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  • Question 1 - A 60-year old man whose brother was diagnosed with Alzheimer's wants to know...

    Correct

    • A 60-year old man whose brother was diagnosed with Alzheimer's wants to know the likelihood of him developing the disorder compared to the general population. What is his increased risk?

      Your Answer: 3 times higher

      Explanation:

      Familial Risk of Alzheimer’s Disease

      The risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease is increased for first-degree relatives of patients who develop the disorder before the age of 85. This risk is three to four times higher than the risk for individuals without a family history of the disease. It is important for healthcare professionals to advise relatives of patients with Alzheimer’s disease about their increased genetic risk and provide appropriate support and resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      11.3
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  • Question 2 - What is a distinguishing characteristic of normal pressure hydrocephalus? ...

    Correct

    • What is a distinguishing characteristic of normal pressure hydrocephalus?

      Your Answer: Incontinence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus

      Normal pressure hydrocephalus is a type of communicating hydrocephalus that is chronic in nature. It occurs when there is an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the ventricles of the brain due to impaired reabsorption by the arachnoid villi. Unlike other types of hydrocephalus, the CSF pressure in normal pressure hydrocephalus is typically high but still within the normal range. Therefore, patients do not experience symptoms of high intracranial pressure such as headache and nausea. Instead, they present with a classic triad of incontinence, gait ataxia, and dementia, which is often referred to as wet, wobbly, wacky. Unfortunately, this condition is often misdiagnosed as Parkinson’s of Alzheimer’s disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      102.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A middle-aged individual develops depression shortly after suffering a stroke and is currently...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged individual develops depression shortly after suffering a stroke and is currently taking warfarin. What medication is advised in this situation?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      For patients with post stroke depression who are taking warfarin, citalopram is the recommended treatment option. However, caution should be exercised if the stroke was hemorrhagic as SSRIs can increase the risk of de novo hemorrhagic stroke, especially when combined with antiplatelet drugs of warfarin. In such cases, citalopram or escitalopram may be preferred as they have the lowest potential for interaction. It is not clear how direct-acting oral anticoagulants (DOACs) interact with SSRIs, but citalopram or escitalopram may still be preferred as they do not affect the enzymes associated with DOAC metabolism.

      Depression is a common occurrence after a stroke, affecting 30-40% of patients. The location of the stroke lesion can play a crucial role in the development of major depression. Treatment for post-stroke depression must take into account the cause of the stroke, medical comorbidities, and potential interactions with other medications. The Maudsley guidelines recommend SSRIs as the first-line treatment, with paroxetine being the preferred choice. Nortriptyline is also an option, as it does not increase the risk of bleeding. If the patient is on anticoagulants, citalopram and escitalopram may be preferred. Antidepressant prophylaxis has been shown to be effective in preventing post-stroke depression, with nortriptyline, fluoxetine, escitalopram, duloxetine, sertraline, and mirtazapine being effective options. Mianserin, however, appears to be ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 4 - What is the most suitable course of action for a man with advanced...

    Correct

    • What is the most suitable course of action for a man with advanced multiple sclerosis who experiences pathological crying and has not shown improvement with citalopram?

      Your Answer: Dextromethorphan and quinidine

      Explanation:

      According to the 13th edition of the Maudsley Guidelines, the effectiveness of dextromethorphan and quinidine in treating pseudobulbar affect has been demonstrated. Out of the options provided, this is the only one that has been supported by evidence.

      Pathological Crying

      Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.

      When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.

      Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 5 - What is a true statement about investigations conducted in cases of dementia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about investigations conducted in cases of dementia?

      Your Answer: Cerebrospinal fluid examination for either total tau of total tau and phosphorylated-tau should not be used to help determine the dementia subtype

      Correct Answer: I-FP-CIT SPECT should be used where Lewy body is suspected

      Explanation:

      As an AI language model, I do not have the ability to perform investigations of provide medical advice. However, I can provide information on the NICE guidelines for investigations in people with dementia. The guidelines suggest routine blood tests to exclude reversible causes, such as full blood count, ESR, CRP, urea and electrolytes, calcium, HbA1c, liver function tests, thyroid function tests, and serum B12 and folate levels. Other investigations that may be appropriate if clinically indicated include urine microscopy and culture, chest X-ray, ECG, syphilis serology, and HIV testing. Structural imaging and CSF analysis may also be necessary to exclude other cerebral pathologies and establish the subtype diagnosis. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is preferred over CT if the subtype is unclear and vascular is suspected. FDG-PET of perfusion SPECT may be considered if the diagnosis is uncertain and frontotemporal dementia of dementia with Lewy bodies is suspected. However, it is important to note that Apolipoprotein E genotyping and electroencephalography should not be used to diagnose Alzheimer’s disease. It is recommended to consult with a healthcare professional for proper evaluation and management of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 6 - What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar degeneration? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar degeneration?

      Your Answer: Behavioural variant is the most common subtype of frontotemporal lobar degeneration

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.

      The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).

      As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.

      In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
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  • Question 7 - What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar degeneration? ...

    Correct

    • What is a true statement about frontotemporal lobar degeneration?

      Your Answer: In semantic dementia, speech is characteristically fluent

      Explanation:

      Frontotemporal Lobar Degeneration

      Frontotemporal lobar degeneration (FTLD) is a group of neurodegenerative disorders that involve the atrophy of the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by progressive dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. FTLD is the third most common form of dementia across all age groups and a leading type of early-onset dementia.

      The disease has common features such as onset before 65, insidious onset, relatively preserved memory and visuospatial skills, personality change, and social conduct problems. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD: behavioral-variant (bvFTD), language variant – primary progressive aphasia (PPA), and the language variant is further subdivided into semantic variant PPA (aka semantic dementia) and non-fluent agrammatic variant PPA (nfvPPA).

      As the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge, as an initially focal degeneration becomes more diffuse and spreads to affect large regions in the frontal and temporal lobes. The key differences between the subtypes are summarized in the table provided. The bvFTD subtype is characterized by poor personal and social decorum, disinhibition, poor judgment and problem-solving, apathy, compulsive/perseverative behavior, hyperorality of dietary changes, and loss of empathy. The nfvPPA subtype is characterized by slow/slurred speech, decreased word output and phrase length, word-finding difficulties, apraxia of speech, and spared single-word comprehension. The svPPA subtype is characterized by intact speech fluency, word-finding difficulties (anomia), impaired single-word comprehension, repetitive speech, and reduced word comprehension.

      In conclusion, FTLD is a progressive, heterogeneous, neurodegenerative disorder that affects the frontal and temporal lobes. The disease is characterized by dysfunction in executive functioning, behavior, and language, and can mimic psychiatric disorders due to its prominent behavioral features. There are three recognized subtypes of FTLD, and as the disease progresses, the symptoms of the three clinical variants can converge.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      532.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What interventions have been proven to be effective in preventing postoperative delirium and...

    Correct

    • What interventions have been proven to be effective in preventing postoperative delirium and reducing its intensity and duration?

      Your Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      In elderly patients undergoing hip surgery, haloperidol has been found to decrease the intensity and length of postoperative delirium. However, it did not have an effect on the occurrence of delirium.

      Delirium Management

      Pharmacological management of delirium includes the use of haloperidol as a prophylactic measure. NICE guidelines recommend short-term use of haloperidol in cases where delirium is associated with distress of risk to self/others. Quetiapine is also considered a first-choice option in many units. Lorazepam can be used as an alternative if haloperidol is contraindicated, but it is more likely to cause respiratory depression, over-sedation, and paradoxical excitement.

      Non-pharmacological management of delirium includes appropriate lighting and clear signage, talking to the person to reorient them, cognitively stimulating activities, regular visits from family and friends, and promoting good sleep patterns. Additional options such as donepezil, rivastigmine, melatonin, trazodone, and sodium valproate are not recommended. It is important to carefully consider the individual’s needs and medical history when choosing a management plan for delirium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      5.8
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  • Question 9 - You receive a call from a doctor in the emergency department regarding a...

    Correct

    • You receive a call from a doctor in the emergency department regarding a middle-aged female patient with a history of depression under psychiatric care who has presented with a gastrointestinal bleed. The doctor is inquiring about the potential contribution of any medications to the bleed. Which medication would you consider as the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      SSRI and Bleeding Risk: Management Strategies

      SSRIs have been linked to an increased risk of bleeding, particularly in vulnerable populations such as the elderly, those with a history of bleeding, and those taking medications that predispose them to bleeding. The risk of bleeding is further elevated in patients with comorbidities such as liver of renal disease, smoking, and alcohol of drug misuse.

      To manage this risk, the Maudsley recommends avoiding SSRIs in patients receiving NSAIDs, aspirin, of oral anticoagulants, of those with a history of cerebral of GI bleeds. If SSRI use cannot be avoided, close monitoring and prescription of gastroprotective proton pump inhibitors are recommended. The degree of serotonin reuptake inhibition varies among antidepressants, with some having weaker of no inhibition, which may be associated with a lower risk of bleeding.

      NICE recommends caution when using SSRIs in patients taking aspirin and suggests considering alternative antidepressants such as trazodone, mianserin, of reboxetine. In patients taking warfarin of heparin, SSRIs are not recommended, but mirtazapine may be considered with caution.

      Overall, healthcare providers should carefully weigh the risks and benefits of SSRI use in patients at risk of bleeding and consider alternative antidepressants of gastroprotective measures when appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      10.3
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  • Question 10 - What eye condition is frequently linked to Charles Bonnet syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What eye condition is frequently linked to Charles Bonnet syndrome?

      Your Answer: Macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Macular degeneration is the sole condition among the options that typically results in notable visual impairment, which is often associated with Charles Bonnet syndrome.

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome: A Condition of Complex Visual Hallucinations

      Charles Bonnet Syndrome (CBS) is a condition characterized by persistent of recurrent complex visual hallucinations that occur in clear consciousness. This condition is observed in individuals who have suffered damage to the visual pathway, which can be caused by damage to any part of the pathway from the eye to the cortex. The hallucinations are thought to result from a release phenomenon secondary to the deafferentation of the cerebral cortex. CBS is equally distributed between sexes and does not show any familial predisposition. The most common ophthalmological conditions associated with this syndrome are age-related macular degeneration, followed by glaucoma and cataract.

      Risk factors for CBS include advanced age, peripheral visual impairment, social isolation, sensory deprivation, and early cognitive impairment. Well-formed complex visual hallucinations are thought to occur in 10-30 percent of individuals with severe visual impairment. Only around a third of individuals find the hallucinations themselves an unpleasant or disturbing experience. The most effective treatment is reversal of the visual impairment. Antipsychotic drugs are commonly prescribed but are largely ineffective. CBS is a long-lasting condition, with 88% of individuals experiencing it for two years of more, and only 25% resolving at nine years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      2.9
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Old Age Psychiatry (9/10) 90%
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