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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with small bowel obstruction. A nasogastric (NG) tube was inserted, and he has been prescribed intravenous (IV) fluids. Three days later, he reports feeling short of breath, and on examination, he has widespread fine crackles and pitting sacral oedema. His notes show that he has been receiving 2 litres of fluid a day and that he weighs 50 kg. You treat him, and once his symptoms have resolved, you're-calculate his daily maintenance fluid requirements.
      Which of the following options is the most suitable amount of daily fluid to give to the patient?

      Your Answer: 3000–3500 ml

      Correct Answer: 1000–1500 ml

      Explanation:

      Calculating Fluid Requirements for a Patient with Fluid Overload

      When determining a patient’s fluid requirements, it is important to consider their weight and any underlying medical conditions. For this particular patient, who weighs 48 kg, her maintenance fluid requirement is between 1200-1440 ml per day, calculated using 25-30 ml/kg/day.

      However, this patient has developed fluid overload and pulmonary edema, likely due to receiving 2 liters of fluid per day. While this may have been necessary initially due to fluid loss from bowel obstruction, it is now important to step down to normal maintenance levels.

      Giving the patient 1500-2000 ml of fluid per day would still be too much, as evidenced by examination findings of pitting sacral edema and widespread fine crackles. The maximum amount of fluid needed for maintenance therapy is 1440 ml per day.

      It is crucial to monitor fluid intake and adjust as necessary to prevent further complications from fluid overload. Giving too much fluid, such as 2500-3500 ml per day, can be harmful for a patient with fluid overload and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      74.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - The following blood gas values were obtained on a different ventilated patient.
    pH 7.4...

    Incorrect

    • The following blood gas values were obtained on a different ventilated patient.
      pH 7.4 (7.35-7.45)
      pO2 95 mmHg (90-120)
      Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L (23-26)
      pCO2 30 mmHg (35-45)
      What is the most appropriate explanation for these results?

      Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis

      Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Alkalosis: Causes and Effects

      Respiratory alkalosis is a condition that occurs when a person hyperventilates, leading to a decrease in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) in the alveoli. This decrease in PaCO2 causes an increase in the ratio of bicarbonate concentration (HCO3) to PaCO2, which in turn increases the pH of the blood. As a result, the patient may appear to have an alkalosis with a high pH of 7.5, low pCO2, and normal PO2. However, the body tries to compensate for this by lowering the bicarbonate concentration. This condition can be caused by a variety of factors, including anxiety, fever, hypoxia, and pulmonary disease. It can also be a side effect of certain medications or a result of high altitude. Treatment for respiratory alkalosis depends on the underlying cause and may include addressing the underlying condition, breathing techniques, or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is the correct information about Entonox? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the correct information about Entonox?

      Your Answer: Is a mixture of 50% nitric oxide and 50% oxygen

      Correct Answer: Is an effective short term analgesic

      Explanation:

      Entonox: A Mixture of Nitrous Oxide and Oxygen

      Entonox is a gas mixture of 50% nitrous oxide and 50% oxygen that is stored in cylinders. The cylinders have a French blue body with blue and white quarters at the top. It is important to note that if the gas mixture cools below its pseudocritical temperature of −6°C, the nitrous oxide and oxygen may separate out through a process called lamination. This can result in a potentially dangerous and hypoxic gas being administered.

      Despite being a flammable mixture, Entonox is not considered explosive. It is effective in providing short-term analgesia and is safe for both infants and mothers. The onset of action occurs approximately 30 seconds after inhalation, and the duration of action after analgesia is approximately one minute.

      It is important to distinguish nitrous oxide (N2O) from nitric oxide (NO) as they are not the same. Overall, Entonox is a useful gas mixture for providing short-term pain relief, but it must be stored and administered properly to avoid any potential risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      12.4
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  • Question 4 - A 60-year-old man has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest and is now...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has been resuscitated after a cardiac arrest and is now being treated for hypoxic brain injury in the Neuro-Intensive Care Unit. His family is concerned about his prognosis. What is the most reliable source of information regarding his potential outcome?

      Your Answer: Bilaterally absent somatosensory evoked responses (SSEPs) at 24–72 hours

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Indicators for Hypoxic Brain Injury Patients

      Hypoxic brain injury patients require ancillary tests to aid in determining their prognosis. Bilaterally absent somatosensory evoked responses (SSEPs) at 24–72 hours and complete generalised suppression of electroencephalographic (EEG) waves on day three are reliable indicators of poor prognosis. Absent pupillary or corneal reflexes at three days after cardiac arrest, along with the absence of motor response, is also a better prognostic marker. However, in the absence of either one of these factors, the prognosis should be evaluated using results from ancillary tests (SSEP/EEG). Extensor motor response on day three, despite the absence of motor response, is a reliable indicator for poor prognosis. Myoclonic status epilepticus (MSE) – bilateral and synchronous myoclonus of the face, limbs and axial skeleton – has been studied as a reliable marker for poor prognosis in these patients, even in the presence of brainstem and motor responses. However, it should not be considered in isolation as a prognostic indicator. It is important to note that the reliability of these indicators may be affected by factors such as noise interferences, hypothermia, and drugs given during resuscitation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following characteristics is not associated with cannabinoids? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is not associated with cannabinoids?

      Your Answer: Lowers intraocular pressure

      Correct Answer: Bioavailability after oral administration is about 80%

      Explanation:

      Cannabinoids and Their Effects

      Cannabinoids are compounds found in the resin of cannabis sativa, with 9-tetrahydrocannabinol (9-THC) being the most important active component. However, the oral bioavailability of THC, whether in pure form or as part of marijuana, is low and highly variable, with effects taking anywhere from 0.5 to 3 hours to occur. Smoking marijuana also does not significantly increase bioavailability, with rates rarely exceeding 10-20%.

      Interestingly, the analgesic effects of cannabinoids can be blocked by naloxone and other opioid receptor antagonists. Additionally, synthetic cannabinoids have been found to reduce inflammation caused by arachidonic acid by inhibiting eicosanoid production. Overall, the effects and limitations of cannabinoids is important for both medical and recreational use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - You are faced with a 60-year-old male patient who has a history of...

    Correct

    • You are faced with a 60-year-old male patient who has a history of ischaemic heart disease (taking aspirin and clopidogrel) and reflux, and requires an emergency DHS for his neck of femur fracture. Despite administering a thiopentone and suxamethonium rapid sequence induction, you are unable to intubate the patient. You have attempted to reposition him, insert a bougie, and switch to a McCoy blade, but all efforts have been unsuccessful. The patient's oxygen saturation has dropped to 88%, and you are unable to ventilate him via a face mask due to his large face and thick beard. You are losing your seal and cannot achieve any tidal volume.
      What would be your next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Insert a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) and attempt to ventilate the patient

      Explanation:

      Managing a ‘Can’t Intubate’ Scenario in a Patient with Neck of Femur Fracture

      In a ‘can’t intubate’ scenario with a patient who has a neck of femur fracture, the priority is delivering oxygen. If attempts at intubation have been difficult and the patient is desaturating, the Difficult Airway Society recommends attempting ventilation with a laryngeal mask airway (LMA) as a temporary measure. If this fails and the patient continues to desaturate, an emergency cricothyrotomy is advised for urgent oxygen delivery. Using a videolaryngoscope to secure a definitive airway is not recommended if oxygenation is a priority. Similarly, attempting a fibreoptic intubation or using a long blade for further attempts at intubation can cause damage and swelling in the airway, leading to laryngospasm. Waking the patient up is also not advisable in this emergency situation, as neck of femur fractures have a high mortality rate if left untreated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      11.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man who lives alone in a cabin is brought to the...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man who lives alone in a cabin is brought to the Emergency Department by his son. He was found lying on the floor unconscious but later regained consciousness. He now reports experiencing a headache, nausea, difficulty breathing, and feeling faint. He does not smoke, drink alcohol, or use any recreational drugs.
      Which of the following tests is most likely to result in a likely diagnosis of carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning?

      Your Answer: Multi-wavelength oximetry analysis

      Explanation:

      Multi-Wavelength Oximetry Analysis for Diagnosis of CO Poisoning

      Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning can be diagnosed through a thorough history and physical examination, but measuring the presence of dissolved CO in blood is necessary. Multi-wavelength oximeters can detect carboxyhaemoglobin and methaemoglobin in addition to oxyhaemoglobin and deoxyhaemoglobin. Normal CO levels are 1-3%, and any higher levels confirm CO poisoning. Arterial p(O2) levels remain unchanged in CO poisoning, so they cannot be used for diagnosis. CT scans can rule out other causes of neurological complications, and ECGs and cardiac enzyme measurements are necessary for patients with higher exposures or pre-existing cardiac conditions. Standard pulse oximetry cannot distinguish between carboxyhaemoglobin and oxyhaemoglobin and is not useful for diagnosing CO poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      46
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - In case there is no intravenous access available, what is the next most...

    Incorrect

    • In case there is no intravenous access available, what is the next most favored way to administer adrenaline during a cardiac arrest?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular

      Correct Answer: Intraosseous

      Explanation:

      Intraosseous Access as an Alternative to Intravenous Access in Emergency Situations

      In emergency situations where intravenous access cannot be obtained quickly, intraosseous access should be attempted as it is preferred over endotracheal access. According to the Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines, if intravenous access cannot be established within the first 2 minutes of resuscitation, gaining intraosseous access should be considered. This is particularly important during a cardiac arrest when epinephrine is an essential resuscitation drug. The recommended dose for intraosseous access is the same as intravenous access, which is 1 mg of 1:10,000 adrenaline each 3-5 minutes. Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be trained in intraosseous access as it can be a life-saving alternative when intravenous access is not possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      9.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the preferred intravenous induction agent for anesthesia in day case procedures?...

    Correct

    • What is the preferred intravenous induction agent for anesthesia in day case procedures?

      Your Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Comparison of Different Anesthetic Agents

      Propofol is a short-acting anesthetic agent with an elimination half-life of four hours. It is commonly used for day case procedures and sedation in intensive care units. On the other hand, etomidate is no longer preferred due to its side effects such as postoperative nausea and vomiting, venous thrombosis, and interference with glucocorticoid production. Ketamine, a phencyclidine derivative, can cause hallucinations and nightmares. Methohexitone may lead to involuntary muscular movement and epileptiform activity on an EEG. Lastly, thiopentone has the longest elimination half-life of 12 hours, which can cause a prolonged hangover effect.

      In summary, different anesthetic agents have their own advantages and disadvantages. It is important to choose the appropriate agent based on the patient’s condition and the type of procedure being performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      16.1
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  • Question 10 - An 80-year-old woman is suffering from gastroenteritis and requires iv replacement due to...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is suffering from gastroenteritis and requires iv replacement due to her inability to tolerate oral fluids. What is the maximum flow rate achievable through a 16G cannula?

      Your Answer: 33 ml/min

      Correct Answer: 180 ml/min

      Explanation:

      Different Flow Rates of Cannulas for Infusions

      Cannulas are small tubes inserted into a vein to administer medication or fluids. Different sizes and colors of cannulas are available, each with varying flow rates. The grey 16G cannula has the highest flow rate of 180 ml/min, while the blue 22G cannula has the lowest flow rate of 33 ml/min. The pink 20G cannula is the most commonly used in adults for standard infusions, with a flow rate of 54 ml/min. The green 18G cannula has a flow rate of 80 ml/min, and the orange 14G cannula has the largest size and highest flow rate of 270 ml/min. It is important to choose the appropriate cannula size and flow rate for each patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      13.3
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  • Question 11 - You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old woman who underwent a left mastectomy...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 75-year-old woman who underwent a left mastectomy yesterday to treat breast cancer. Her potassium level is low at 3.1 mmol/L (normal range is 3.5-4.9), but she is asymptomatic and currently having her lunch. She has a history of hypertension and takes a thiazide diuretic regularly. What would be the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Prescribe an oral potassium supplement

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Mild Hypokalaemia

      Mild hypokalaemia can be treated with oral supplementation. If a patient is able to eat, intravenous fluids are unnecessary. It is best to advise the patient to take oral supplements for a few days. Foods such as tomatoes and bananas contain high levels of potassium and could be offered as well. However, it is important to note that the maximum concentration of potassium that can be given via a peripheral line is 40 mmol/L. It is also important to avoid loop diuretics as they can make the patient’s potassium levels even lower. As long as the patient is asymptomatic and able to eat, mild hypokalaemia can be easily treated with oral supplementation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      19.8
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You are requested to evaluate a 50-year-old individual who underwent a left total...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 50-year-old individual who underwent a left total knee replacement two days ago. The patient reports experiencing weakness in the movement of their right foot since the surgery. They are curious if the spinal anesthesia administered during the procedure could be the cause, despite no complications being reported at the time. Apart from this issue, the patient is in good health. Upon clinical examination, you observe a suspected foot drop as there is a weakened dorsiflexion of the right foot. What is the probable reason for this?

      Your Answer: Spinal nerve injury

      Correct Answer: Poor intra-operative positioning and padding

      Explanation:

      Post-Operative Foot Drop Caused by Prolonged Pressure on Common Peroneal Nerve

      Prolonged pressure on the common peroneal nerve during anaesthesia is a well-known cause of post-operative foot drop. It is important to ensure that patients are adequately padded on the fibula head when positioning them under general or regional anaesthesia for extended periods of time. While a central neurological cause is unlikely to cause such well-defined peripheral nerve lesions, it is essential to take precautions to prevent nerve damage during surgery.

      Treatment for post-operative foot drop is typically conservative, and the transient neuropraxia can often pass. However, in some cases, this may result in permanent injury. It is crucial to monitor patients closely after surgery and provide appropriate care to prevent further complications. By taking preventative measures and providing proper post-operative care, healthcare professionals can help reduce the risk of post-operative foot drop and other nerve injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old man on the Medical Ward develops status epilepticus. He is immediately...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man on the Medical Ward develops status epilepticus. He is immediately attended by the Foundation Year One Doctor who notices that his airway has been compromised. The patient is immediately examined and found to be haemodynamically stable, with a history of hypertension and asthma. The anaesthetist immediately performs a rapid sequence induction and intubation (RSII) to clear the patient’s airway.
      Which of the following inducing agents used in RSII is most likely to be used in this patient?

      Your Answer: Midazolam

      Correct Answer: Propofol

      Explanation:

      Common Inducing Anaesthetic Agents and Their Uses

      Propofol, etomidate, ketamine, midazolam, and thiopental are all commonly used inducing anaesthetic agents with varying properties and uses.

      Propofol is the drug of choice for RSII procedures in normotensive individuals without obvious cardiovascular pathology. It has amnesic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and muscle relaxant properties, but no analgesic effects.

      Etomidate provides haemodynamic stability without histamine activity and minimal analgesic effects. It is used in RSI procedures in patients with raised intracranial pressure and cardiovascular conditions, often in combination with fentanyl.

      Ketamine is a non-competitive glutamate N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor blocker that produces dissociative anaesthesia. It can be used for induction of anaesthesia in patients with hypotension, status asthmaticus, and shock, but is avoided in hypertensive patients due to relative contraindications.

      Midazolam is a benzodiazepine with anticonvulsive, muscle relaxant, and anaesthetic actions. At higher doses or in combination with other opioids, it induces significant cardiovascular and respiratory depression.

      Thiopental is administered intravenously as an inducing anaesthetic agent or as a short-acting anaesthetic. It is also used as an anticonvulsant agent and to decrease intracranial pressure in neurosurgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - You are asked to see a patient on the high dependency unit following...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to see a patient on the high dependency unit following an elective repair of her abdominal aortic aneurysm. Her last haemoglobin was 75 g/L (130-180) and your consultant has told you to give her four units of blood urgently.

      The nurse informs you that the patient's date of birth is incorrect on the blood she is about to give, although all other details are correct. The patient mentions that this has happened before. She has previously received six units of blood in theatre without any issues.

      What course of action should you take?

      Your Answer: Continue the transfusion and inform the laboratory urgently

      Correct Answer: Stop the blood transfusion

      Explanation:

      Importance of Correct Patient Identification in Transfusions

      Transfusions are a crucial aspect of medical treatment, but incorrect patient identification of samples and blood products can lead to fatal consequences. In fact, it is the most common cause of death following transfusion. Therefore, it is essential to ensure that patient identification is accurate and consistent throughout the process.

      If there are any inconsistencies or doubts about the patient’s identity, it is crucial to stop the transfusion immediately and inform the laboratory. This step can prevent serious harm or even death. It is better to err on the side of caution and take the necessary steps to ensure that the patient receives the correct blood product.

      In emergency situations where blood is needed immediately, and there is uncertainty about the patient’s identity, group O negative blood may be used. However, this should only be a temporary solution until the patient’s identity is confirmed, and the appropriate blood product can be administered.

      In conclusion, patient identification is a critical aspect of transfusions, and any errors or inconsistencies should be addressed immediately to prevent harm to the patient. It is better to take the necessary precautions and ensure that the patient receives the correct blood product, even if it means delaying the transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      26.4
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  • Question 15 - A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 70s is anaesthetised for an exploratory laparotomy. They were found to have perforated from a septic appendix. This has resulted in part of their bowel being removed and a stoma formation. The patient has been on the table for two and a half hours. Their core temperature at the end of the operation is 35.1 °C.
      Which mechanism accounts for most heat lost?

      Your Answer: Convection

      Correct Answer: Radiation

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heat Loss During Surgery: The Role of Radiation, Convection, Conduction, Evaporation, and Respiration

      During surgery, the body can lose heat through various mechanisms. Radiation, which accounts for 40% of heat loss, depends on factors such as body temperature and the environment. To combat this, patients are covered with warming methods like the Bair Huggerâ„¢. Convection, or air movement, contributes to 30% of heat loss, while conduction (5%) occurs through contact with the operating table and surrounding air. Evaporation (15%) is higher if the abdomen is open, and humidity is kept at 50% in the theatre to reduce it. Finally, respiration accounts for 10% of heat loss. Understanding these mechanisms can help healthcare professionals better manage patient temperature during surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      26.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 98-year-old gentleman is admitted for an incarcerated hernia. He has a past...

    Incorrect

    • A 98-year-old gentleman is admitted for an incarcerated hernia. He has a past medical history of chronic kidney disease stage 3, secondary to hypertension, and a background of transient ischaemic attacks (TIAs) and osteoarthritis of both knees.
      He has four good twitches on train of four testing (normal response), following which reversal of his muscle relaxant was given. Intraoperatively, he received a total of 100 micrograms of fentanyl, 20 mg of morphine and 1 g of paracetamol for pain. He has an arterial line in situ. Blood gas prior to finishing the procedure showed a pH of 7.35, PaCO2 of 5.4 kPa, HCO3− of 21 mmol/l, with a blood sugar of 7.2.
      You attempt to wean him off ventilation, but 20 minutes later he still does not want to breathe unsupported or wake up.
      What should your next course of action be?

      Your Answer: Wait a little longer, he is old

      Correct Answer: Give naloxone 100 micrograms iv

      Explanation:

      Medical Interventions for a Post-Operative Patient with Reduced Consciousness

      When dealing with a post-operative patient with reduced consciousness, it is important to rule out any reversible causes before administering any medical interventions. In the case of opiate toxicity, administering naloxone, an opiate antidote, can reverse the effects of the opiates. However, if the patient’s reduced Glasgow Coma Scale score and lack of respiratory effort are not caused by hypoglycemia, giving intravenous glucose is not necessary. It is also important to consider the patient’s age and wait a little longer to rule out any reversible causes. Administering a second dose of muscle relaxant reversal is unlikely to help if the patient has adequate contraction on train of four testing. Lastly, before re-sedating the patient for a CT head, it is necessary to rule out any reversible causes such as opiate toxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      76.8
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  • Question 17 - You are conducting a pre-assessment for a 28-year-old man who is scheduled to...

    Incorrect

    • You are conducting a pre-assessment for a 28-year-old man who is scheduled to undergo a colectomy for treatment resistant ulcerative colitis. This will be his first surgery. Your intended anaesthetic plan involves using propofol and sevoflurane as induction agents and suxamethonium as a muscle relaxant. What aspects of the patient's medical history and condition would cause you to modify your anaesthetic plan?

      Your Answer: The patient has asthma

      Correct Answer: The patient’s mother was ‘unable to move’ for 5 h after having an abdominal hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Anesthesia in a Patient with Medical History

      When administering anesthesia to a patient, it is important to take into account their medical history and any potential risk factors. Here are some considerations for a patient with specific medical history:

      Anesthesia Considerations for a Patient with Medical History

      – Prolonged Paralysis: If a patient has a family or personal history of prolonged paralysis after receiving suxamethonium, it may be necessary to consider using a different muscle relaxant during surgery.
      – Asthma: Patients with asthma are at a higher risk of airway irritation during endotracheal intubation. However, in some surgeries, intubation is necessary and careful monitoring is required.
      – Blood Pressure: While a blood pressure of 110/75 may be normal for a 26-year-old male, it is important to review the patient’s past blood pressure measurements to ensure that this is the case. Induction agents with profound cardiovascular effects should be avoided if the patient is in shock.
      – Family History of Cardiac Arrest: If a patient has a family history of cardiac arrest, it is important to review the facts of the case and consider any independent risk factors that may have contributed to the event.
      – Penicillin Allergy: While anesthesia agents do not contain penicillin, it is important to document any allergies in case the patient requires antibiotics after surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      44
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  • Question 18 - A patient is brought into the Resuscitation Room. Paramedics were called after he...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is brought into the Resuscitation Room. Paramedics were called after he was found face down, unconscious on the road. He smells strongly of alcohol. He has a nasopharyngeal airway in situ (inserted by the ambulance service). There are no visible injuries, except for a small abrasion on his left knee and another on his left shoulder. He is currently on 15 l of high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask.
      In which of the following scenarios is a nasopharyngeal airway indicated for an elderly patient?

      Your Answer: Base of skull fractures

      Correct Answer: Seizures

      Explanation:

      The Use of Nasopharyngeal Airways in Seizure Management

      Nasopharyngeal airways are a valuable tool in managing patients with seizures. During a seizure, jaw rigidity can make it difficult to position an oropharyngeal airway, making a nasopharyngeal airway a better option. These airways are used to secure an open airway in patients with a decreased Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score and those who cannot tolerate an oropharyngeal airway due to an intact gag reflex. The correct size of the airway is chosen by sizing the width of the patient’s nostril to the circumference of the tube, and insertion is facilitated by using a water-based lubricant. However, nasopharyngeal airways should not be used in patients with a patent airway or those with basal skull fractures and coagulopathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 19 - You have watched the anaesthetist anaesthetise a 70-year-old patient for a laparoscopic appendicectomy...

    Correct

    • You have watched the anaesthetist anaesthetise a 70-year-old patient for a laparoscopic appendicectomy using thiopentone and suxamethonium. She has never had an anaesthetic before. The patient is transferred from the anaesthetic room into theatre and you notice that she becomes difficult to ventilate with high airway pressures. She has an endotracheal tube (ETT) in situ, with equal chest rise and sats of 95% on 15 l of oxygen. On examining her cardiovascular system, she has a heart rate of 110 bpm with a blood pressure of 68/45 mmHg. She has an erythematosus rash across her chest and face.
      What is your first line of action?

      Your Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline intramuscularly (im)

      Explanation:

      Management of Anaphylaxis: Medications and Dosages

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate treatment. The first-line management for anaphylaxis is the administration of adrenaline, also known as epinephrine. The dosage of adrenaline varies depending on the age of the patient. For adults, 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline should be given intramuscularly (im), and the dose can be repeated after 5 minutes if there is no response. In children, the dosage ranges from 150 to 500 micrograms depending on age.

      Intravenous (iv) administration of adrenaline is not recommended at a concentration of 1 : 1000. However, iv adrenaline can be administered at a concentration of 1 : 10 000 by an anaesthetist, titrated according to effect. An adrenaline infusion may be necessary for cardiovascular support of the patient.

      Chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone are also part of the treatment for anaphylaxis, but adrenaline takes priority. The dosages of these drugs vary depending on the age of the patient and can be given either im or through a slow iv injection.

      It is important to note that anaphylaxis is a medical emergency, and prompt treatment with the appropriate medications is crucial for a positive outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      12.8
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  • Question 20 - You are asked to take over a patient halfway through a case to...

    Correct

    • You are asked to take over a patient halfway through a case to relieve the consultant anaesthetist for a comfort break. The patient, who is 65 years old, has an endotracheal tube (ETT) in situ and is maintained on sevoflurane and ventilated at a rate of 14 breaths per minute, with a tidal volume of 600. You notice that the carbon dioxide (CO2) trace is high (ET 6.9) and increasing quite rapidly. The maxillofacial surgeon remarks that the patient’s jaw is quite tight and asks for more muscle relaxant. You check the patient’s temperature and find that it is high at 39.6 °C.
      Which one of the following is your priority?

      Your Answer: Actively cool the patient, stop sevoflurane and give dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Managing Malignant Hyperpyrexia: An Anaesthetic Emergency

      Malignant hyperpyrexia is a life-threatening anaesthetic emergency triggered by inhalational anaesthetics and muscle relaxants in genetically susceptible individuals. It causes a hypermetabolic state, leading to increased CO2 production, oxygen consumption, heat production, metabolic and respiratory acidosis, hyperkalaemia, activation of the sympathetic nervous system, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.

      Early signs include a rise in end-tidal CO2, rigid muscles, tachycardia, and tachypnoea. Treatment involves discontinuation of the triggering agent, rapid administration of dantrolene, active cooling, and treatment of hyperkalaemia. Dantrolene inhibits calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and reverses the hypermetabolic state.

      It is important to inform the surgeon and stop the operation. Once the initial reaction is controlled, the patient will require transfer to the ICU and monitoring for 24-48 hours.

      In contrast, giving more muscle relaxant or antibiotics is not recommended. Active management and stabilisation of the patient should precede discussion with the ICU. Malignant hyperpyrexia requires prompt recognition and management to prevent serious complications and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      20.7
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening shortness of breath over the past six months. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with aortic stenosis. What physical sign is the most reliable indicator of the severity of the valvular disease?

      Your Answer: Character of the carotid pulse

      Correct Answer: Length of the murmur

      Explanation:

      Characteristics of Aortic Stenosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition where the aortic valve becomes narrowed, causing the heart to work harder to pump blood out to the body. Despite this increased workload, the apex beat in aortic stenosis is not displaced but has a heaving character. Additionally, the pulse is typically of small volume and slow rising. The second heart sound may be inaudible or paradoxically split.

      It is important to note that the intensity of the murmur is not a reliable indicator of the severity of the disease. As the cardiac output is reduced with more severe disease, the murmur may become less intense. However, the murmur tends to become longer as the disease progresses, due to the longer ejection time needed. These characteristics can help healthcare professionals diagnose and monitor aortic stenosis in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 22 - What is the combination of ingredients in Hartmann's solution? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the combination of ingredients in Hartmann's solution?

      Your Answer: Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium and dextrose

      Correct Answer: Sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium and lactate

      Explanation:

      Hartmann’s Solution Composition and Metabolism

      Hartmann’s solution, also known as lactated Ringer’s solution, is an intravenous fluid that is isotonic in nature. It contains various compounds, including sodium, chloride, potassium, calcium, and lactate. A litre of this solution contains 131 mmol of sodium, 111 mmol of chloride, 5 mmol of potassium, 2 mmol of calcium, and 29 mmol of lactate.

      One of the unique features of Hartmann’s solution is the presence of lactate, which is metabolized by the liver to release bicarbonate. This process is important because bicarbonate would otherwise combine with calcium to form calcium carbonate, which can cause complications. Therefore, the metabolism of lactate helps to maintain the stability of the solution and prevent any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
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  • Question 23 - Which volatile agent was linked to the development of fulminant hepatitis after secondary...

    Correct

    • Which volatile agent was linked to the development of fulminant hepatitis after secondary exposure?

      Your Answer: Halothane

      Explanation:

      Halothane Hepatitis and Precautions

      Halothane hepatitis is a condition that can range from minor liver function issues to severe liver failure. It occurs when liver damage appears within 28 days of exposure to halothane, after excluding other known causes of liver disease. About 75% of patients with halothane hepatitis have antibodies that react to halothane-altered antigens. Therefore, it is important to take precautions when using halothane.

      Halothane should be avoided if there has been a previous exposure within three months, if there is a known adverse reaction to halothane, if there is a family history of adverse reactions, or if there is pre-existing liver disease. These precautions can help prevent the occurrence of halothane hepatitis and ensure the safety of patients. It is important to carefully consider the use of halothane and take necessary measures to avoid any potential harm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      4.8
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  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old man was undergoing a routine appendectomy and was given general anaesthesia...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man was undergoing a routine appendectomy and was given general anaesthesia with succinylcholine and halothane. The patient was sedated and intubated during the procedure. After one hour, the anaesthetist observed that the patient had a temperature of 41 °C, blood pressure of 160/90 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. An arterial blood gas (ABG) test revealed a pH of 7.2 (normal value 7.35–7.45) and a PaCO2 of 6.6 kPa (normal value <4.5 kPa). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Common Adverse Reactions to Medications: Symptoms and Treatments

      Malignant Hyperthermia, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome, Serotonin Syndrome, Acute Dystonia, and Meningitis are all potential adverse reactions to medications.

      Malignant Hyperthermia is a rare condition that can occur after exposure to general anaesthetics or muscle relaxants. Symptoms include a sudden increase in temperature, acidosis, hypercapnia, and widespread skeletal muscle rigidity. Treatment involves dantrolene and supportive care such as cooling and correction of acidosis.

      Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare idiosyncratic reaction that can occur as a response to taking high-potency anti-psychotic medication. Symptoms include hyperthermia, fluctuating consciousness, rigidity, tachycardia, labile blood pressure, and autonomic dysfunction. Treatment involves discontinuing the medication and supportive management such as fluids and cooling. Dantrolene or bromocriptine may also be used.

      Serotonin Syndrome occurs when a patient takes multiple doses, an overdose, or a combination of certain medications. Symptoms include confusion, agitation, hyperreflexia, shivering, sweating, tremor, fever, and ataxia. Treatment involves stopping the drugs and providing supportive care.

      Acute Dystonia presents with spasm of various muscle groups and is a side-effect of anti-psychotic medication. It can occur in the first few hours of administration of anti-psychotic medication. It is also seen with the antiemetic metoclopramide where it can cause an oculogyric crisis. It is not usually associated with anaesthesia.

      Meningitis is not a complication of anaesthesia or muscle relaxants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      9.5
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden and severe headache. Upon examination, she...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a sudden and severe headache. Upon examination, she is spontaneously opening her eyes and localising to painful stimuli, but is disoriented. What would be the most appropriate initial investigation?

      Your Answer: Lumbar puncture (LP)

      Correct Answer: Computed tomography (CT)

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage can be diagnosed with a high degree of accuracy through an urgent CT scan, which can confirm the condition in 95% of patients. In most cases, a lumbar puncture is not necessary unless the patient’s medical history suggests the need for one and the CT scan results are normal. If a bloody tap is suspected, the number of red blood cells should decrease with each successive sample. If an LP is performed six hours after the onset of symptoms, the supernatant fluid should be examined for xanthochromia after centrifugation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      10.5
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  • Question 26 - A 57-year-old woman has undergone a mitral valve repair and is experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman has undergone a mitral valve repair and is experiencing a prolonged recovery in the cardiac intensive care unit. To aid in her management, a pulmonary artery catheter is inserted.
      What is one of the calculated measurements provided by the pulmonary artery catheter?

      Your Answer: Right ventricular pressure

      Correct Answer: Cardiac output

      Explanation:

      Measuring Cardiac Output and Pressures with a Pulmonary Artery Catheter

      A pulmonary artery catheter can provide direct and derived measurements for assessing cardiac function. Direct measurements include right atrial pressure, right ventricular pressure, pulmonary artery pressure, pulmonary artery wedge pressure, core temperature, and mixed venous saturation. The catheter can also be used to calculate cardiac output using the method of thermodilution. This involves a proximal port with a heater and a distal thermistor that senses changes in temperature.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure is a direct measurement that can be obtained with the catheter, reflecting left atrial filling. However, it may not always accurately reflect the pressure in the left atrium due to various factors. Right ventricular pressure is another direct measurement that can be obtained.

      Central venous saturation is a direct measure in some machines with a built-in saturation measurement probe, while in others, samples can be taken via the distal port and measured using a gas machine. Overall, a pulmonary artery catheter can provide valuable information for monitoring cardiac output and pressures in critically ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      6.5
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  • Question 27 - You are requested to attend to a 65-year-old male patient who has just...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to attend to a 65-year-old male patient who has just returned from surgery in the high dependency unit. He underwent a left hemicolectomy to remove colon cancer. Your task is to prescribe the appropriate intravenous fluids for him.

      What is the most effective way to determine the infusion rate for the fluids?

      Your Answer: Measure a single central venous pressure (CVP) from his central line

      Correct Answer: Measure his urine output and adjust accordingly

      Explanation:

      Importance of Adequate Hydration in Monitoring Organ Perfusion

      Hourly urine output is a reliable indicator of organ perfusion, which is directly linked to hydration levels. However, if there is a urological obstruction, this measure may not be accurate. While a trend in central venous pressure (CVP) can be helpful, a single reading is not a reliable indicator of hydration status. Late signs of hypovolemia include dry mucous membranes and hypotension. Therefore, it is crucial to maintain adequate hydration levels to ensure proper organ perfusion and prevent hypovolemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      13.1
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  • Question 28 - You are on an anaesthetic attachment in Day Surgery and are reviewing patients...

    Correct

    • You are on an anaesthetic attachment in Day Surgery and are reviewing patients preoperatively. You review a 25-year-old man who is having an elective knee arthroscopy. He has not had a general anaesthetic before, but he tells you that his father had problems following suxamethonium anaesthetic, and he had to have a muscle sample sent off to find out the cause, which came back positive. His father is still alive.
      Which of these is his father’s most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Common Complications of Suxamethonium Administration

      Suxamethonium is a commonly used muscle relaxant during anesthesia. However, it can lead to several complications, including malignant hyperthermia, raised intraocular pressure, anaphylaxis, prolonged paralysis, and hyperkalemia.

      Malignant hyperthermia is a genetic myopathy that causes a hypermetabolic state, leading to circulatory collapse and death. Treatment involves recognition, removal of stimuli, continuation of anesthesia with intravenous agents, cooling, and administration of dantrolene.

      Raised intraocular pressure and intracranial pressure can occur after suxamethonium administration, but this is only relevant to patients with ocular and intracranial diseases.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can occur after suxamethonium administration. Diagnosis is based on signs and symptoms.

      Prolonged paralysis can occur in patients with abnormal pseudocholinesterase level or function, which is generally due to inherited genetic alleles. Diagnosis is by blood test.

      Hyperkalemia can occur after suxamethonium administration, especially in patients with severe muscle damage or recent burns. Diagnosis does not require a muscle biopsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      17.3
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old male in the postoperative ICU with a central line catheter is...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male in the postoperative ICU with a central line catheter is experiencing intermittent fevers. What is the probable microorganism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Coagulase-negative Staphylococci

      Explanation:

      Coagulase-Negative Staphylococci: Commonly Isolated Bacteria in Clinical Microbiology Laboratories

      Coagulase-negative Staphylococci are frequently encountered in clinical microbiology laboratories. These bacteria, including Staphylococcus epidermidis, are susceptible to novobiocin and have become a significant cause of infection, especially in patients who are hospitalized and have foreign bodies implanted or those who have weakened immune systems.

      The prevalence of coagulase-negative Staphylococci in clinical settings highlights the importance of identifying and treating these bacteria promptly. With the rise of antibiotic resistance, it is crucial to monitor the susceptibility patterns of these organisms to ensure effective treatment. By the characteristics and potential risks associated with coagulase-negative Staphylococci, healthcare providers can take appropriate measures to prevent and manage infections caused by these bacteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      3.7
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  • Question 30 - Which of the following is not involved in managing chronic pain caused by...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not involved in managing chronic pain caused by cancer?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Correct Answer: Pinaverium

      Explanation:

      Medications for Pain Relief in Various Conditions

      Pinaverium is a medication that is commonly used to reduce the duration of pain in individuals with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). On the other hand, carbamazepine is used to treat neuropathic pain that is associated with malignancy, diabetes, and other disorders. Clodronate is another medication that is used to treat malignant bone pain and hypercalcaemia by inhibiting osteoclastic bone resorption.

      Corticosteroids are also used to treat pain caused by central nervous system tumours. These medications work by reducing inflammation and oedema, which in turn relieves the pain caused by neural compression. Nifedipine is another medication that is used to relieve painful oesophageal spasm and tenesmus that is associated with gastrointestinal tumours.

      Lastly, oxybutynin is a medication that is used to relieve painful bladder spasm. Overall, these medications are used to treat pain in various conditions and can provide relief to individuals who are experiencing discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anaesthetics & ITU (11/30) 37%
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