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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male comes to his GP upon the request of his family. Upon consultation, he discloses that he thinks everyone can hear his thoughts, as if he is a broadcasting station, and that he hears voices making comments about his actions. The GP observes that he has a blunted affect, alogia, and avolition. Additionally, the patient repeats the final word of any inquiry directed towards him.
What is the term used to describe this phenomenon?Your Answer: Echopraxia
Correct Answer: Echolalia
Explanation:Understanding Thought Disorders
Thought disorders are a group of symptoms that affect a person’s ability to communicate and organize their thoughts. These disorders can be seen in various mental health conditions, including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. Here are some common types of thought disorders:
Circumstantiality is when a person provides excessive and unnecessary details when answering a question. However, they eventually return to the original point.
Tangentiality is when a person wanders off-topic and doesn’t return to the original point.
Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two words.
Clang associations are when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes.
Word salad is when a person speaks incoherently, stringing together real words into nonsensical sentences.
Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, where there are unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another.
Flight of ideas is a thought disorder seen in mania, where there are leaps from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them.
Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic.
Echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
Understanding these thought disorders can help individuals recognize when they or someone they know may be experiencing symptoms and seek appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with a history of ischaemic heart disease complains of myalgia. He has been taking aspirin, simvastatin, and atenolol for a long time. A creatine kinase test is performed due to his statin use, and the results show:
Creatine kinase 1,420 u/l (< 190 u/l)
The patient's symptoms appeared after starting a new medication. Which of the following is the most probable cause of the elevated creatine kinase level?Your Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:The interaction between statins and erythromycin/clarithromycin is significant and frequent, and in this case, the patient has experienced statin-induced myopathy due to clarithromycin.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68-year-old man is worried about his blood pressure and has used his wife's home blood pressure monitor. He found his blood pressure to be 154/96 mmHg. During his clinic visit, his blood pressure was measured twice, with readings of 156/98 mmHg and 154/98 mmHg. He has no significant medical history. To assess his overall health, you schedule him for a fasting glucose and lipid profile test. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Arrange ambulatory blood pressure monitoring
Explanation:Prior to initiating treatment, NICE suggests verifying the diagnosis through ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.
NICE released updated guidelines in 2019 for the management of hypertension, building on previous guidelines from 2011. These guidelines recommend classifying hypertension into stages and using ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) and home blood pressure monitoring (HBPM) to confirm the diagnosis of hypertension. This is because some patients experience white coat hypertension, where their blood pressure rises in a clinical setting, leading to potential overdiagnosis of hypertension. ABPM and HBPM provide a more accurate assessment of a patient’s overall blood pressure and can help prevent overdiagnosis.
To diagnose hypertension, NICE recommends measuring blood pressure in both arms and repeating the measurements if there is a difference of more than 20 mmHg. If the difference remains, subsequent blood pressures should be recorded from the arm with the higher reading. NICE also recommends taking a second reading during the consultation if the first reading is above 140/90 mmHg. ABPM or HBPM should be offered to any patient with a blood pressure above this level.
If the blood pressure is above 180/120 mmHg, NICE recommends admitting the patient for specialist assessment if there are signs of retinal haemorrhage or papilloedema or life-threatening symptoms such as new-onset confusion, chest pain, signs of heart failure, or acute kidney injury. Referral is also recommended if a phaeochromocytoma is suspected. If none of these apply, urgent investigations for end-organ damage should be arranged. If target organ damage is identified, antihypertensive drug treatment may be started immediately. If no target organ damage is identified, clinic blood pressure measurement should be repeated within 7 days.
ABPM should involve at least 2 measurements per hour during the person’s usual waking hours, with the average value of at least 14 measurements used. If ABPM is not tolerated or declined, HBPM should be offered. For HBPM, two consecutive measurements need to be taken for each blood pressure recording, at least 1 minute apart and with the person seated. Blood pressure should be recorded twice daily, ideally in the morning and evening, for at least 4 days, ideally for 7 days. The measurements taken on the first day should be discarded, and the average value of all the remaining measurements used.
Interpreting the results, ABPM/HBPM above 135/85 mmHg (stage 1 hypertension) should be
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents with a history of diarrhoea for the past eight weeks and fresh rectal bleeding for the past few weeks. She has a past medical history of irritable bowel syndrome and frequently experiences bloating, which has worsened in recent weeks. She started a new job two months ago, which has been stressful. On examination, there is abdominal tenderness but no other abnormal signs.
What would be the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Prescribe loperamide and review in a month
Correct Answer: Prescribe GTN ointment and review in a month
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Rectal Bleeding and Diarrhoea
This woman is experiencing persistent diarrhoea and rectal bleeding, which cannot be attributed to irritable bowel syndrome. According to NICE guidelines, she requires urgent referral for suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. This is because she is under 50 years of age and has rectal bleeding with unexplained symptoms such as abdominal pain, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anaemia.
Prescribing GTN ointment or loperamide would not be appropriate in this case as they would only delay diagnosis and not address the underlying issue. Carcinoembryonic antigen testing is useful for assessing prognosis and monitoring treatment in colorectal cancer patients, but it should only be ordered after malignancy has been confirmed. Similarly, TTG testing for coeliac disease is good practice for patients with IBS-like symptoms, but it would not be appropriate in the presence of rectal bleeding of unknown origin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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Sarah is an 80-year-old woman with advanced Alzheimer's disease. She has recently been diagnosed with terminal liver cancer and her oncologist contacts you to inquire about her decision-making capacity for future treatment. What would be your recommended course of action?
Your Answer: Capacity assessments should be carried out by the trained health care professional related to the decision being made.
Explanation:Simply having a diagnosis of severe Alzheimer’s disease doesn’t automatically mean that John lacks decision-making capacity. Age, appearance, condition, or behavior alone cannot be used to determine someone’s capacity.
According to the Mental Capacity Act (2005), capacity should be assessed based on the specific decision and time frame. It is crucial to take all possible steps to support individuals in making their own decisions.
The Mental Capacity Act aims to enable healthcare and social care professionals to conduct capacity assessments independently, rather than relying on specialized testing by psychiatrists or psychologists.
The Mental Capacity Act was introduced in 2007 and applies to adults over the age of 16. It outlines who can make decisions on behalf of a patient who becomes incapacitated, such as after a stroke. Mental capacity includes the ability to make decisions about daily life, healthcare, and finances. The Act is based on five key principles, including assuming a person has capacity unless proven otherwise, taking all possible steps to help a person make decisions, and making decisions in the person’s best interests.
To assess whether a person lacks capacity, the Act provides a clear test that is decision-specific and time-specific. A person can only be considered unable to make a particular decision if they have an impairment or disturbance in the functioning of the mind or brain and are unable to understand, retain, use, or communicate information relevant to the decision. The Act also emphasizes that no individual can be labeled incapable based on their age, appearance, or any medical condition.
When assessing what is in someone’s best interests, the Act considers factors such as the likelihood of regaining capacity, the person’s wishes and beliefs, and the views of other relevant people. The Act also allows for the appointment of an attorney through a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) to act on behalf of a person who loses capacity. The LPA can cover property and financial affairs as well as health and welfare decisions, including life-sustaining treatment. Advance decisions can also be made by individuals with capacity to specify treatments they would not want if they lost capacity. These decisions must be written, signed, and witnessed if they refuse life-sustaining treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which one of the following conditions is NOT an autosomal recessive condition?
Your Answer: Haemochromatosis
Correct Answer: Hereditary spherocytosis
Explanation:Exceptions aside, metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, while structural conditions are usually inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. However, it should be noted that hereditary spherocytosis is an example of a condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion.
Autosomal recessive conditions are often referred to as metabolic conditions, while autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural. However, there are notable exceptions to this rule. For example, some metabolic conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD are X-linked recessive, while some structural conditions like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia are autosomal recessive.
Autosomal recessive conditions occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. Some examples of autosomal recessive conditions include albinism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anemia, and Wilson’s disease. These conditions can affect various systems in the body, including metabolism, blood, and the nervous system. It is important to note that some conditions, such as Gilbert’s syndrome, are still a matter of debate and may be listed as autosomal dominant in some textbooks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 7
Correct
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You encounter a 50-year-old woman during your afternoon clinic. She reports experiencing sudden episodes where the room spins uncontrollably, accompanied by nausea and occasional vomiting. Additionally, she feels as though her hearing is impaired on the right side and experiences a ringing sound and a feeling of fullness on that side. Based on these symptoms, you suspect that she may have Meniere's disease. What is a true statement about this condition?
Your Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss is a symptom of Meniere's disease
Explanation:Meniere’s disease is characterized by sensorineural hearing loss, which can worsen over time and eventually result in profound bilateral hearing loss.
Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.
The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 8
Correct
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A 15-year-old girl is brought to the General Practitioner by her mother for a consultation. She has recently been diagnosed with a learning disability. Her mother is concerned by a report she read online that stated that the risk of premature avoidable death is greater for people with learning disability in comparison to the general population.
Which of the following is the main reason for this patient's increased risk of premature avoidable death?Your Answer: Delays with diagnosis or treatment
Explanation:Understanding the Premature Mortality of People with Learning Disabilities in the UK
A review of the deaths of six people with learning disabilities by Mencap in 2007 brought attention to longstanding concerns about the care of this population within the NHS. As a result, the Confidential Inquiry into the deaths of people with learning disabilities (CIPOLD) was conducted, which reviewed the deaths of 247 people with learning disabilities between 2010-2012. The study found that the median age of death for this group was significantly lower than that of the general UK population, and delays or problems with diagnosis or treatment were the most common reasons for premature deaths.
The study also revealed that almost all individuals in the group had one or more long-term or treatable health conditions, including epilepsy, cardiovascular disease, hypertension, dementia, and osteoporosis. Respiratory infections were the most frequent cause of death, followed by heart and circulatory disorders and cancer. Suicide was not found to be a significant contributor to premature mortality, but rates were higher in people with limited intellectual functioning.
The lack of specialist learning disability services was also identified as a barrier to appropriate care, as some doctors were not aware of Community Learning Disability Teams. However, unhealthy lifestyles, such as smoking and substance abuse, were less prevalent in this group compared to the general population.
Overall, the study highlights the need for improved access to healthcare and coordination of care for people with learning disabilities, as well as increased awareness and understanding of the Mental Capacity Act 2005.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are conducting a medication review for a young woman who is taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). Which of the following options would NOT reduce the efficacy of the COCP?
Your Answer: Phenytoin
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:A P450 inhibitor is sodium valproate.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing many drugs in the body. Induction of this system occurs when a drug or substance causes an increase in the activity of the P450 enzymes. This process usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug. On the other hand, P450 inhibitors decrease the activity of the enzymes and their effects are often seen rapidly.
Some common inducers of the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking. Smoking affects CYP1A2, which is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
In contrast, some common inhibitors of the P450 system include antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, acute alcohol intake, and quinupristin.
It is important to be aware of the potential for drug interactions when taking medications that affect the P450 enzyme system. Patients should always inform their healthcare provider of all medications and supplements they are taking to avoid any adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 10
Correct
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A 44-year-old man presents with acute onset vertigo which started yesterday and has persisted.
The presence of which of the following features would most strongly suggest a diagnosis of labyrinthitis rather than vestibular neuronitis?Your Answer: Unsteadiness
Explanation:Understanding the Difference between Vestibular Neuronitis and Labyrinthitis
Vestibular neuronitis and labyrinthitis are two conditions that can cause vertigo, but they have different underlying causes and symptoms. Vestibular neuronitis is caused by inflammation of the vestibular nerve, while labyrinthitis is caused by inflammation of the labyrinth. Both conditions often develop after a viral infection and can cause acute onset, spontaneous, prolonged vertigo.
The key difference between the two conditions is that labyrinthitis also causes hearing loss and tinnitus, while hearing is unaffected in vestibular neuronitis and tinnitus doesn’t occur. It is important to differentiate between the two conditions because the treatment and management may differ.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl has been diagnosed with ADHD. What dietary recommendations should be given to her parents?
Your Answer: Eat a normal balanced diet + avoid artificial colourings
Correct Answer: Eat a normal balanced diet
Explanation:In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for the recognition and management of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. ADHD is defined by DSM-V as a persistent condition that includes features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. The threshold for diagnosis is six features for children up to 16 years old and five features for those aged 17 or over. ADHD has a prevalence of 2.4% in the UK, with a possible genetic component and a higher incidence in boys than girls.
NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should follow to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, usually to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants and how their condition affects their lives.
Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. For patients with mild/moderate symptoms, parents attending education and training programmes can be beneficial. For those who fail to respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy can be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. Lisdexamfetamine can be used if there is an inadequate response, and dexamfetamine can be started in those who have benefited from lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate its side effects. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other.
All of these drugs have the potential to be cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment. Referral to a cardiologist is necessary if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity. A thorough history and clinical examination are essential for accurate diagnosis, given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and physical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are evaluating an 80-year-old woman who has had varicose veins for a long time. She has recently noticed some darkening of the skin on both lower legs along with some dryness, but no pain or other symptoms. Her routine blood tests, including HbA1c, were normal. On examination, you observe mild pigmentation and dry skin on both lower legs, but normal distal pulses and warm feet. There are no indications of DVT. Your diagnosis is venous eczema. As per current NICE guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Topical emollients
Correct Answer: Referral to vascular service
Explanation:Patients who have developed skin changes due to varicose veins, such as pigmentation and eczema, should be referred to secondary care.
Understanding Varicose Veins
Varicose veins are enlarged and twisted veins that occur when the valves in the veins become weak or damaged, causing blood to flow backward and pool in the veins. They are most commonly found in the legs and can be caused by various factors such as age, gender, pregnancy, obesity, and genetics. While many people seek treatment for cosmetic reasons, others may experience symptoms such as aching, throbbing, and itching. In severe cases, varicose veins can lead to skin changes, bleeding, superficial thrombophlebitis, and venous ulceration.
To diagnose varicose veins, a venous duplex ultrasound is typically performed to detect retrograde venous flow. Treatment options vary depending on the severity of the condition. Conservative treatments such as leg elevation, weight loss, regular exercise, and compression stockings may be recommended for mild cases. However, patients with significant or troublesome symptoms, skin changes, or a history of bleeding or ulcers may require referral to a specialist for further evaluation and treatment. Possible treatments include endothermal ablation, foam sclerotherapy, or surgery.
In summary, varicose veins are a common condition that can cause discomfort and cosmetic concerns. While many cases do not require intervention, it is important to seek medical attention if symptoms or complications arise. With proper diagnosis and treatment, patients can manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 48-year-old patient has had two borderline smears done abroad. The last one was six months prior to your appointment today.
On the last smear she had they also did an HPV test and found the presence of HPV 18.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy
Explanation:Importance of HPV Testing in Cervical Cancer Screening
The presence of high-risk HPV strains, such as 16 and 18, increases the likelihood of malignant changes in the cervical transmission zone. Therefore, a borderline change in this area is significant and should prompt a referral for colposcopy. In the past, before HPV testing was available, the advice would have been to repeat the smear test in six months. However, repeating the smear test after five years, as recommended for women over 50 in England, doesn’t take into account the abnormal result. It is important to understand that there is no antiviral treatment for HPV, so the use of aciclovir would be inappropriate. Currently, vaccination for HPV is only given to 12-13-year-old girls. Regular cervical cancer screening, including HPV testing, is crucial for early detection and prevention of cervical cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 14
Correct
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A patient is brought in for a routine medication review. You notice she is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse has already checked her weight and blood pressure.
What additional tests would you order to finalize the review for a patient of a different age?Your Answer: Annual full blood count, renal function, fasting serum lipids and glucose, prolactin
Explanation:When treating schizophrenia with olanzapine, it is important to monitor for potential side-effects such as hypercholesterolaemia, hypertriglyceridaemia, hyperprolactinoma, increased appetite, hyperglycaemia, and hypotension. To do so, it is recommended to conduct annual tests for full blood count, renal function, liver function, fasting serum lipids and glucose, prolactin, weight, and blood pressure. This monitoring is not applicable to other drugs such as oral combined contraceptive pills, statins, disease monitoring anti-rheumatic drugs, or lithium.
Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These agents have a significant advantage over traditional antipsychotics in that they cause fewer extrapyramidal side-effects. However, atypical antipsychotics can still cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and clozapine-associated agranulocytosis. Elderly patients who take antipsychotics are at an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism, according to the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency.
Clozapine is one of the first atypical antipsychotics to be developed, but it carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis. Therefore, full blood count monitoring is essential during treatment. Clozapine should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Clozapine can cause adverse effects such as reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 15
Correct
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You review a 65-year-old man who complains of a 2-day history of pain when passing urine. He also reports going to the toilet more often with the desire to pass urine immediately. He reports having a good urinary stream without hesitancy. He denies any other pain and otherwise feels well in himself. He is not sexually active. He has never had any similar episodes previously and has no significant past medical history.
You complete an examination, which is normal.
Observations:
Blood pressure 134/87 mmHg
Heart rate 78 bpm
Temperature 37.4º
Urine dipstick:
Nitrites ++
Leucocytes trace
Protein -
Blood -
You send a midstream urine for culture and sensitivity.
What would be the best management at this stage, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: 7 day course of nitrofurantoin
Explanation:For men with lower UTIs, the recommended treatment options are trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, unless there is suspicion of prostatitis. In this case, a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is the appropriate choice for an uncomplicated UTI. Follow-up should be arranged after 48 hours to monitor the response to treatment and urine culture results. Delaying antibiotic prescribing based on culture and sensitivity results is not recommended in this scenario, as the clinical findings and urine dipstick are indicative of a UTI. A 3-day course of nitrofurantoin would not be sufficient for this patient, and a 7-day course of ciprofloxacin is not appropriate as the patient doesn’t exhibit symptoms of acute pyelonephritis.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. Lower UTIs are more common and can be managed with antibiotics. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed, and a urine culture should be sent if they are aged over 65 years or have visible or non-visible haematuria. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Pregnant women with symptoms should have a urine culture sent, and first-line treatment is nitrofurantoin, while amoxicillin or cefalexin can be used as second-line treatment. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated with antibiotics. Men with UTIs should be offered antibiotics for seven days, and a urine culture should be sent before starting treatment. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if they are symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given, and the catheter should be removed or changed if it has been in place for more than seven days. For patients with signs of acute pyelonephritis, hospital admission should be considered, and local antibiotic guidelines should be followed. The BNF recommends a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or a quinolone for 10-14 days for non-pregnant women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 65 year-old man comes to you with complaints of nasal blockage on the right side for the past two months. He reports that it is now affecting his sleep. He denies any episodes of bleeding but has been experiencing postnasal drip. Upon examination, you observe a polyp on the right side and inflamed mucosa on both sides. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Start intranasal steroids and review in 6 weeks
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT
Explanation:A unilateral nasal polyp is a concerning symptom that requires immediate attention. While bilateral polyps are typically associated with rhinosinusitis, a unilateral polyp may indicate the presence of malignancy. Therefore, it is crucial to refer the patient to an ENT specialist for further evaluation.
In cases where small bilateral nasal polyps are present, primary care treatment may involve saline nasal douching and intranasal steroids. However, if the polyps are causing significant obstruction, referral to an ENT specialist is necessary.
Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.
If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 17
Incorrect
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You see a 50-year-old woman who has come to see you after the nurse was unable to remove all the earwax from her left ear. She came to see you for advice on what to do next.
According to NICE, which is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer: Refer to audiology
Correct Answer: Offer manual syringing
Explanation:Guidelines for earwax Removal
According to NICE guidelines, if earwax irrigation is unsuccessful, patients should repeat the use of wax softeners or instil water into the ear canal 15 minutes before attempting ear irrigation again. If the second attempt is also unsuccessful, patients should be referred to a specialist ear care service or ENT. It is important to note that manual syringing should not be offered as a method of earwax removal. These guidelines aim to ensure safe and effective earwax removal practices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old Asian man who has lived in the United Kingdom for the past 10 years presents with painless haematuria. He is a smoker of 10 cigarettes per day.
Investigations reveal a haemoglobin of 110 g/L (120-160), urinalysis shows ++ blood and PA chest x ray shows small flecks of white opacifications in the upper lobe of the left lung.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Bladder carcinoma
Explanation:Diagnosis and Risk Factors for Haematuria and Anaemia in a Middle-Aged Male
The most likely diagnosis for a middle-aged male presenting with haematuria and anaemia is carcinoma of the bladder. This is supported by the patient’s history of smoking, which is a known risk factor for bladder cancer. Although renal TB is a possibility, the absence of systemic symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss makes it less likely. The opacifications in the lung are consistent with previous primary TB. It is important to note that renal TB can present without systemic symptoms, but bladder cancer is more common in this scenario. Proper diagnosis and management are crucial in cases of haematuria and anaemia, and further investigations should be carried out to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of urinary incontinence. She reports frequent urine leakage and a strong urge to urinate that she cannot control. She denies experiencing dysuria or hematuria and has no gastrointestinal symptoms. Physical examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen, and urinalysis is normal. The patient drinks seven glasses of water per day and avoids caffeinated beverages. She has a BMI of 20.2 and is a non-smoker. If non-pharmacological interventions fail, what is the first-line medication for her condition?
Your Answer: Oxybutynin
Correct Answer: Furosemide
Explanation:Treatment options for Urinary Urge Incontinence
Urinary urge incontinence is a common condition that can be treated with supervised bladder training for at least six weeks. This training can be provided by a continence nurse, physiotherapist, or urology clinic. If symptoms persist, an Antimuscarinic drug can be prescribed, with the lowest effective dose used and titrated upwards if necessary. It may take up to four weeks for the drug to take effect, and side effects such as dry mouth and constipation may occur. First-line drugs include oxybutynin, tolterodine, and darifenacin.
It is important to note that diuretics such as furosemide can potentially worsen symptoms of urinary urge incontinence. Amitriptyline is not recommended for this condition, as it is primarily used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis. Duloxetine may be used as a second-line treatment for stress incontinence, but it is not included in NICE guidelines for urinary urge incontinence. Desmopressin is typically used for other conditions such as diabetes insipidus, multiple sclerosis, enuresis, and bleeding disorders.
In summary, supervised bladder training and Antimuscarinic drugs are effective treatment options for urinary urge incontinence. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for individual cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman presents with pruritus vulvae. On examination, there are white thickened shiny patches on the labia minora. There is no abnormal vaginal discharge. The patient reports intense itching.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions of the Anogenital Region
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that commonly affects the anogenital region in women and the glans penis and foreskin in men. It presents as white thickened or crinkled patches that can be extremely itchy or sore and may bruise or ulcerate due to friction. Adhesions or scarring can occur in the vulva or foreskin.
Psoriasis, on the other hand, forms well-demarcated plaques that are bright red and lacking in scale in the flexures. Candidiasis of the groins and vulval area presents with an erythematous inflammatory element and inflamed satellite lesions.
Vitiligo, characterized by the loss of pigment, doesn’t cause itching and is an unlikely diagnosis for this patient. Vulval carcinoma, which involves tumour formation and ulceration, is also not present in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A woman aged 25 asks your practice nurse for advice on travel immunisations.
She is 16 weeks pregnant and is travelling to a rural part of Asia to visit her family as her father is very ill. She doesn't know what vaccinations she may have had as a child and the practice doesn't have any old records. The nurse wants to know if she can give the vaccines. Which vaccine should not be given to a pregnant woman?Your Answer: Yellow fever
Correct Answer: Cholera
Explanation:Vaccinations for Pregnant Women
It is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of vaccinations for pregnant women. Live virus vaccines, such as the yellow fever vaccine, should not be given to pregnant women due to the theoretical risk of the fetus contracting the infection. However, if travel to a high-risk area is unavoidable, the individual risk from the disease and vaccine should be assessed. Inactivated viral or bacterial vaccines and toxoids, such as those for hepatitis A and B, cholera, and tetanus, are generally safe for pregnant women and may be given when clinically indicated. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old boy who suffers with partial seizures has been started on levetiracetam by the paediatricians following a recent outpatient appointment.
Following initiation in secondary care the paediatricians have advised he continue taking the levetiracetam at a maintenance dose of 20 mg/kg twice daily.
His current weight is 30 kg. Levetiracetam oral solution is dispensed at a concentration of 100 mg/ml.
What is the correct dosage of levetiracetam in millilitres to prescribe?Your Answer: 6 ml BD
Correct Answer: 3 ml BD
Explanation:Calculating Levetiracetam Dose
When calculating the dose of Levetiracetam oral solution, it is important to consider the patient’s weight and the recommended dosage of 25 mg/kg BD. For example, if the patient weighs 24 kg, the total daily dose would be 600 mg BD. Since the oral solution is 100 mg/ml, this would equate to 6 ml BD. It is crucial to accurately calculate the dose to ensure the patient receives the appropriate amount of medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man recently returned from India, presents with a 10-day history of intermittent diarrhoea, fever (39 oC), headache and a non-productive cough. His pulse is 70 and regular, and his spleen is palpable.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Dengue fever
Correct Answer: Typhoid
Explanation:Typhoid Fever: Symptoms, Causes, and Complications
Typhoid fever is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella enterica, specifically S typhi and S paratyphi. It is primarily spread through contaminated food and drink, and is most commonly reported in the UK among individuals who have traveled to the Indian sub-continent. Symptoms typically appear 10-20 days after exposure and may include diarrhea, fever, headaches, cough, and constipation. Other signs may include Rose spots, a relative bradycardia, and eye complications.
As the infection progresses, patients may experience sustained pyrexia, abdominal distension, and splenomegaly. By the third week, weight loss and delirium may occur, along with a liquid, green-yellow pea soup diarrhea. In severe cases, death can result from toxaemia, myocarditis, intestinal hemorrhage, or gut perforation.
It is important to consider other mosquito-borne illnesses, such as dengue fever and malaria, in the differential diagnosis of febrile patients returning from endemic areas. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing typhoid fever and preventing complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to his GP with a swollen testicle. Upon examination, the GP suspects a testicular tumour rather than epididymo-orchitis. What finding is most likely to have led to this suspicion?
Your Answer: Marked tenderness
Correct Answer: A painless testicular swelling
Explanation:Testicular Tumours and Epididymo-orchitis: Symptoms and Differential Diagnosis
Testicular tumours can present as painless or painful lumps or enlarged testicles, often accompanied by a dragging sensation and pain in the lower abdomen. Inflamed testicles are very tender, while malignant ones may lack normal sensation. Ultrasound is usually used to confirm the diagnosis.
Acute epididymo-orchitis, on the other hand, is characterized by pain, swelling, and inflammation of the epididymis, often caused by infections spreading from the urethra or bladder. Symptoms may include urethral discharge, hydrocele, erythema, oedema of the scrotum, and pyrexia. Orchitis, limited to the testis, is less common.
The differential diagnosis of a testicular mass includes not only tumours and epididymo-orchitis but also testicular torsion, hydrocele, hernia, hematoma, spermatocele, and varicocele.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old Jewish woman presents with recurrent mouth ulcers for several months. Recently, she has developed painful blisters on her back that seem to be spreading after attempting to pop them with a needle.
The patient is typically healthy and not taking any medications. She works at an elementary school and denies using any over-the-counter drugs recently.
During the examination, the patient exhibits mucosal blistering and extensive flaccid vesicles and bullae that are sensitive to touch. She has no fever.
A biopsy of the lesions reveals acantholysis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bullous pemphigoid
Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Mucosal blistering is a common symptom of Pemphigus vulgaris, while skin blisters are typically painful but not itchy. This condition is often seen in middle-aged patients and is characterized by flaccid blisters and erosions that are Nikolsky’s sign positive. Mucous membrane involvement is also frequently observed. Bullous pemphigoid is a similar condition but is more prevalent in the elderly and features tense blisters without acantholysis on biopsy.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a 58-year-old man with lower urinary tract symptoms. He presented six months ago with complaints of weak urinary stream, hesitancy, intermittency, terminal dribbling, and nocturia ×2. He denies any history of visible haematuria or erectile dysfunction. Urine dipstick testing is normal, his eGFR is stable at 84, and his PSA is 0.9 ng/mL. On digital rectal examination, his prostate is less than 30 g in size with no sinister features.
Despite conservative management and modification of his fluid intake, his symptoms persist and he has returned seeking advice on taking a tablet. His international prostate symptom score was 17 at his initial visit and is now 15. He reports that his quality of life is affected by his urinary symptoms and he is unhappy. He is otherwise healthy and not taking any other medications.
What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological approach for this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Tamsulosin 400 mcgs OD
Correct Answer: Finasteride 5 mg OD and oxybutynin 5 mg BD
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Drug Treatment of Lower Urinary Tract Symptoms
NICE recommends drug treatment for bothersome lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS) if conservative measures fail. For moderate to severe LUTS, an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin should be offered. Patients should be reviewed after four to six weeks until stable. If LUTS is accompanied by an enlarged prostate or a high PSA level, a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor like finasteride should be prescribed. Anticholinergic drugs like oxybutynin can be used to manage storage symptoms. For patients with moderate to severe LUTS and an enlarged prostate or high PSA level, both an alpha-blocker and a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor can be started. In the case of a patient with moderate LUTS, a prostate less than 30 g, and a PSA level less than 1.4, starting an alpha-blocker like tamsulosin and reviewing the patient in four to six weeks is the most appropriate approach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old accountant has approached you seeking assistance in quitting smoking. They have inquired about the effectiveness of various treatments. What is the correct statement regarding smoking cessation?
Your Answer: Nicotine replacement therapy increases odds of cessation by 30%
Correct Answer: Counselling alone is of little value
Explanation:Aids for Smoking Cessation
Smoking is linked to depression, and antidepressants are believed to help with smoking cessation. Bupropion is an antidepressant that doubles the odds of quitting, but its mode of action is unknown. Varenicline increases the odds of quitting by a factor of 3, while nicotine replacement therapy nearly doubles the odds. Cytisine, a low-cost aid used in Eastern Europe, may be effective but requires further evaluation. Genetic differences may affect response to NRT. Counselling is widely accepted as an aid, but its effectiveness varies. Overall, there are several aids available for those looking to quit smoking, and it may be helpful to try a combination of methods for the best chance of success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 65-year-old woman who has previously consulted you for erectile dysfunction. Despite trying conservative treatment options, she returns to you as they have not been effective. She expresses interest in trying sildenafil. Sarah's medical history includes a heart attack she had a year ago, hypertension, high cholesterol, type 2 diabetes, and macular degeneration. She is currently taking bisoprolol, atorvastatin, amlodipine, aspirin, and metformin. During examination, her blood pressure is 114/85 mmHg and her pulse is 85 beats per minute. What advice would you give to Sarah?
Your Answer: Sildenafil is contraindicated due to recent myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: It is safe to prescribe sildenafil
Explanation:It is safe to prescribe sildenafil to George as he doesn’t have any contraindications.
Prescribing sildenafil is still safe for patients with macular degeneration.
According to NICE, sildenafil can be prescribed safely if the patient had a myocardial infarction more than 6 months ago.
Having hypertension doesn’t prevent the prescription of sildenafil.
Sildenafil can still be prescribed to patients with diabetes.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 29
Correct
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A 29-year-old man visits the General Practitioner for a consultation. He reports being a victim of domestic abuse by his partner.
Which of the following choices is LEAST PROBABLE to corroborate his statement?Your Answer: He had to strike the partner because she 'wound him up'
Explanation:Understanding Domestic Violence: Identifying Victims and Perpetrators
Domestic violence is a form of abusive and controlling behavior that gives the abuser power over the victim. It is not limited to heterosexual relationships and can occur in any kind of relationship. According to a survey conducted in 2012-2013, 7.1% of women and 4.4% of men reported experiencing domestic violence.
It is crucial to correctly identify whether the patient is a victim or a perpetrator as incorrect identification can have severe consequences for the patient, their partner, and any children involved. Striking out at a partner is an action of a perpetrator, and no matter how annoying they find their partner, they are not legally allowed to hurt them. The other four options could be examples of abuse against the perpetrator.
For those interested in learning more about the issues surrounding male victims of domestic violence, the Respect Toolkit for Work with Male Victims of Domestic Violence (2019) provides an excellent overview.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with tinnitus.
Which of the following statements about tinnitus is correct?Your Answer: There is no treatment for tinnitus
Correct Answer: Tinnitus may be a sign of a brain tumour
Explanation:Myths and Facts About Tinnitus
Tinnitus, the perception of sound in the absence of external sound, is a common condition that affects around 10% of adults in the UK. However, there are many myths and misconceptions surrounding this condition.
One myth is that tinnitus may be a sign of a brain tumour. While unilateral tinnitus may be a sign of an acoustic neuroma, this is rare.
Another myth is that tinnitus is usually caused by drugs. While over 200 drugs are reported to cause tinnitus, drugs are not the commonest cause.
A third myth is that there is no treatment for tinnitus. However, a hearing aid can often help, and relaxation techniques or background music may also be beneficial.
Finally, some people believe that tinnitus is rare in the absence of ear disease and that it is usually constant in severity. In fact, tinnitus can have a wide variety of causes and symptoms, and many cases have no identifiable cause. Symptoms may come and go, and most cases of tinnitus are mild and improve over time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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