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Question 1
Incorrect
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Mrs. Johnson is an 82-year-old woman who visited her General practitioner complaining of gradual worsening shortness of breath over the past two months. During the medical history, it was discovered that she has had Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) for 20 years.
Upon examination, there are no breath sounds at both lung bases and a stony dull note to percussion over the same areas. Based on this clinical scenario, what is the probable cause of her recent exacerbation of shortness of breath?Your Answer: Infective exacerbation of COPD
Correct Answer: Pleural transudate effusion secondary to cor pulmonale
Explanation:The most likely cause of a pleural transudate is heart failure. This is due to the congestion of blood into the systemic venous circulation, which can result from long-standing COPD and increase in pulmonary vascular resistance leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulmonale. Other options such as infective exacerbation of COPD or pulmonary edema secondary to heart failure are less likely to explain the clinical signs. Pleural exudate effusion secondary to cor pulmonale is also not the most appropriate answer as it would cause a transudate pleural effusion, not an exudate.
Understanding the Causes and Features of Pleural Effusion
Pleural effusion is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which is the area between the lungs and the chest wall. The causes of pleural effusion can be classified into two types: transudate and exudate. Transudate is characterized by a protein concentration of less than 30g/L and is commonly caused by heart failure, hypoalbuminemia, liver disease, and other conditions. On the other hand, exudate is characterized by a protein concentration of more than 30g/L and is commonly caused by infections, pneumonia, tuberculosis, and other conditions.
The symptoms of pleural effusion may include dyspnea, non-productive cough, and chest pain. Upon examination, patients may exhibit dullness to percussion, reduced breath sounds, and reduced chest expansion. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pleural effusion to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve the patient’s overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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During a consultant-led ward round in the early morning, a patient recovering from endovascular thrombectomy for acute mesenteric ischemia is examined. The reports indicate an embolus in the superior mesenteric artery.
What is the correct description of the plane at which the superior mesenteric artery branches off the abdominal aorta and its corresponding vertebral body?Your Answer: Transpyloric plane - L3
Correct Answer: Transpyloric plane - L1
Explanation:The superior mesenteric artery originates from the abdominal aorta at the transpyloric plane, which is an imaginary axial plane located at the level of the L1 vertebral body and midway between the jugular notch and superior border of the pubic symphysis. Another transverse plane commonly used in anatomy is the subcostal plane, which passes through the 10th costal margin and the vertebral body L3. Additionally, the trans-tubercular plane, which is a horizontal plane passing through the iliac tubercles and in line with the 5th lumbar vertebrae, is often used to delineate abdominal regions in surface anatomy.
The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks
The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.
Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.
In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.
Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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During a radical neck dissection, at what age would division of which of the following fascial layers expose the ansa cervicalis?
Your Answer: Prevertebral fascia
Correct Answer: Pretracheal fascia
Explanation:To access the ansa cervicalis, one must cut through the pretracheal fascia on the posterolateral side of the thyroid gland. This nerve is located in front of the carotid sheath. However, it should be noted that the pre vertebral fascia is situated further back and cannot be reached by dividing the investing layer of fascia.
The ansa cervicalis is a nerve that provides innervation to the sternohyoid, sternothyroid, and omohyoid muscles. It is composed of two roots: the superior root, which branches off from C1 and is located anterolateral to the carotid sheath, and the inferior root, which is derived from the C2 and C3 roots and passes posterolateral to the internal jugular vein. The inferior root enters the inferior aspect of the strap muscles, which are located in the neck, and should be divided in their upper half when exposing a large goitre. The ansa cervicalis is situated in front of the carotid sheath and is an important nerve for the proper functioning of the neck muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A respiratory specialist is conducting a bronchoscopy to determine a suitable biopsy for histological evaluation of suspected bronchial carcinoma in a pediatric patient.
While performing the procedure, the bronchoscope is erroneously inserted through the diaphragm at the T10 level.
Which structure is at the highest risk of being harmed as a result of this error?Your Answer: Aorta
Correct Answer: Oesophagus
Explanation:The oesophagus passes through the diaphragm at the level of T10 along with the vagal trunk, which is the most likely structure to have been damaged. The aorta, on the other hand, perforates the diaphragm at T12 and supplies oxygenated blood to the lower body, while the azygous vein also perforates the diaphragm at T12 and drains the right side of the thorax into the superior vena cava.
Structures Perforating the Diaphragm
The diaphragm is a dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavities. It plays a crucial role in breathing by contracting and relaxing to create negative pressure in the lungs. However, there are certain structures that perforate the diaphragm, allowing them to pass through from the thoracic to the abdominal cavity. These structures include the inferior vena cava at the level of T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein at T12.
To remember these structures and their corresponding levels, a helpful mnemonic is I 8(ate) 10 EGGS AT 12. This means that the inferior vena cava is at T8, the esophagus and vagal trunk are at T10, and the aorta, thoracic duct, and azygous vein are at T12. Knowing these structures and their locations is important for medical professionals, as they may need to access or treat them during surgical procedures or diagnose issues related to them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 24-year-old female arrives at the emergency department in a state of panic following a recent breakup with her partner. She complains of chest tightness and dizziness, fearing that she may be experiencing a heart attack. Upon examination, her vital signs are stable except for a respiratory rate of 34 breaths per minute. What compensatory mechanism is expected in response to the change in her oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve, and what is the underlying cause?
Your Answer: Left shift, respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:The patient’s oxygen dissociation curve has shifted to the left, indicating respiratory alkalosis. This is likely due to the patient experiencing a panic attack and hyperventilating, leading to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels and an increase in the affinity of haemoglobin for oxygen. Respiratory acidosis, hypercapnia, and a right shift of the curve are not appropriate explanations for this patient’s condition.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 75-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of a productive cough that has lasted for 5 days. He has also been feeling generally unwell and has had a fever for the past 2 days. The doctor suspects a bacterial respiratory tract infection and orders a blood panel, sputum microscopy, and culture. What is the most likely abnormality to be found in the blood results?
Your Answer: Neutrophils
Explanation:Neutrophils are typically elevated during an acute bacterial infection, while eosinophils are commonly elevated in response to parasitic infections and allergies. Lymphocytes tend to increase during acute viral infections and chronic inflammation. IgE levels are raised in cases of allergic asthma, malaria, and type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. Anti-CCP antibody is a diagnostic tool for Rheumatoid arthritis.
Pneumonia is a common condition that affects the alveoli of the lungs, usually caused by a bacterial infection. Other causes include viral and fungal infections. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common organism responsible for pneumonia, accounting for 80% of cases. Haemophilus influenzae is common in patients with COPD, while Staphylococcus aureus often occurs in patients following influenzae infection. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Legionella pneumophilia are atypical pneumonias that present with dry cough and other atypical symptoms. Pneumocystis jiroveci is typically seen in patients with HIV. Idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is a group of non-infective causes of pneumonia.
Patients who develop pneumonia outside of the hospital have community-acquired pneumonia (CAP), while those who develop it within hospitals are said to have hospital-acquired pneumonia. Symptoms of pneumonia include cough, sputum, dyspnoea, chest pain, and fever. Signs of systemic inflammatory response, tachycardia, reduced oxygen saturations, and reduced breath sounds may also be present. Chest x-ray is used to diagnose pneumonia, with consolidation being the classical finding. Blood tests, such as full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and CRP, are also used to check for infection.
Patients with pneumonia require antibiotics to treat the underlying infection and supportive care, such as oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids. Risk stratification is done using a scoring system called CURB-65, which stands for confusion, respiration rate, blood pressure, age, and is used to determine the management of patients with community-acquired pneumonia. Home-based care is recommended for patients with a CRB65 score of 0, while hospital assessment is recommended for all other patients, particularly those with a CRB65 score of 2 or more. The CURB-65 score also correlates with an increased risk of mortality at 30 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female presented to the hospital with a complaint of a sore throat. She reported having a high-grade fever and severe pain on the right side of her throat for the past four days. The patient also experienced difficulty in swallowing and had restricted mouth opening. Additionally, she complained of bilateral ear pain and headache. Despite receiving oral antibiotics, her symptoms had worsened.
Upon examination, the patient had a fever of 38.5ÂșC and prominent cervical lymphadenopathy. Swelling of the right soft palate was observed, and the uvula was deviated to the left.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Epiglottitis
Correct Answer: Peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)
Explanation:Trismus, which is difficulty in opening the mouth, is a common symptom of peritonsillar abscess (also known as quinsy). It is important to note that quinsy is a complication of tonsillitis, not acute tonsillitis itself. Epiglottitis may present with muffled voice, drooling, and difficulty in breathing, while infectious mononucleosis is associated with other symptoms such as weight loss, fatigue, and enlarged lymph nodes and organs.
Peritonsillar Abscess: Symptoms and Treatment
A peritonsillar abscess, also known as quinsy, is a complication that can arise from bacterial tonsillitis. This condition is characterized by severe throat pain that is localized to one side, along with difficulty opening the mouth and reduced neck mobility. Additionally, the uvula may be deviated to the unaffected side. It is important to seek urgent medical attention from an ENT specialist if these symptoms are present.
The treatment for a peritonsillar abscess typically involves needle aspiration or incision and drainage, along with intravenous antibiotics. In some cases, a tonsillectomy may be recommended to prevent recurrence of the abscess. It is important to follow the recommended treatment plan and attend all follow-up appointments to ensure proper healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is the anatomical level of the transpyloric plane?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L1
Explanation:The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks
The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.
Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.
In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.
Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of breathing difficulty. Upon examination, his chest appears normal, but his respiratory rate is 32 breaths per minute. The medical team suspects he may be experiencing a panic attack and subsequent hyperventilation. What impact will this have on his blood gas levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a respiratory alkalosis due to their hyperventilation, which is causing a decrease in carbon dioxide levels and resulting in an alkaline state.
Respiratory Alkalosis: Causes and Examples
Respiratory alkalosis is a condition that occurs when the blood pH level rises above the normal range due to excessive breathing. This can be caused by various factors, including anxiety, pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders, altitude, and pregnancy. Salicylate poisoning can also lead to respiratory alkalosis, but it may also cause metabolic acidosis in the later stages. In this case, the respiratory centre is stimulated early, leading to respiratory alkalosis, while the direct acid effects of salicylates combined with acute renal failure may cause acidosis later on. It is important to identify the underlying cause of respiratory alkalosis to determine the appropriate treatment. Proper management can help prevent complications and improve the patient’s overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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John, a 55-year-old man, arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain that is relieved by leaning forward. He also mentions that the pain spreads to his left shoulder. The diagnosis is pericarditis.
Which nerve is accountable for the referred pain in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:The phrenic nerve provides motor innervation to the diaphragm and sensory innervation to the pleura and pericardium. Pericarditis can cause referred pain to the shoulder due to the supraclavicular nerves originating at C3-4. It is important to note that there are no pericardial nerves. The spinal accessory nerve innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles, while the trochlear nerve supplies the superior oblique muscle. Although the vagus nerve has various functions, it does not supply the pericardium.
The Phrenic Nerve: Origin, Path, and Supplies
The phrenic nerve is a crucial nerve that originates from the cervical spinal nerves C3, C4, and C5. It supplies the diaphragm and provides sensation to the central diaphragm and pericardium. The nerve passes with the internal jugular vein across scalenus anterior and deep to the prevertebral fascia of the deep cervical fascia.
The right phrenic nerve runs anterior to the first part of the subclavian artery in the superior mediastinum and laterally to the superior vena cava. In the middle mediastinum, it is located to the right of the pericardium and passes over the right atrium to exit the diaphragm at T8. On the other hand, the left phrenic nerve passes lateral to the left subclavian artery, aortic arch, and left ventricle. It passes anterior to the root of the lung and pierces the diaphragm alone.
Understanding the origin, path, and supplies of the phrenic nerve is essential in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect the diaphragm and pericardium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man is having a left pneumonectomy for bronchial carcinoma. When the surgeons reach the root of the lung, which structure will be the most anterior in the anatomical plane?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phrenic nerve
Explanation:The lung root contains two nerves, with the phrenic nerve positioned in the most anterior location and the vagus nerve situated in the most posterior location.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man arrives at the ER with a recent onset of left-sided facial paralysis. He reports experiencing a painful rash around his ear on the affected side for the past five days. Your suspicion is Ramsay Hunt syndrome. What virus is responsible for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster virus
Explanation:The geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve (CN VII) reactivates the varicella-zoster virus, causing Ramsay Hunt syndrome.
Infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever) is primarily linked to the Epstein-Barr virus.
Viral warts are commonly caused by human papillomavirus (HPV), with certain types being associated with gynaecological malignancy. Vaccines are now available to protect against the carcinogenic strains of HPV.
Oral or genital herpes infections are caused by the herpes simplex virus.
Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this syndrome is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.
To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral acyclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with jaundice and a distended abdomen. He has a history of alcoholism and has been hospitalized before for acute alcohol withdrawal. During the examination, you observe spider naevi on his upper chest wall and detect a shifting dullness on abdominal percussion, indicating ascites. Further imaging and investigation reveal portal vein hypertension and cirrhosis.
Where does this vessel start?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: L1
Explanation:Portal hypertension is commonly caused by liver cirrhosis, often due to alcohol abuse. The causes of this condition can be categorized as pre-hepatic, hepatic, or post-hepatic, depending on the location of the underlying pathology. The primary factors contributing to portal hypertension are increased vascular resistance in the portal venous system and elevated blood flow in the portal veins. The portal vein originates at the transpyloric plane, which is situated at the level of the body of L1. Other significant structures found at this location include the neck of the pancreas, the spleen, the duodenojejunal flexure, and the superior mesenteric artery.
The Transpyloric Plane and its Anatomical Landmarks
The transpyloric plane is an imaginary horizontal line that passes through the body of the first lumbar vertebrae (L1) and the pylorus of the stomach. It is an important anatomical landmark used in clinical practice to locate various organs and structures in the abdomen.
Some of the structures that lie on the transpyloric plane include the left and right kidney hilum (with the left one being at the same level as L1), the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the duodenojejunal flexure, the superior mesenteric artery, and the portal vein. The left and right colic flexure, the root of the transverse mesocolon, and the second part of the duodenum also lie on this plane.
In addition, the upper part of the conus medullaris (the tapered end of the spinal cord) and the spleen are also located on the transpyloric plane. Knowing the location of these structures is important for various medical procedures, such as abdominal surgeries and diagnostic imaging.
Overall, the transpyloric plane serves as a useful reference point for clinicians to locate important anatomical structures in the abdomen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is undergoing an upper GI endoscopy due to difficulty swallowing. During the procedure, a suspicious-looking blockage is found at 33 cm from the incisors. The endoscopist tries to widen the area with a balloon, but the tumor causes a rupture in the oesophageal wall. Where will the contents of the oesophagus now drain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior mediastinum
Explanation:The oesophagus is expected to remain within the thoracic cavity and situated in the posterior mediastinum at this point.
The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.
The superior mediastinum is the area between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5. It contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve. The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.
In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area in the thorax that contains many important structures and is divided into four regions. Each region contains different structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man suffers a closed head injury and experiences a decline in consciousness upon arrival at the hospital. To monitor his intracranial pressure, an ICP monitor is inserted. What is the normal range for intracranial pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 7 - 15mm Hg
Explanation:The typical range for intracranial pressure is 7 to 15 mm Hg, with the brain able to tolerate increases up to 24 mm Hg before displaying noticeable clinical symptoms.
Understanding the Monro-Kelly Doctrine and Autoregulation in the CNS
The Monro-Kelly doctrine governs the pressure within the cranium by considering the skull as a closed box. The loss of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) can accommodate increases in mass until a critical point is reached, usually at 100-120ml of CSF lost. Beyond this point, intracranial pressure (ICP) rises sharply, and pressure will eventually equate with mean arterial pressure (MAP), leading to neuronal death and herniation.
The central nervous system (CNS) has the ability to autoregulate its own blood supply through vasoconstriction and dilation of cerebral blood vessels. However, extreme blood pressure levels can exceed this capacity, increasing the risk of stroke. Additionally, metabolic factors such as hypercapnia can cause vasodilation, which is crucial in ventilating head-injured patients.
It is important to note that the brain can only metabolize glucose, and a decrease in glucose levels can lead to impaired consciousness. Understanding the Monro-Kelly doctrine and autoregulation in the CNS is crucial in managing intracranial pressure and preventing neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man with thyroid cancer is hospitalized for dyspnea. What is the most appropriate test to evaluate potential compression of the upper respiratory tract?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flow volume loop
Explanation:Understanding Flow Volume Loops
A flow volume loop is a graphical representation of the amount of air that a person can inhale and exhale over time. It is often described as a triangle on top of a semi-circle. This loop is useful in assessing the compression of the upper airway, which can be caused by various conditions such as asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), and sleep apnea.
To interpret a flow volume loop, the vertical axis represents the flow rate, while the horizontal axis represents the volume of air. The loop starts at the bottom left corner, where the person begins to inhale. As the person inhales, the flow rate increases, creating the upward slope of the triangle. At the top of the triangle, the person reaches their maximum inhalation volume.
The person then begins to exhale, creating the downward slope of the triangle. The flow rate decreases as the person exhales, until they reach their maximum exhalation volume, represented by the semi-circle. The loop then returns to the starting point, completing one full cycle.
Overall, flow volume loops are a valuable tool in diagnosing and monitoring respiratory conditions. By analyzing the shape and size of the loop, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in lung function and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old patient presents to the rheumatology clinic with weight loss, fever, and night sweats. The individual is also experiencing shortness of breath. The following blood test results are obtained:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 140 g/l
- Platelets: 192 * 109/l
- White cell count (WCC): 5.3 * 109/l
- Creatinine: 154 umol/l
- Urea: 9 mmol/l
- cANCA positive
The white cell differential count is reported as normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is granulomatosis with polyangiitis, as indicated by the presence of cANCA and the involvement of multiple organs including the lungs, skin, kidneys, and upper respiratory tract. This condition is known to cause inflammation in the glomeruli, leading to renal impairment. Churg-Strauss disease and Alport’s syndrome are unlikely due to normal eosinophil levels and cANCA positivity, respectively. Goodpasture’s syndrome is also unlikely as the patient does not present with haematuria or haemoptysis.
Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: An Autoimmune Condition
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, previously known as Wegener’s granulomatosis, is an autoimmune condition that affects the upper and lower respiratory tract as well as the kidneys. It is characterized by a necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis. The condition presents with various symptoms such as epistaxis, sinusitis, nasal crusting, dyspnoea, haemoptysis, and rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis. Other symptoms include a saddle-shape nose deformity, vasculitic rash, eye involvement, and cranial nerve lesions.
To diagnose granulomatosis with polyangiitis, doctors perform various investigations such as cANCA and pANCA tests, chest x-rays, and renal biopsies. The cANCA test is positive in more than 90% of cases, while the pANCA test is positive in 25% of cases. Chest x-rays show a wide variety of presentations, including cavitating lesions. Renal biopsies reveal epithelial crescents in Bowman’s capsule.
The management of granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of steroids, cyclophosphamide, and plasma exchange. Cyclophosphamide has a 90% response rate. The median survival rate for patients with this condition is 8-9 years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman comes to the respiratory clinic for an outpatient appointment. She has been experiencing increased breathlessness, particularly at night. Her medical history includes long-standing COPD, heart failure, and previous breast cancer that was treated with a mastectomy and radiotherapy. She used to smoke 20 cigarettes a day for 22 years but has since quit.
During the examination, her respiratory rate is 23/min, oxygen saturation is 93%, blood pressure is 124/98mmHg, and temperature is 37.2ÂșC. A gas transfer test is performed, and her transfer factor is found to be low.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary oedema
Explanation:TLCO, also known as transfer factor, is a measurement of how quickly gas can move from a person’s lungs into their bloodstream. To test TLCO, a patient inhales a mixture of carbon monoxide and a tracer gas, holds their breath for 10 seconds, and then exhales forcefully. The exhaled gas is analyzed to determine how much tracer gas was absorbed during the 10-second period.
A high TLCO value is associated with conditions such as asthma, pulmonary hemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, and exercise. Conversely, most other conditions result in a low TLCO value, including pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary edema, emphysema, and anemia.
Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing
The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.
KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A senior woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) arrives at the hospital complaining of worsening shortness of breath and a productive cough. As part of the initial evaluation, a chest X-ray is requested.
What radiographic feature would you anticipate observing on her chest X-ray?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flattened diaphragm
Explanation:The diaphragm of patients with COPD often appears flattened on a chest X-ray due to the chronic expiratory airflow obstruction causing dynamic hyperinflation of the lungs. Pleural effusions are commonly associated with infection, malignancy, or heart failure, while empyema is a result of pus accumulation in the pleural space caused by an infection.
Understanding COPD: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common medical condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, and patients with mild disease may only need occasional use of a bronchodilator, while severe cases may result in frequent hospital admissions due to exacerbations. Symptoms of COPD include a productive cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and in severe cases, right-sided heart failure leading to peripheral edema.
To diagnose COPD, doctors may recommend post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to check for hyperinflation, bullae, and flat hemidiaphragm, and to exclude lung cancer. A full blood count may also be necessary to exclude secondary polycythemia, and body mass index (BMI) calculation is important. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with a ratio of less than 70% indicating airflow obstruction. The grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 – mild now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but with a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.7. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.
In summary, COPD is a common condition caused by smoking that can result in a range of symptoms and severity. Diagnosis involves various tests to check for airflow obstruction, exclude lung cancer, and determine the severity of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother, complaining of ear pain that started last night. He has been unable to sleep due to the pain and has not been eating well. His mother reports that he seems different than his usual self. The affected side has muffled sounds, and he has a fever. Otoscopy reveals a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid-level. What is the structure that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Eustachian tube
Explanation:The pharyngotympanic tube, also known as the Eustachian tube, is responsible for connecting the middle ear and the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization in the middle ear. It opens on the anterior wall of the middle ear and extends anteriorly, medially, and inferiorly to open into the nasopharynx. The palatovaginal canal connects the pterygopalatine fossa with the nasopharynx, while the pterygoid canal runs from the anterior boundary of the foramen lacerum to the pterygopalatine fossa. The semicircular canals are responsible for sensing balance, while the greater palatine canal transmits the greater and lesser palatine nerves, as well as the descending palatine artery and vein. In the case of ear pain, otitis media is a likely cause, which can be confirmed through otoscopy. The pharyngotympanic tube is particularly important in otitis media as it is the only outlet for pus or fluid in the middle ear, provided the tympanic membrane is intact.
Anatomy of the Ear
The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy comes to your clinic with a complaint of ear pain that started last night and kept him awake. He missed school today because of the pain and reports muffled sounds on the affected side. During otoscopy, you observe a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid behind it, indicating a middle ear infection. Can you identify which nerves pass through the middle ear?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chorda tympani
Explanation:The chorda tympani is the correct answer. It is a branch of the seventh cranial nerve, the facial nerve, and carries parasympathetic and taste fibers. It passes through the middle ear before exiting and joining with the lingual nerve to reach the tongue and salivary glands.
The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve and carries balance and hearing information.
The maxillary nerve is the second division of the fifth cranial nerve and carries sensation from the upper teeth, nasal cavity, and skin.
The mandibular nerve is the third division of the fifth cranial nerve and carries sensation from the lower teeth, tongue, mandible, and skin. It also carries motor fibers to certain muscles.
The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve and carries taste and sensation from the posterior one-third of the tongue, as well as sensation from various areas. It also carries motor and parasympathetic fibers.
The patient in the question has ear pain, likely due to otitis media, as evidenced by a bulging tympanic membrane and fluid level on otoscopy.
Anatomy of the Ear
The ear is divided into three distinct regions: the external ear, middle ear, and internal ear. The external ear consists of the auricle and external auditory meatus, which are innervated by the greater auricular nerve and auriculotemporal branch of the trigeminal nerve. The middle ear is the space between the tympanic membrane and cochlea, and is connected to the nasopharynx by the eustachian tube. The tympanic membrane is composed of three layers and is approximately 1 cm in diameter. The middle ear is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve. The ossicles, consisting of the malleus, incus, and stapes, transmit sound vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear. The internal ear contains the cochlea, which houses the organ of corti, the sense organ of hearing. The vestibule accommodates the utricule and saccule, which contain endolymph and are surrounded by perilymph. The semicircular canals, which share a common opening into the vestibule, lie at various angles to the petrous temporal bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A patient is being anaesthetised for a minor bowel surgery. Sarah, a second year medical student is present and is asked to assist the anaesthetist during intubation. The anaesthetist inserts a laryngoscope in the patient's mouth and asks Sarah to identify the larynx.
Which one of the following anatomical landmarks corresponds to the position of the structure being identified by the student?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C3-C6
Explanation:The larynx is located in the front of the neck, specifically at the level of the vertebrae C3-C6. This area also includes important anatomical landmarks such as the Atlas and Axis vertebrae (C1-C2), the thyroid cartilage (C5), and the pulmonary hilum (T5-T7).
Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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During a schoolyard brawl a boy is hit in the chest. The stick passes through the posterior mediastinum (from left to right). Which one of the following structures is least likely to be injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arch of the azygos vein
Explanation:The azygos vein’s arch is located within the middle mediastinum.
The mediastinum is the area located between the two pulmonary cavities and is covered by the mediastinal pleura. It extends from the thoracic inlet at the top to the diaphragm at the bottom. The mediastinum is divided into four regions: the superior mediastinum, middle mediastinum, posterior mediastinum, and anterior mediastinum.
The superior mediastinum is the area between the manubriosternal angle and T4/5. It contains important structures such as the superior vena cava, brachiocephalic veins, arch of aorta, thoracic duct, trachea, oesophagus, thymus, vagus nerve, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and phrenic nerve. The anterior mediastinum contains thymic remnants, lymph nodes, and fat. The middle mediastinum contains the pericardium, heart, aortic root, arch of azygos vein, and main bronchi. The posterior mediastinum contains the oesophagus, thoracic aorta, azygos vein, thoracic duct, vagus nerve, sympathetic nerve trunks, and splanchnic nerves.
In summary, the mediastinum is a crucial area in the thorax that contains many important structures and is divided into four regions. Each region contains different structures that are essential for the proper functioning of the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which one of the following would cause a rise in the carbon monoxide transfer factor (TLCO)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary haemorrhage
Explanation:When alveolar haemorrhage takes place, the TLCO typically rises as a result of the increased absorption of carbon monoxide by haemoglobin within the alveoli.
Understanding Transfer Factor in Lung Function Testing
The transfer factor is a measure of how quickly a gas diffuses from the alveoli into the bloodstream. This is typically tested using carbon monoxide, and the results can be given as either the total gas transfer (TLCO) or the transfer coefficient corrected for lung volume (KCO). A raised TLCO may be caused by conditions such as asthma, pulmonary haemorrhage, left-to-right cardiac shunts, polycythaemia, hyperkinetic states, male gender, or exercise. On the other hand, a lower TLCO may be indicative of pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia, pulmonary emboli, pulmonary oedema, emphysema, anaemia, or low cardiac output.
KCO tends to increase with age, and certain conditions may cause an increased KCO with a normal or reduced TLCO. These conditions include pneumonectomy/lobectomy, scoliosis/kyphosis, neuromuscular weakness, and ankylosis of costovertebral joints (such as in ankylosing spondylitis). Understanding transfer factor is important in lung function testing, as it can provide valuable information about a patient’s respiratory health and help guide treatment decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of increasing difficulty in breathing over the past two days. He has a medical history of squamous cell lung cancer.
Upon examination, the trachea is observed to have shifted towards the left side, with dull percussion and absence of breath sounds throughout the left chest.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left lung collapse
Explanation:When a lung collapses, it can cause the trachea to shift towards the affected side, and there may be dullness on percussion and reduced breath sounds throughout the lung field. This is because the decrease in pressure on the affected side causes the mediastinum and trachea to move towards it.
A massive pleural effusion, on the other hand, would cause widespread dullness and absent breath sounds, but it would push the trachea away from the affected side due to increased pressure.
Pneumonia typically only affects one lung zone, so there would not be widespread dullness or absent breath sounds throughout the hemithorax. It also does not usually affect the position of the mediastinum or trachea.
Pneumothorax would be hyperresonant on percussion, not dull, and it may push the trachea away from the affected side in severe cases, but this is more common in tension pneumothoraces that occur after trauma.
A lobectomy may cause the trachea to shift towards the same side as the surgery due to decreased pressure, but it would not cause dullness or absent breath sounds throughout the lung fields.
Understanding White Lung Lesions on Chest X-Rays
When examining a chest x-ray, white shadowing in the lungs can indicate a variety of conditions. These may include consolidation, pleural effusion, collapse, pneumonectomy, specific lesions such as tumors, or fluid accumulation such as pulmonary edema. In cases where there is a complete white-out of one side of the chest, it is important to assess the position of the trachea. If the trachea is pulled towards the side of the white-out, it may indicate pneumonectomy, lung collapse, or pulmonary hypoplasia. If the trachea is pushed away from the white-out, it may indicate pleural effusion, a large thoracic mass, or a diaphragmatic hernia. Other signs of a positive mass effect may include leftward bowing of the azygo-oesophageal recess and splaying of the ribs on the affected side. Understanding the potential causes of white lung lesions on chest x-rays can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old man comes to you with a dry cough that has been going on for three months and recent episodes of haemoptysis. He stopped smoking five years ago and has had two bouts of pneumonia in his left lower lobe in the last year. On examination, he is apyrexial and there are no notable findings.
What would be your first step in investigating this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest x ray
Explanation:Diagnosis of Bronchial Carcinoma
The patient’s medical history indicates the possibility of bronchial carcinoma. The most appropriate initial investigation to confirm this diagnosis is a chest x-ray. Other tests such as blood cultures may not be useful for an apyrexial patient. However, additional investigations may be considered after the chest x-ray. It is important to prioritize the chest x-ray as the first line investigation to detect any abnormalities in the lungs. Proper diagnosis is crucial for timely treatment and management of bronchial carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 9-month-old girl is brought to the emergency department by her mother due to difficulty in breathing. The mother reports that her daughter has been restless, with a runny nose, feeling warm and a dry cough for the past 4 days. However, the mother is now quite worried because her daughter has not eaten since last night and her breathing seems to have worsened throughout the morning.
During the examination, the infant has a respiratory rate of 70/min, heart rate of 155/min, oxygen saturation of 92% and a temperature of 37.9ÂșC. The infant shows signs of nasal flaring and subcostal recession while breathing. On auscultation, widespread wheezing is heard. The infant is admitted, treated with humidified oxygen via nasal cannula and discharged home after 2 days.
What is the probable causative agent of this infant's illness?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Respiratory syncytial virus
Explanation:Bronchiolitis typically presents with symptoms such as coryza and increased breathing effort, leading to feeding difficulties in children under one year of age. The majority of cases of bronchiolitis are caused by respiratory syncytial virus, while adenovirus is a less frequent culprit. On the other hand, croup is most commonly caused by parainfluenza virus.
Understanding Bronchiolitis
Bronchiolitis is a condition that is characterized by inflammation of the bronchioles. It is a serious lower respiratory tract infection that is most common in children under the age of one year. The pathogen responsible for 75-80% of cases is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), while other causes include mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is more serious in children with bronchopulmonary dysplasia, congenital heart disease, or cystic fibrosis.
The symptoms of bronchiolitis include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Fine inspiratory crackles may also be present. Children with bronchiolitis may experience feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea, which is often the reason for hospital admission.
Immediate referral to hospital is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell to a healthcare professional, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referring to hospital if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration.
The investigation for bronchiolitis involves immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions, which may show RSV. Management of bronchiolitis is largely supportive, with humidified oxygen given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently < 92%. Nasogastric feeding may be needed if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth, and suction is sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man with a history of epilepsy is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. He is currently taking sodium valproate as his only medication. A venous blood gas is obtained immediately.
What are the expected venous blood gas results for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low pH, high lactate, low SaO2
Explanation:Acidosis shifts the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, which enhances oxygen delivery to the tissues by causing more oxygen to dissociate from Hb. postictal lactic acidosis is a common occurrence in patients with tonic-clonic seizures, and it is typically managed by monitoring for spontaneous resolution. During a seizure, tissue hypoxia can cause lactic acidosis. Therefore, a venous blood gas test for this patient should show low pH, high lactate, and low SaO2.
If the venous blood gas test shows a high pH, normal lactate, and low SaO2, it would not be consistent with postictal lactic acidosis. This result indicates alkalosis, which can be caused by gastrointestinal losses, renal losses, or Cushing syndrome.
A high pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 would also be inconsistent with postictal lactic acidosis because tissue hypoxia would cause an increase in lactate levels.
Similarly, low pH, high lactate, and normal SaO2 would not be expected in postictal lactic acidosis because acidosis would shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, decreasing the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin.
Finally, normal pH, normal lactate, and normal SaO2 are unlikely to be found in this patient shortly after a seizure. However, if the venous blood gas test was taken days after the seizure following an uncomplicated clinical course, these findings would be more plausible.
Understanding the Oxygen Dissociation Curve
The oxygen dissociation curve is a graphical representation of the relationship between the percentage of saturated haemoglobin and the partial pressure of oxygen in the blood. It is not influenced by the concentration of haemoglobin. The curve can shift to the left or right, indicating changes in oxygen delivery to tissues. When the curve shifts to the left, there is increased saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, resulting in decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Conversely, when the curve shifts to the right, there is reduced saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen, leading to enhanced oxygen delivery to tissues.
The L rule is a helpful mnemonic to remember the factors that cause a shift to the left, resulting in lower oxygen delivery. These factors include low levels of hydrogen ions (alkali), low partial pressure of carbon dioxide, low levels of 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, and low temperature. On the other hand, the mnemonic ‘CADET, face Right!’ can be used to remember the factors that cause a shift to the right, leading to raised oxygen delivery. These factors include carbon dioxide, acid, 2,3-diphosphoglycerate, exercise, and temperature.
Understanding the oxygen dissociation curve is crucial in assessing the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood and the delivery of oxygen to tissues. By knowing the factors that can shift the curve to the left or right, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions in managing patients with respiratory and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of the following nerves conveys sensory information from the nasal mucosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laryngeal branches of the vagus
Explanation:The larynx receives sensory information from the laryngeal branches of the vagus.
Anatomy of the Larynx
The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.
The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.
The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.
The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.
Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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How many fissures can be found in the right lung?
At what age do these fissures typically develop?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Two
Explanation:The oblique and horizontal fissures are present in the right lung. The lower lobe is separated from the middle and upper lobes by the upper oblique fissure. The superior and middle lobes are separated by the short horizontal fissure.
Anatomy of the Lungs
The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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