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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. He seldom attends asthma clinic. During previous consultations, his best peak flow measurements have been 500 L/min. What is the indication of acute severe asthma in this patient?
Your Answer: Heart rate 115/min
Correct Answer: Heart rate 105/min
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document, as questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. The goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 levels between 94-98%.
It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients to determine the severity of their asthma. It depends on their personal best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, it is a marker of an acute severe attack.
For example, a peak flow rate of 400 L/min in a patient with a personal best of 500 L/min equates to 80% of their best and would not be considered a marker of an acute severe attack. However, a pulse of 115 would be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater.
If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man with newly diagnosed ulcerative colitis (UC) comes to you with deteriorating symptoms. You believe he is experiencing a UC flare-up but doesn't need to be hospitalized based on clinical indications. He is presently taking suboptimal oral mesalazine once a day. He has no IBD care plan in place but has been diagnosed with severe disease.
What is the best course of action for managing his UC flare-up?Your Answer: Maximise oral mesalazine dose
Correct Answer: Start oral budesonide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis Flares
Oral or rectal mesalazine (or rectal steroids) are the recommended first-line treatment for ulcerative colitis (UC) flares. The dose of oral mesalazine can be increased up to 4.8g daily for the treatment of flares. It is important to review the patient’s response to treatment after 2 weeks, or sooner if deterioration occurs.
While oral steroids are a potential treatment for UC flare-ups, they are not considered first-line treatments. Alternatives to oral steroids are preferred where possible. Immunosuppressants such as azathioprine and mercaptopurine may be considered by secondary care.
If a patient requires more than 2 courses of steroids in 12 months or is unable to reduce their oral steroid use below 15 mg prednisolone per day, escalation of IBD therapy may be necessary. It is important to inform the patient’s IBD team that a flare has occurred.
The IBD toolkit developed with the RCGP provides helpful advice on flare management. To ensure effective treatment of UC flares, it is important to follow these guidelines and work closely with the patient’s healthcare team.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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You sample 100 patients' ages from your patient list and calculate the mean age to be 45 years old. This baseline data will be used before enrolling these patients on an exercise programme to measure the effect this has on age. The standard deviation of your data is 3. You wish to determine how accurate your estimate of the mean is likely to be.
What is the standard error of the mean?Your Answer: 0.5
Explanation:Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean
The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.
To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.
A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents for her 12-week prenatal check-up. She reports being a moderate smoker and her carbon monoxide level is measured at 15 ppm. What is the most effective intervention that can be suggested for pregnant women in this situation?
Your Answer: Cognitive behavioural therapy
Explanation:Before providing nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), it is recommended to conduct cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) or motivational interviewing with pregnant women who smoke. Additionally, it is important to screen all pregnant women for smoking using a carbon monoxide monitor.
Smoking cessation is the process of quitting smoking. In 2008, NICE released guidance on how to manage smoking cessation. The guidance recommends that patients should be offered nicotine replacement therapy (NRT), varenicline or bupropion, and that clinicians should not favour one medication over another. These medications should be prescribed as part of a commitment to stop smoking on or before a particular date, and the prescription should only last until 2 weeks after the target stop date. If unsuccessful, a repeat prescription should not be offered within 6 months unless special circumstances have intervened. NRT can cause adverse effects such as nausea and vomiting, headaches, and flu-like symptoms. NICE recommends offering a combination of nicotine patches and another form of NRT to people who show a high level of dependence on nicotine or who have found single forms of NRT inadequate in the past.
Varenicline is a nicotinic receptor partial agonist that should be started 1 week before the patient’s target date to stop. The recommended course of treatment is 12 weeks, but patients should be monitored regularly and treatment only continued if not smoking. Varenicline has been shown in studies to be more effective than bupropion, but it should be used with caution in patients with a history of depression or self-harm. Nausea is the most common adverse effect, and varenicline is contraindicated in pregnancy and breastfeeding.
Bupropion is a norepinephrine and dopamine reuptake inhibitor, and nicotinic antagonist that should be started 1 to 2 weeks before the patient’s target date to stop. There is a small risk of seizures, and bupropion is contraindicated in epilepsy, pregnancy, and breastfeeding. Having an eating disorder is a relative contraindication.
In 2010, NICE recommended that all pregnant women should be tested for smoking using carbon monoxide detectors. All women who smoke, or have stopped smoking within the last 2 weeks, or those with a CO reading of 7 ppm or above should be referred to NHS Stop Smoking Services. The first-line interventions in pregnancy should be cognitive behaviour therapy, motivational interviewing, or structured self-help and support from NHS Stop Smoking Services. The evidence for the use of NRT in pregnancy is mixed, but it is often used if the above measures fail. There is no evidence that it affects the child’s birthweight. Pregnant women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to his doctor with a six-month history of increasing shortness of breath and multiple instances of coughing up blood in the past four weeks. He has a 40-year history of smoking 30 cigarettes per day and has worked as a painter and builder. Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following risk factors is the most probable contributing factor? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Tobacco
Explanation:Identifying Risk Factors for Lung Cancer: A Case Study
A patient presents with symptoms of lung cancer, including breathlessness and haemoptysis, as well as chest pain, cough, fatigue, and weight loss. Given that smoking is responsible for 72% of lung cancer cases in the UK and 86% of lung cancer deaths, it is the most likely risk factor in this case.
While alcohol consumption is linked to an increased risk of certain cancers, it is not strongly associated with lung cancer. Exposure to arsenic is associated with certain occupations, but only accounts for 0.003% of lung cancers in the UK. Asbestos exposure, which is linked to construction and shipyard work, is responsible for 6-8% of lung cancer deaths, but tobacco is still a more significant risk factor.
Exposure to silica, which is associated with certain industries such as glass manufacture and mining, increases lung cancer risk by 68%. However, it only accounts for 0.02% of lung cancers in the UK. While silica exposure may have contributed to this patient’s lung cancer, smoking remains the most likely cause. Overall, identifying and addressing risk factors for lung cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 6
Correct
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A 33-year-old male patient with a history of paranoid schizophrenia was admitted under the Mental Health Act due to a decline in his mental health. During his inpatient stay, it was decided that Clozapine would be the most appropriate Antipsychotic for him and he was started on this medication. After his mental state stabilized, he was transferred to a rehabilitation unit. However, it was discovered that he had missed his Clozapine doses for two consecutive days. What is the recommended course of action to address these missed doses of Clozapine?
Your Answer: Re-titrate the Clozapine doses again slowly
Explanation:If a patient misses their clozapine doses for more than 48 hours, they will need to slowly restart their dose as if they were starting the medication for the first time. This process should be supervised by a Psychiatrist. Restarting clozapine after a break of more than 48 hours can exacerbate side effects such as changes in blood pressure, drowsiness, and dizziness. If the treatment gap exceeds 72 hours, the patient may require more frequent blood tests for a brief period.
Patients taking antipsychotic medication require extensive monitoring in addition to clinical follow-up. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends regular testing of full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) at the start of therapy and annually thereafter. Clozapine requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially weekly. Lipids and weight should be tested at the start of therapy, at 3 months, and annually. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin should be tested at the start of therapy, at 6 months, and annually. Blood pressure should be monitored frequently during dose titration, and an electrocardiogram and cardiovascular risk assessment should be done at baseline and annually. The BNF provides specific recommendations for individual drugs, and patients should consult their healthcare provider for more information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Correct
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You are the GP trainee doing your morning clinic. You see a 35-year-old woman with coeliac disease.
Which of the following is indicated as part of her management?Your Answer: Administration of the pneumococcal vaccine
Explanation:To prevent overwhelming pneumococcal sepsis due to hyposplenism, Coeliac UK advises that individuals with coeliac disease receive a pneumococcal infection vaccine and a booster every five years. Pertussis vaccines beyond those in the vaccination schedule are unnecessary. According to NICE CKS guidelines, annual blood tests for FBC, ferritin, thyroid function tests, liver function tests, B12, and folate are recommended. Calprotectin is utilized to assess gut inflammation, often as part of the diagnostic process for inflammatory bowel disease. Faecal occult blood testing is typically conducted if there are concerns about bowel cancer.
Managing Coeliac Disease with a Gluten-Free Diet
Coeliac disease is a condition that requires the management of a gluten-free diet. Gluten-containing cereals such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats must be avoided. However, some patients with coeliac disease can tolerate oats. Gluten-free foods include rice, potatoes, and corn. Compliance with a gluten-free diet can be checked by testing for tissue transglutaminase antibodies.
Patients with coeliac disease often have functional hyposplenism, which is why they are offered the pneumococcal vaccine. Coeliac UK recommends that patients with coeliac disease receive the pneumococcal vaccine and have a booster every five years. influenza vaccine is given on an individual basis according to current guidelines.
Overall, managing coeliac disease requires strict adherence to a gluten-free diet and regular immunisation to prevent infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing painful and irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 6 weeks. She has been taking the combined hormonal contraceptive pill for 8 months and has not missed any pills. She is not on any other medication or using any over-the-counter products. A pregnancy test she recently took came back negative. She denies experiencing dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding.
What is the most suitable course of action for management?Your Answer: Offer a speculum to assess the cervix, and take endocervical and high-vaginal swabs including a sexual health screen
Explanation:Patients who experience a change in bleeding after being on the combined contraceptive pill for 3 months should undergo a speculum examination. It is common to experience problematic bleeding in the first 3 months after starting a new combined hormonal contraceptive pill, but if bleeding starts after 3 months or is accompanied by symptoms such as abdominal pain, dyspareunia, abnormal vaginal discharge, heavy bleeding, or postcoital bleeding, a per vaginal examination and speculum examination should be considered to identify any underlying causes. Although the irregular bleeding may not be serious, it is important to offer an examination as it has started 3 months after starting the combined hormonal contraceptive pill. There is no need to refer the patient to a gynaecology clinic at this stage before further investigation. If problematic bleeding persists, a higher dose of ethinylestradiol can be tried, up to a maximum of 35 micrograms. Changing the dose of progestogen doesn’t appear to improve cycle control, although it may be helpful on an individual basis. There is no reason to discontinue the combined hormonal contraceptive pill and switch to the progestogen-only pill.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than one per 100 woman years. It is a convenient option that doesn’t interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to consider. One of the main drawbacks is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections, so additional precautions may be necessary. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
Despite some reports of weight gain, a Cochrane review did not find a causal relationship between the combined oral contraceptive pill and weight gain. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be a safe and effective option for birth control, but it is important to weigh the pros and cons and discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 9
Correct
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You wish to investigate an outbreak of atypical pneumonia cases in the elderly population and determine if there has been exposure to a particular risk factor.
Which study design would be most appropriate?Your Answer: Case-control
Explanation:The most appropriate study design to investigate an infectious outbreak is a case-control study. This study design allows for the retrospective identification of patients who have developed the disease and compares their past exposure to suspected causal factors with controls who do not have the disease. A cohort study, which follows patients into the future, is not suitable for this scenario as the aim is to trace the cause of the outbreak. A cross-sectional study provides a snapshot of the condition and exposures in the overall population at a set time, but it is not suitable for finding the cause of the outbreak. Randomized controlled trials are not appropriate as there are no interventions being studied. Meta-analysis is not applicable as there is no mention of other research to review.
There are different types of studies that researchers can use to investigate various phenomena. One of the most rigorous types of study is the randomised controlled trial, where participants are randomly assigned to either an intervention or control group. However, practical or ethical issues may limit the use of this type of study. Another type of study is the cohort study, which is observational and prospective. Researchers select two or more groups based on their exposure to a particular agent and follow them up to see how many develop a disease or other outcome. The usual outcome measure is the relative risk. Examples of cohort studies include the Framingham Heart Study.
On the other hand, case-control studies are observational and retrospective. Researchers identify patients with a particular condition (cases) and match them with controls. Data is then collected on past exposure to a possible causal agent for the condition. The usual outcome measure is the odds ratio. Case-control studies are inexpensive and produce quick results, making them useful for studying rare conditions. However, they are prone to confounding. Lastly, cross-sectional surveys provide a snapshot of a population and are sometimes called prevalence studies. They provide weak evidence of cause and effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 10
Correct
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A 3-year-old girl has a temperature of 39.6ºC and a rash consisting of numerous dusky pink macules and papules. She became unwell 6 days ago, when her mother noticed that she had a dry cough, red eyes and a temperature. The rash started 2 days ago, appearing on her face initially, but then spreading to the trunk and limbs. She was in contact with a girl with a similar rash 2 weeks ago. There is no significant past medical history. She had not received all her childhood immunisations because of parental concerns regarding vaccine safety.
Select the single most likely cause of her rash.Your Answer: Measles virus
Explanation:Differentiating Measles from Other Childhood Illnesses
Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that typically presents with a prodrome of coryzal symptoms, dry cough, conjunctivitis, and fever before the appearance of a rash. Koplik’s spots may also be present on the buccal mucosa. However, other childhood illnesses can present with similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate between them. Rubella, for example, has a longer incubation period and is typically milder with no significant respiratory symptoms. Parvovirus B19 can mimic rubella with its slapped-cheek appearance. Infectious mononucleosis may present with a sore throat and lymphadenopathy, but any rash is fine and transient. Mumps may rarely cause a rash, but other symptoms are more prominent. It is crucial to accurately diagnose these illnesses to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further spread of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 11
Correct
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A 55-year-old patient presents with abdominal symptoms and also requests that you examine a skin lesion on their shoulder. The patient reports having noticed the lesion for a few years and that it has slowly been increasing in size. They mention having worked as a builder and property developer, resulting in significant sun exposure. On examination, you note an irregular pale red patch on the right shoulder measuring 6x4mm. The lesion has a slightly raised 'rolled' pearly edge and a small eroded area in the center. There is no surrounding inflammation, and the lesion doesn't feel indurated.
What is your plan for managing this patient's skin lesion?Your Answer: Routine referral to dermatology
Explanation:When a superficial basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is suspected, it is recommended to make a standard referral. This presentation is typical of BCC, which usually grows slowly and hardly ever spreads to other parts of the body. Dermatology referral is necessary in such cases. While Efudix and cryotherapy may be used as substitutes for excision in treating superficial BCC, it is important to seek the guidance of a dermatologist.
Understanding Basal Cell Carcinoma
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC) is a type of skin cancer that is commonly found in the Western world. It is characterized by slow growth and local invasion, with metastases being extremely rare. Lesions are also known as rodent ulcers and are typically found on sun-exposed areas, particularly on the head and neck. The most common type of BCC is nodular BCC, which initially appears as a pearly, flesh-colored papule with telangiectasia. As it progresses, it may ulcerate, leaving a central crater.
If a BCC is suspected, a routine referral should be made. There are several management options available, including surgical removal, curettage, cryotherapy, topical cream such as imiquimod or fluorouracil, and radiotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant.
What factor is most likely to make you ask her to defer her pregnancy at this stage?Your Answer: HbA1c 80 mmol/mol
Explanation:Managing Diabetes in Pregnancy: Key Considerations
Pregnancy in women with type 1 diabetes is associated with increased risks of congenital abnormalities, neonatal morbidity and mortality, and operative delivery rates. However, pre-pregnancy counselling and achieving near-normal levels of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) can improve pregnancy outcomes. While microalbuminuria and background retinopathy may not be contraindications to pregnancy, regular monitoring and prompt referral to specialists are necessary to prevent progression of these complications. Sensory neuropathy may cause severe vomiting due to gastroparesis, but it is not a contraindication to pregnancy. Additionally, women with diabetes should take 5 mg folic acid daily pre-pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Good diabetic control remains the most important factor in managing diabetes in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m^2 has lost 3 kg in the last month and is considering taking a weight loss medication. What is the main mechanism of action of orlistat?
Your Answer: Pancreatic lipase inhibitor
Explanation:Orlistat reduces the digestion of fat by inhibiting gastric and pancreatic lipase, which leads to a decrease in the absorption of lipids from the intestine.
Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer who is in the last days of life is having difficulty drinking due to swallowing problems. Her main symptoms of pain and nausea are being managed with a syringe driver. She complains of thirst despite frequent mouth care.
Which is the most appropriate treatment option?Your Answer: Insert a nasogastric tube
Correct Answer: Consider subcutaneous fluids
Explanation:Managing Thirst in a Dying Patient: Considerations and Options
As a patient approaches the end of life, their need for food and water decreases. However, thirst can still be a distressing symptom. When managing a dying patient’s hydration status, it is important to consider their wishes and preferences, as well as the potential risks and benefits of clinically assisted hydration. Here are some options to consider when a patient is complaining of thirst:
– Subcutaneous fluids: This can be a good option for providing symptomatic relief without overloading the patient with fluids.
– Increasing haloperidol in the syringe driver: While haloperidol can be helpful for managing nausea and vomiting, it is unlikely to improve thirst.
– Continuing mouth care and sips of water only: While this may be appropriate for some patients, it may not be enough to relieve thirst in others.
– Increasing morphine in the syringe driver: While morphine can be helpful for pain relief, it is unlikely to improve thirst.
– Inserting a nasogastric tube: If clinically assisted hydration is necessary, subcutaneous fluids are generally a more comfortable and less invasive option than a nasogastric tube.Ultimately, the goal of managing thirst in a dying patient is to provide comfort and relief, rather than to prolong life. Each patient’s situation should be evaluated on an individual basis, with their wishes and preferences taken into account.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 15
Incorrect
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John is a 40-year-old man who is looking after his mother who has been diagnosed with dementia. He visits you seeking guidance on financial benefits available to him, having heard about 'carer's credit' in the media.
What is the accurate definition of 'carer's credit'?Your Answer: Weekly benefit provided to the carer
Correct Answer: National insurance credits towards the state pension for a carer
Explanation:Carer’s Credit: A National Insurance Record Boost for Carers
Carer’s credit is a program that provides credits to carers who may have gaps in their national insurance record due to caring for their loved ones. This program ensures that carers will not be affected in claiming their state pension later in life. To be eligible for the carer’s credit, the carer must be at least 16 years old, under the State Pension age, and must be looking after one or more people for at least 20 hours a week. The person being cared for must receive one of the following: Disability Living Allowance care component at the middle or highest rate, Attendance Allowance, Constant Attendance Allowance, Personal Independence Payment – daily living component, at the standard or enhanced rate, or Armed Forces Independence Payment. The carer’s credit program is a helpful way to support carers who dedicate their time and effort to care for their loved ones.
Reference:
Carer’s Credit – https://www.gov.uk/carers-credit/overview. Department of Work and Pensions
Carer’s Credit – http://www.macmillan.org.uk/information-and-support/organising/benefits-and-financial-support/looking-after-someone-with-cancer/carers-credit.html. Macmillan Cancer Support -
This question is part of the following fields:
- People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
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Question 16
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to see you about his depression. He lost his job six months ago and has been living on savings. He lives with his two sons who are both in school. He divorced six years ago and neither he nor his children have seen his ex-wife since. He says that he has been ignoring bills and is now running out of money, relying on food banks to feed his family. His landlord has issued an ultimatum after failing to pay rent.
He says that his sister is in receipt of Universal Credit (UC), but he doesn't know anything about it. You have advised him to contact the Benefits Agency, but in the meantime, what can you say about Universal Credit in this man's case?Your Answer: He will receive extra allowance if he has a health condition which prevents him from working
Explanation:Understanding Universal Credit
Universal Credit (UC) is a monthly payment that replaces six income-related benefits, including Income-based Jobseeker’s Allowance, Income-related Employment and Support Allowance, Income Support, Child Tax Credit, Working Tax Credit, and Housing Benefit. It is available to people in and out of work. If someone is currently receiving any of these six benefits, they do not need to take any action unless there is a change in their circumstances or the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) contacts them about moving to Universal Credit.
A person’s monthly Universal Credit payment consists of a standard allowance and any additional amounts that apply to them, such as having children, a disability or health condition that prevents them from working, or needing help paying their rent. If a patient claims UC on health grounds, they may ask for a fit note. In cases where a patient is working but has restricted ability to work, they may request medical evidence of their health condition.
The patient will be referred to CHDA for a Work Capability Assessment, similar to ESA. Medical evidence, such as fit notes, is required until the DWP makes a decision on their claim. No further fit notes are necessary unless the patient wishes to appeal the decision. If the patient’s appeal is unsuccessful and it is determined that they are fit for work, further fit notes should only be issued if their condition significantly worsens or they develop a new condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 17
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman is concerned about a darkly pigmented lesion on her right temple. The lesion is approximately 1 cm in size and she believes it has gradually increased in size over the past 2 years. The pigment appears mostly uniform, the lesion is flat, and the border is slightly irregular.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lentigo maligna
Explanation:Understanding Lentigo Maligna: A Guide to Identifying and Differentiating from Other Skin Lesions
Lentigo maligna is a type of malignant melanoma in situ that is commonly found on sun-damaged skin, particularly on the face and neck. It is characterized by a pigmented lesion that is growing and has a slightly irregular border, with a diameter of over 0.6 cm. Lentigo maligna grows slowly over a period of 5 to 20 years or longer, and can be recognized using the ABCDE rule: Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving.
It is important to differentiate lentigo maligna from other skin lesions, such as melanocytic naevus, lentigo, seborrhoeic keratosis, and post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation. Melanocytic naevus is typically flesh-colored and protruding, while lentigo is benign and has lighter pigmentation. Seborrhoeic keratosis has a warty surface and can be dark-colored, leading to concern that it may be a malignant melanoma. Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation can follow any inflammatory condition, but there is no history to suggest this in the case of lentigo maligna.
It may be difficult to determine whether invasive change has occurred in lentigo maligna just from appearance, but suspicious changes include thickening of part of the lesion, more variation in color, ulceration or bleeding, or itching. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these changes occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old heavy drinker is experiencing confusion, ataxia, and double vision. What vitamin deficiency is most likely causing these symptoms? Choose ONE answer.
Your Answer: Vitamin B12
Correct Answer: Thiamine
Explanation:Common vitamin deficiencies and their associated symptoms
Thiamine deficiency, often seen in individuals with a history of alcohol abuse, can lead to Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which presents with confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia, nystagmus, memory disturbance, hypothermia, hypotension, and coma. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause macrocytic anaemia, glossitis, mouth ulcers, and neurological symptoms like paraesthesia and memory disturbance. Pellagra, a vitamin B3 deficiency, is characterised by diarrhoea, dermatitis, and dementia. Folate deficiency is commonly found in macrocytic anaemia and may present with symptoms like paraesthesia and fatigue. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to osteomalacia, which presents with bone and muscle pain and weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old homeless patient has widespread bullous impetigo around the mouth and nasolabial folds. No other parts of the body are affected and there is no fever or systemic upset.
He is allergic to penicillin and has no access to a fridge.
What would be the next most appropriate treatment to offer this man?Your Answer: Topical fusidic acid
Correct Answer: Oral clarithromycin bd for 7 days
Explanation:Treatment options for impetigo
According to NICE’s CKS guidance, impetigo can be treated with either topical or oral antibiotics depending on the severity of the infection. For mild and localized cases, topical fusidic acid is recommended for five days. However, if impetigo is known to be caused by MRSA, topical mupirocin should be used instead.
For more widespread or bullous impetigo, oral antibiotics are recommended. Flucloxacillin is the first-line treatment, taken four times a day for seven days. If the patient is allergic to penicillin, clarithromycin can be considered as an alternative, taken twice a day for seven days.
It is important to avoid prescribing topical antibiotics inappropriately or when there is a documented allergy, as these are examples of prescribing errors cited in the RCGP’s WPBA prescribing assessment review documentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 20
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A 28-year-old male patient visits his general practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on his genitals and palms. He has also observed the rash around the area of a recent scar on his forearm. Upon examination, the doctor notices papules with a white-lace pattern on the surface. What is the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In elderly women, lichen sclerosus may present as itchy white spots on the vulva.
Lichen planus is a skin condition that has an unknown cause, but is believed to be related to the immune system. It is characterized by an itchy rash that appears as small bumps on the palms, soles, genital area, and inner surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive pattern of white lines on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon. Oral involvement is common, with around 50% of patients experiencing a white-lace pattern on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes, such as thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging, may also occur.
Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, including gold, quinine, and thiazides. Treatment for lichen planus typically involves the use of potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more severe cases, oral steroids or immunosuppressive medications may be necessary. Overall, lichen planus can be a challenging condition to manage, but with proper treatment, symptoms can be controlled and quality of life can be improved.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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