertion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Just the patient's consent.

      Explanation:

      Capacity to make decisions is dependent on both time and the individual’s ability to make decisions. If the patient did not have the capacity to make a decision in the past, but currently has the capacity to do so, their consent is the only one required. It is advisable to involve parents in the decision-making process for pediatric patients, especially in cases involving contraception. However, if the patient is not convinced, the treatment can still proceed as long as they have the capacity to make the decision. If there are doubts, it is good practice to involve another healthcare team member, but if the patient is deemed capable of making the decision, their capacitous consent is sufficient according to the GMC. There is no requirement for a time gap between consultations to allow for decision-making.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

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  • Question 27 - You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when...

    Incorrect

    • You are on duty in the paediatric acute admissions unit during winter when you are called to assess a 16-month-old toddler presenting with a runny nose, dry cough, increased respiratory effort, and an elevated respiratory rate. Upon examination, you note a mild generalised wheeze, along with fever and feeding difficulties. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bronchiolitis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Conditions in Children: Understanding the Differences

      Bronchiolitis, Pneumonia, Asthma, Viral Upper Respiratory Tract Infection (URTI), and Croup are all respiratory conditions that can affect children. However, it is important to understand the differences between them in order to provide appropriate treatment.

      Bronchiolitis is a common respiratory condition caused by the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) that mostly affects children under 18 months old. It presents with coryzal symptoms before progressing to dyspnoea, cough, and fever. Difficulty feeding may occur due to dyspnoea, but most cases do not require admission.

      Pneumonia, on the other hand, is likely to present with a toxic child due to the bacteraemia. Localising signs such as dullness to percussion over the affected lobe may also be present.

      Asthma, which causes wheezing, would not cause fever. It is also important to note that the diagnosis of asthma should be avoided in patients below the age of 5.

      A viral URTI confined to the upper respiratory tract would not cause wheezing or significant respiratory compromise as described in the case history.

      Croup, which typically affects older children between the ages of 2-6 years, presents with a barking cough and, in severe cases, stridor.

      Understanding the differences between these respiratory conditions is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and care for children.

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  • Question 28 - A 4-year-old girl presents with multiple petechiae and excessive bruising on her arms....

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl presents with multiple petechiae and excessive bruising on her arms. She had been healthy until two weeks ago when she had a viral upper respiratory tract infection and was only given paracetamol by her doctor. Her mother noticed her symptoms half an hour ago and she has no fever. Blood tests show thrombocytopenia with all other parameters within normal range.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic thrombocytopaenic purpura (ITP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Children

      Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks the platelets, leading to a decrease in their count. This condition is more common in children and is usually acute, often following an infection or vaccination. The antibodies produced by the immune system target the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex, causing a type II hypersensitivity reaction.

      The symptoms of ITP in children include bruising, a petechial or purpuric rash, and less commonly, bleeding from the nose or gums. A full blood count is usually sufficient to diagnose ITP, and a bone marrow examination is only necessary if there are atypical features.

      In most cases, ITP resolves on its own within six months, without any treatment. However, if the platelet count is very low or there is significant bleeding, treatment options such as oral or IV corticosteroids, IV immunoglobulins, or platelet transfusions may be necessary. It is also advisable to avoid activities that may result in trauma, such as team sports. Understanding ITP in children is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.

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  • Question 29 - A 12-year-old girl who plays soccer starts to feel discomfort during games. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl who plays soccer starts to feel discomfort during games. She visits her doctor and is diagnosed with Osgood-Schlatter disease.

      Which bony prominence is affected by the inflammation that causes this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tibial tuberosity

      Explanation:

      Osteochondrosis, known as Osgood-Schlatter disease, is caused by inflammation (apophysitis) at the tibial tuberosity. The diagnosis can often be confirmed by palpating the affected area, and it is a common condition among active children. Trochanteric bursitis may cause tenderness in the trochanteric region, while patellar tendonitis is suggested by tenderness below the patella during examination. Sporting injuries may affect the medial femoral condyle, but fibular head pain is rare.

      Understanding Osgood-Schlatter Disease

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is a type of osteochondrosis that causes inflammation at the tibial tuberosity. This condition is caused by repeated avulsion of the apophysis, which is the bony outgrowth where the patellar tendon attaches. Osgood-Schlatter disease is a traction apophysitis, which means that it is caused by excessive pulling or stretching of the tendon.

      Although Osgood-Schlatter disease can be painful, it is a self-limiting condition that typically resolves on its own over time. Treatment is usually supportive and may include rest, ice, compression, and elevation of the affected area. In some cases, physical therapy or bracing may be recommended to help alleviate symptoms and prevent further injury.

      It is important to note that Osgood-Schlatter disease is most commonly seen in adolescents who are going through a growth spurt. As such, it is important for parents and coaches to be aware of the signs and symptoms of this condition so that they can seek appropriate medical attention if necessary. With proper management, most individuals with Osgood-Schlatter disease are able to return to their normal activities without any long-term complications.

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  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a follow-up appointment with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man with cystic fibrosis is scheduled for a follow-up appointment with his respiratory specialist. He has been experiencing more frequent respiratory infections and is seeking advice on how to minimize his risk of contracting further infections.

      What is the most suitable answer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Minimise contact with other cystic fibrosis patients

      Explanation:

      To reduce the risk of getting infections, the 23-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis should minimize contact with other patients with the same condition. It is not recommended to introduce a low-calorie diet, but rather to have a high-calorie diet. Exercise and chest physiotherapy are also recommended. While a salbutamol inhaler can provide relief for breathlessness, it will not reduce the risk of infections. Enzyme supplements are useful in treating cystic fibrosis, but they do not reduce the risk of infection.

      Managing Cystic Fibrosis: A Multidisciplinary Approach

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a chronic condition that requires a multidisciplinary approach to management. Regular chest physiotherapy and postural drainage, as well as deep breathing exercises, are essential to maintain lung function and prevent complications. Parents are usually taught how to perform these techniques. A high-calorie diet, including high-fat intake, is recommended to meet the increased energy needs of patients with CF. Vitamin supplementation and pancreatic enzyme supplements taken with meals are also important.

      Patients with CF should try to minimize contact with each other to prevent cross-infection with Burkholderia cepacia complex and Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Chronic infection with Burkholderia cepacia is an important CF-specific contraindication to lung transplantation. In cases where lung transplantation is necessary, careful consideration is required to ensure the best possible outcome.

      Lumacaftor/Ivacaftor (Orkambi) is a medication used to treat cystic fibrosis patients who are homozygous for the delta F508 mutation. Lumacaftor increases the number of CFTR proteins that are transported to the cell surface, while ivacaftor is a potentiator of CFTR that is already at the cell surface. This increases the probability that the defective channel will be open and allow chloride ions to pass through the channel pore.

      It is important to note that the standard recommendation for CF patients has changed from high-calorie, low-fat diets to high-calorie diets to reduce the amount of steatorrhea. With a multidisciplinary approach to management, patients with CF can lead fulfilling lives and manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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