00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - What is a true statement about cost-benefit analysis? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about cost-benefit analysis?

      Your Answer: Benefits are valued in monetary terms

      Explanation:

      The net benefit of a proposed scheme is calculated by subtracting the costs from the benefits in a CBA. For instance, if the benefits of the scheme are valued at £140 k and the costs are £10 k, then the net benefit would be £130 k.

      Methods of Economic Evaluation

      There are four main methods of economic evaluation: cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA), cost-benefit analysis (CBA), cost-utility analysis (CUA), and cost-minimisation analysis (CMA). While all four methods capture costs, they differ in how they assess health effects.

      Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) compares interventions by relating costs to a single clinical measure of effectiveness, such as symptom reduction of improvement in activities of daily living. The cost-effectiveness ratio is calculated as total cost divided by units of effectiveness. CEA is typically used when CBA cannot be performed due to the inability to monetise benefits.

      Cost-benefit analysis (CBA) measures all costs and benefits of an intervention in monetary terms to establish which alternative has the greatest net benefit. CBA requires that all consequences of an intervention, such as life-years saved, treatment side-effects, symptom relief, disability, pain, and discomfort, are allocated a monetary value. CBA is rarely used in mental health service evaluation due to the difficulty in converting benefits from mental health programmes into monetary values.

      Cost-utility analysis (CUA) is a special form of CEA in which health benefits/outcomes are measured in broader, more generic ways, enabling comparisons between treatments for different diseases and conditions. Multidimensional health outcomes are measured by a single preference- of utility-based index such as the Quality-Adjusted-Life-Years (QALY). QALYs are a composite measure of gains in life expectancy and health-related quality of life. CUA allows for comparisons across treatments for different conditions.

      Cost-minimisation analysis (CMA) is an economic evaluation in which the consequences of competing interventions are the same, and only inputs, i.e. costs, are taken into consideration. The aim is to decide the least costly way of achieving the same outcome.

      Costs in Economic Evaluation Studies

      There are three main types of costs in economic evaluation studies: direct, indirect, and intangible. Direct costs are associated directly with the healthcare intervention, such as staff time, medical supplies, cost of travel for the patient, childcare costs for the patient, and costs falling on other social sectors such as domestic help from social services. Indirect costs are incurred by the reduced productivity of the patient, such as time off work, reduced work productivity, and time spent caring for the patient by relatives. Intangible costs are difficult to measure, such as pain of suffering on the part of the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which substance is most similar to Mephedrone among the given options? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which substance is most similar to Mephedrone among the given options?

      Your Answer: LSD

      Correct Answer: Ecstasy

      Explanation:

      New Psychoactive Substances, previously known as ‘legal highs’, are synthetic compounds designed to mimic the effects of traditional illicit drugs. They became popular due to their ability to avoid legislative control, but the introduction of the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 changed this. There is no standard for clinical classification, but some common legal highs include Mephedrone, Piperazines, GBL, Synthetic cannabinoids, and Benzofuran compounds. These substances have effects similar to ecstasy, amphetamines, and cannabis, and are classified as either Class B of Class C drugs in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which SSRI is known to cause notable withdrawal symptoms in newborns? ...

    Correct

    • Which SSRI is known to cause notable withdrawal symptoms in newborns?

      Your Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?

      Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      26.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old girl is referred by her GP due to concerning behaviour. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl is referred by her GP due to concerning behaviour. She has been involved in physical altercations with several of her classmates and is consistently disobedient towards her mother. In the past year, she has committed multiple offenses and has been convicted several times. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Social skills training

      Correct Answer: Multimodal interventions with a family focus

      Explanation:

      Based on his behavior, it appears that he may have conduct disorder. As for the girl, parent training programs may not be suitable for her given her age. Instead, a more comprehensive approach is needed that addresses individual, family, school, criminal justice, and community factors. This approach, referred to as multimodal interventions with a family focus by NICE, would be more appropriate.

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      10.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the minimum daily dose of haloperidol required for effective treatment in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the minimum daily dose of haloperidol required for effective treatment in a first episode of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: 1mg

      Correct Answer: 2mg

      Explanation:

      Antipsychotics: Minimum Effective Doses

      The Maudsley Guidelines provide a table of minimum effective oral doses for antipsychotics in schizophrenia. The following doses are recommended for first episode and relapse (multi-episode) cases:

      – Chlorpromazine: 200mg (first episode) and 300mg (relapse)
      – Haloperidol: 2mg (first episode) and 4mg (relapse)
      – Sulpiride: 400mg (first episode) and 800mg (relapse)
      – Trifluoperazine: 10mg (first episode) and 15mg (relapse)
      – Amisulpride: 300mg (first episode) and 400mg (relapse)
      – Aripiprazole: 10mg (first episode and relapse)
      – Olanzapine: 5mg (first episode) and 7.5mg (relapse)
      – Quetiapine: 150mg (first episode) and 300mg (relapse)
      – Risperidone: 2mg (first episode) and 4mg (relapse)

      The minimum effective doses may vary depending on individual patient factors and response to treatment. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before making any changes to medication dosages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is: ...

    Incorrect

    • One of Bion's fundamental group assumptions is:

      Your Answer: Catharsis

      Correct Answer: Pairing

      Explanation:

      Bion, a psychoanalyst, was fascinated by group dynamics and believed that groups had a collective unconscious that functioned similarly to that of an individual. He argued that this unconsciousness protected the group from the pain of reality. Bion identified two types of groups: the ‘working group’ that functioned well and achieved its goals, and the ‘basic assumption group’ that acted out primitive fantasies and prevented progress. Bion then described different types of basic assumption groups, including ‘dependency,’ where the group turns to a leader to alleviate anxiety, ‘fight-flight,’ where the group perceives an enemy and either attacks of avoids them, and ‘pairing,’ where the group believes that the solution lies in the pairing of two members. These dynamics can be observed in various settings, such as when strangers come together for the first time of when doctors in different specialties criticize one another.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is the cut-off score on the SCOFF questionnaire that suggests a probable...

    Incorrect

    • What is the cut-off score on the SCOFF questionnaire that suggests a probable case of anorexia or bulimia?

      Your Answer: 4

      Correct Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      The SCOFF Questionnaire for Screening Eating Disorders

      The SCOFF questionnaire is a tool used to screen for eating disorders. It consists of five questions that aim to identify symptoms of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questions include whether the individual makes themselves sick because they feel uncomfortably full, worries about losing control over how much they eat, has recently lost more than one stone in a three-month period, believes themselves to be fat when others say they are too thin, and whether food dominates their life.

      A score of two or more positive responses indicates a likely case of anorexia nervosa or bulimia. The questionnaire has a sensitivity of 84.6% and specificity of 98.6% when two or more questions are answered positively. This means that if a patient responds positively to two of more questions, there is a high likelihood that they have an eating disorder. The negative predictive value of the questionnaire is 99.3%, which means that if a patient responds negatively to the questions, there is a high probability that they do not have an eating disorder.

      Overall, the SCOFF questionnaire is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to quickly screen for eating disorders and identify individuals who may require further assessment and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - If you anticipate that a drug will result in more side-effects than a...

    Incorrect

    • If you anticipate that a drug will result in more side-effects than a placebo, what would be your estimated relative risk of side-effects occurring in the group receiving the drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: >1

      Explanation:

      Disease Rates and Their Interpretation

      Disease rates are a measure of the occurrence of a disease in a population. They are used to establish causation, monitor interventions, and measure the impact of exposure on disease rates. The attributable risk is the difference in the rate of disease between the exposed and unexposed groups. It tells us what proportion of deaths in the exposed group were due to the exposure. The relative risk is the risk of an event relative to exposure. It is calculated by dividing the rate of disease in the exposed group by the rate of disease in the unexposed group. A relative risk of 1 means there is no difference between the two groups. A relative risk of <1 means that the event is less likely to occur in the exposed group, while a relative risk of >1 means that the event is more likely to occur in the exposed group. The population attributable risk is the reduction in incidence that would be observed if the population were entirely unexposed. It can be calculated by multiplying the attributable risk by the prevalence of exposure in the population. The attributable proportion is the proportion of the disease that would be eliminated in a population if its disease rate were reduced to that of the unexposed group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What psychiatric condition has aromatherapy demonstrated effective results for? ...

    Incorrect

    • What psychiatric condition has aromatherapy demonstrated effective results for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dementia

      Explanation:

      Aromatherapy is a form of complementary therapy that involves the use of essential oils, such as Melissa balm and lavender, which can be applied directly to the skin, heated in a burner, of added to a bath. The benefits of aromatherapy are believed to be primarily due to sensory stimulation, and it can be used in a variety of clinical settings. In fact, 11 randomized controlled trials have shown that aromatherapy is effective in managing the Behavioral and Psychological Symptoms of Dementia (BPSD). As research continues on non-pharmacological interventions for BPSD, it is important to consider the potential benefits of aromatherapy, as well as other interventions such as doll therapy, dance/movement therapy, light therapy, and animal-assisted therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A cohort study of 10,000 elderly individuals aimed to determine whether regular exercise...

    Incorrect

    • A cohort study of 10,000 elderly individuals aimed to determine whether regular exercise has an effect on cognitive decline. Half of the participants engaged in regular exercise while the other half did not.
      What is a limitation of conducting a cohort study in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: When the outcome of interest is rare a very large sample size is needed

      Explanation:

      Cohort studies involve following a group of individuals over a period of time to investigate whether exposure to a particular factor affects disease incidence. Although they are costly and time-consuming, they offer several benefits. For instance, they can examine rare exposure factors and are less prone to recall bias than case-control studies. Additionally, they can measure disease incidence and risk. Results are typically presented as the relative risk of developing the disease due to exposure to the factor.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (2/2) 100%
General Adult Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Psychotherapy (1/2) 50%
Passmed