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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents at 16 weeks’ gestation, requesting an abortion. Her relationship has ended; she has moved back in with her parents, and her anxiety has worsened. She feels overwhelmed and states that, at this point, she cannot handle a baby. She has undergone a comprehensive consultation, and her decision remains the same.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol as an outpatient
Correct Answer: Surgical evacuation of products of conception
Explanation:Management Options for Termination of Pregnancy at 16 Weeks’ Gestation
Termination of pregnancy at 16 weeks’ gestation can be managed through surgical evacuation of the products of conception or medical management using oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol. The decision ultimately lies with the patient, and it is important to explain the potential risks and complications associated with each option.
Surgical Evacuation of Products of Conception
This procedure involves vacuum aspiration before 14 weeks’ gestation or dilation of the cervix and evacuation of the uterine cavity after 14 weeks. Common side-effects include infection, bleeding, cervical trauma, and perforation of the uterus. It is important to inform the patient that the procedure may need to be repeated if the uterus is not emptied completely.No Management Required at Present
While termination of pregnancy is legal in the UK until 24 weeks’ gestation, it is the patient’s right to make the decision. However, if the patient is unsure, it may be appropriate to reassess in two weeks.Oral Mifepristone
Mifepristone is an anti-progesterone medication that is used in combination with misoprostol to induce termination of pregnancy. It is not effective as monotherapy.Oral Mifepristone Followed by Vaginal Misoprostol as an Outpatient
This is the standard medication regime for medical termination of pregnancy. However, after 14 weeks’ gestation, it is recommended that the procedure be performed in a medical setting for appropriate monitoring.Vaginal Misoprostol
Vaginal misoprostol can be used in conjunction with mifepristone for medical termination of pregnancy or as monotherapy in medical management of miscarriage or induction of labour. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
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You are working at a prenatal care center. A couple comes in who are 28 weeks pregnant. They had difficulty getting pregnant naturally but were able to conceive through their second attempt at IVF. This is their first child. During their 14 week ultrasound, the sonographer expressed concern about the placement of the placenta and they have returned for a follow-up scan today, which confirms the initial finding. What is the probable anomaly?
Your Answer: Placenta praevia
Explanation:A study conducted in Norway in 2006 revealed that singleton pregnancies conceived through assisted fertilization had a six-fold higher risk of placenta praevia compared to naturally conceived pregnancies. The risk of placenta previa was also nearly three-fold higher in pregnancies following assisted fertilization for mothers who had conceived both naturally and through assisted fertilization. This abnormal placental placement is believed to be linked to the abnormal ovarian stimulation hormones that occur during IVF. Additionally, the incidence of placenta praevia is associated with previous caesarean sections, multiparity, and previous gynaecological surgeries, while the incidence of other options given increases with the number of previous caesarean sections.
Understanding Placenta Praevia
Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.
There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.
Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.
In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman is in the second stage of labour. The fetal head is not descending, and the obstetrician decides to perform a ventouse extraction. He injects local anaesthetic into a nerve that crosses the ischial spine. This nerve then passes along the lateral wall of the ischiorectal fossa embedded in the obturator internus fascia in Alcock’s canal.
Which of the following is this nerve?Your Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:Nerve Pathways in the Pelvic Region
The pelvic region contains several important nerves that play a crucial role in the functioning of the lower body. Here are some of the key nerve pathways in this area:
Pudendal Nerve: This nerve exits the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and re-enters via the lesser sciatic foramen. It passes through Alcock’s canal and is responsible for the sensation and movement of the perineum.
Sciatic Nerve: The sciatic nerve emerges from the pelvis through the greater sciatic foramen and descends between the femur and ischial tuberosity. It is prone to injury during deep intramuscular injections.
Perineal Branch of S4: This nerve passes between the levator ani and coccygeus muscles and supplies the perianal skin.
Genital Branch of the Genitofemoral Nerve: This nerve descends on the psoas major muscle and supplies the cremaster muscle and labial or scrotal skin.
Obturator Nerve: The obturator nerve emerges from the psoas major muscle and runs along the lateral wall of the true pelvis. It exits the pelvis through the superior aspect of the obturator foramen to enter the thigh.
Understanding these nerve pathways is important for medical professionals who work in the pelvic region, as it can help them diagnose and treat various conditions related to these nerves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old primigravida, who is 12 weeks pregnant, comes to your Antenatal clinic for counselling about Down syndrome screening, as her sister has the genetic condition. After discussing the various tests with her, she decides to opt for the earliest possible diagnostic test that will tell her whether her baby has Down syndrome.
What is the test that you are most likely to advise her to have?Your Answer: Quadruple blood test
Correct Answer: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS)
Explanation:Prenatal Testing Options for Expecting Mothers
Expecting mothers have several options for prenatal testing to ensure the health of their developing baby. Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a diagnostic procedure that can be done from 11 weeks to detect chromosomal abnormalities. The risk of miscarriage is low, at 0.7% within 14 days and 1.3% within 30 days. Amniocentesis is another diagnostic option that can be done from 15 weeks, with a slightly lower risk of miscarriage at 0.6%.
Anomaly scans are typically done at 18-21 weeks to check for any physical abnormalities in the baby, such as spina bifida or anencephaly. The nuchal translucency test, combined with blood tests, is a screening test that can determine the individual’s risk for certain chromosomal abnormalities. The quadruple blood test is another screening option that measures various hormones and proteins to assess the risk of certain conditions.
Overall, expecting mothers have several options for prenatal testing to ensure the health of their baby. It is important to discuss these options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual pregnancy.
Understanding Prenatal Testing Options for Expecting Mothers
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
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A 28-year-old woman is on day one postpartum, following a normal vaginal delivery. She has called the midwife, as she is struggling to establish breastfeeding and correct positioning of the baby to the breast. She reports pain when the baby is breastfeeding.
Which of the following is a feature of a poor latch?Your Answer: Clicking noises are heard
Explanation:Understanding the Signs of a Good Latch for Successful Breastfeeding
Latching on the breast is crucial for successful breastfeeding, but many women struggle with it. A poor latch can lead to pain and frustration, causing some women to give up on breastfeeding altogether. However, there are clear signs of a good latch that can help mothers and babies achieve successful breastfeeding.
One indicator of a poor latch is clicking noises, which can be painful for the mother and indicate that the baby is chewing on the nipple. In contrast, a good latch is associated with visible and audible swallowing, a rhythmic suck, and relaxed arms and hands of the infant. The baby’s chin should touch the breast, with the nose free, and the lips should be rolled out, not turned in. The mouth should be open wide, and the tongue positioned below the nipple, with the latter touching the palate of the baby’s mouth.
Another sign of a good latch is that less areola should be visible below the chin than above the nipple. This indicates that the baby is taking in not only the nipple but also the areola, which is essential for effective milk expression and feeding. By understanding these signs of a good latch, mothers can ensure successful breastfeeding and a positive experience for both themselves and their babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 27-year-old primigravida female comes in for a 36-week ultrasound scan and it is found that her baby is in the breech position. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer: Offer external cephalic version if still breech at 36 weeks
Explanation:If the foetus is in a breech position at 36 weeks, it is recommended to undergo external cephalic version. However, before 36 weeks, the foetus may naturally move into the correct position, making the procedure unnecessary. It is not necessary to schedule a Caesarean section immediately, but if ECV is unsuccessful, a decision must be made regarding the risks of a vaginal delivery with a breech presentation or a Caesarean section.
Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old primigravida woman presents at 38+5 weeks’ gestation to the Labour Ward with regular contractions that have started about three hours ago.
On examination, she has a short, soft cervix which is 2 cm dilated. Contractions are roughly every 4–5 minutes and are palpable, demonstrated on cardiotocography, but are not very strong or painful at present.
Which of the following statements applies to the first stage of labour?Your Answer: It occurs at a rate of about 1 cm per hour in a nulliparous woman
Explanation:Labour is the process of giving birth and is divided into three stages. The first stage begins with regular contractions and ends when the cervix is fully dilated at 10 cm. This stage is further divided into a latent phase, where the cervix dilates to 4 cm, and an active phase, where the cervix dilates from 4 cm to 10 cm. The rate of cervical dilation in a nulliparous woman is approximately 1 cm per hour, while in a multiparous woman, it is approximately 2 cm per hour. The second stage of labour begins when the cervix is fully dilated and ends with the delivery of the baby. During this stage, fetal heart rate monitoring should occur at least every five minutes and after each contraction. Cervical incompetence, which involves cervical shortening and dilation in the absence of contractions, can result in premature delivery or second trimester loss and is more common in women with a multiple pregnancy, previous cervical incompetence, or a history of cervical surgery. These women can be managed with monitoring of cervical length, cervical cerclage, or progesterone cervical pessaries. The third stage of labour involves the delivery of the placenta and membranes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents on day 28 postpartum with burning pain in the nipples bilaterally and itching. She reports symptoms are worse after feeds.
On examination, you notice that the nipples are erythematosus, swollen and fissured. The breasts are unremarkable. Her observations are stable, and she is apyrexial. She tells you she wants you to review her baby and that she noticed small white patches in his mouth.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Arrange an urgent referral under a 2-week wait to the Breast team
Correct Answer: Topical antifungal cream
Explanation:Management of Breast Conditions: Understanding the Different Treatment Options
Breast conditions can present with a variety of symptoms, and it is important to understand the appropriate management for each. Here are some common breast conditions and their corresponding treatments:
1. Fungal infection of the nipples: This is characterized by bilateral symptoms and signs of nipple thrush. Treatment involves applying a topical miconazole 2% cream to the affected nipples after every feed for two weeks. The infant should also be treated with miconazole cream in the mouth.
2. Paget’s disease of the nipple: This is a form of in situ carcinoma that warrants urgent referral to the Breast team under the 2-week wait pathway. Symptoms include unilateral erythema, inflammation, burning pain, ulceration, and bleeding.
3. Breast cellulitis or mastitis: This is associated with the breast itself and is characterized by unilateral engorgement, erythematosus skin, and tenderness. Treatment involves oral flucloxacillin.
4. Eczema of the nipple: This affects both nipples and presents with a red, scaly rash that spares the base of the nipple. Treatment involves avoiding triggers and using regular emollients, with a topical steroid cream applied after feeds.
5. Bacterial infection of the nipples: This is treated with a topical antibacterial cream, such as topical fusidic acid.
Understanding the appropriate management for each breast condition is crucial in providing effective treatment and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents to a routine antenatal clinic at 16 weeks gestation. She has a history of occasional frontal headaches but no significant past medical history. During the examination, her blood pressure is measured at 148/76 mmHg. Urinalysis shows a pH of 6.5, +1 protein, 0 nitrates, 0 leucocytes, and 0 blood. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic hypertension
Explanation:The correct diagnosis in this case is chronic hypertension. It is unlikely that the patient has developed any pregnancy-related causes of hypertension at only 16 weeks gestation. The small amount of protein in her urine suggests that she may have had hypertension for some time. The patient’s intermittent frontal headaches are a common occurrence and do not indicate pre-eclampsia. Pre-eclampsia and gestational hypertension typically occur after 20 weeks gestation, with pre-eclampsia being associated with significant proteinuria and gestational hypertension without. Nephrotic syndrome would typically present with a larger degree of proteinuria.
Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.
There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.
The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman, who is exclusively breastfeeding, presents six months postpartum with burning pains and itching of the nipples. She has occasional sharp pains behind the areolae and reports that symptoms are worse after feeding.
On examination, both nipples appear erythematosus and inflamed, with small fissures. On further questioning, she reports no history of atopy. She also tells you that last night, she noticed some white patches in her infant’s mouth that she tried to wipe off but were stuck on the mucosa.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Nipple thrush
Explanation:Breastfeeding-Related Nipple Conditions: Symptoms and Treatments
Breastfeeding can lead to various nipple conditions that can cause discomfort and pain for both the mother and the infant. Here are some common nipple conditions and their symptoms:
1. Nipple Thrush: This fungal infection is transmitted from the mother to the infant through breastfeeding. Symptoms include bilateral sharp burning pains in the nipple and retroareolar tissue, red and swollen areas, severe itching, nipple inflammation, and fissuring. Both the mother and the baby should be treated with topical miconazole and oral miconazole gel, respectively.
2. Psoriasis: Psoriasis of the nipple and breast presents with raised red plaques that are well demarcated and easily separated from adjacent skin, with an overlying lacy scale.
3. Blocked Duct: This common problem presents with unilateral nipple pain and a small, round white area at the end of the nipple.
4. Nipple Eczema: Eczema of the nipple can cause a red, scaly rash with thickened lichenoid areas, usually sparing the base of the nipple. It is less likely in this scenario, given the white patches found in the infant’s mouth, suggesting transmission of infection from the mother.
5. Paget’s Disease of the Nipple: Symptoms include erythema, inflammation, burning pain, ulceration, erosions of the skin, and bleeding, usually affecting one side only.
It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms persist or worsen.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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