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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with facial drooping and slurred...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with facial drooping and slurred speech. You perform a cranial nerves examination and find that her oculomotor nerve has been affected. What sign would you anticipate observing in this patient?

      Your Answer: Vertical diplopia

      Correct Answer: Ptosis

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is ptosis. Issues with the oculomotor nerve can cause ptosis, a drooping of the eyelid, as well as a dilated, fixed pupil and a down and out eye. The oculomotor nerve is responsible for various functions, including eye movements (such as those controlled by the MR, IO, SR, and IR muscles), pupil constriction, accommodation, and eyelid opening. Arcuate scotoma is an incorrect answer. This condition is caused by damage to the optic nerve, resulting in a blind spot that appears as an arc shape in the visual field. It does not affect extraocular movements. Bitemporal hemianopia is also an incorrect answer. This visual field defect affects the outer halves of both eyes and is caused by lesions of the optic chiasm, such as those resulting from a pituitary adenoma. Horizontal diplopia is another incorrect answer. This condition is caused by problems with the abducens nerve, which controls the lateral rectus muscle responsible for eye abduction. Defective abduction leads to horizontal diplopia, or double vision.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      22
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his colleagues following...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his colleagues following a brief episode of unusual behavior at work, lasting approximately 2 minutes. His colleagues observed him repeatedly smacking his lips during the episode. Afterward, he displayed mild speech difficulties and appeared to have difficulty understanding his colleagues.

      What is the probable site of the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Temporal lobe

      Explanation:

      Localising features of a temporal lobe seizure include postictal dysphasia and lip smacking.

      Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy

      Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.

      On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      16.9
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  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old male has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease, but there is no...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old male has been diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease, but there is no family history of the disease.

      Which gene is the most probable to be affected in this individual?

      Your Answer: Amyloid precursor protein gene (APP)

      Correct Answer: APOE ε4 gene

      Explanation:

      The risk of sporadic Alzheimer’s disease is primarily determined by APOE polymorphic alleles, with the ε4 allele carrying the highest risk. Familial Alzheimer’s disease is linked to the APP, PSEN1, and PSEN2 genes, while familial Parkinson’s disease is associated with the PARK genes.

      Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.

      The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.

      Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      7.2
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  • Question 4 - At which of the following vertebral body levels does the common carotid artery...

    Correct

    • At which of the following vertebral body levels does the common carotid artery usually divide into the external and internal carotid arteries?

      Your Answer: C4

      Explanation:

      It ends at the top edge of the thyroid cartilage, typically situated at the fourth cervical vertebrae (C4).

      The common carotid artery is a major blood vessel that supplies the head and neck with oxygenated blood. It has two branches, the left and right common carotid arteries, which arise from different locations. The left common carotid artery originates from the arch of the aorta, while the right common carotid artery arises from the brachiocephalic trunk. Both arteries terminate at the upper border of the thyroid cartilage by dividing into the internal and external carotid arteries.

      The left common carotid artery runs superolaterally to the sternoclavicular joint and is in contact with various structures in the thorax, including the trachea, left recurrent laryngeal nerve, and left margin of the esophagus. In the neck, it passes deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle and enters the carotid sheath with the vagus nerve and internal jugular vein. The right common carotid artery has a similar path to the cervical portion of the left common carotid artery, but with fewer closely related structures.

      Overall, the common carotid artery is an important blood vessel with complex anatomical relationships in both the thorax and neck. Understanding its path and relations is crucial for medical professionals to diagnose and treat various conditions related to this artery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      7.7
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  • Question 5 - A 79-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with sudden onset right sided...

    Correct

    • A 79-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with sudden onset right sided hemiparesis. He has a medical history of hypertension and reports no changes to his vision, speech or hearing.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lacunar infarct

      Explanation:

      A lacunar stroke can lead to isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia. In this case, the patient is experiencing isolated hemiparesis, which is likely caused by a lacunar infarct. Hypertension is strongly linked to this type of stroke.

      Weber’s syndrome results in CN III palsy on the same side as the stroke and weakness in the opposite limb.

      Nystagmus is a common symptom of Wallenberg syndrome.

      Ipsilateral deafness is a common symptom of lateral pontine syndrome.

      Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.

      Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      23.5
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  • Question 6 - A 32-year-old man is assaulted and stabbed in the upper abdomen. Upon arrival...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man is assaulted and stabbed in the upper abdomen. Upon arrival at the emergency department, he reports experiencing pain on the left side of his abdomen and has reduced breath sounds on the same side. Imaging studies reveal a diaphragmatic rupture. What is the level at which the inferior vena cava passes through the diaphragm?

      Your Answer: T8

      Explanation:

      The diaphragm’s opening for the inferior vena cava is situated at T8 level, while the opening for the oesophagus is at T10 level.

      Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body

      The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.

      In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      20.7
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  • Question 7 - A 6-year-old boy has been experiencing recurring headaches. During his evaluation, an MRI...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy has been experiencing recurring headaches. During his evaluation, an MRI scan of his brain was conducted, revealing an enlargement of the lateral and third ventricles. What is the probable location of the obstruction?

      Your Answer: None of the above

      Correct Answer: Aqueduct of Sylvius

      Explanation:

      The Aqueduct of Sylvius is the pathway through which the CSF moves from the 3rd to the 4th ventricle.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      21.8
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  • Question 8 - After a history of neurological disease, a 60-year-old patient comes for clinical examination....

    Correct

    • After a history of neurological disease, a 60-year-old patient comes for clinical examination.

      During the examination:

      The patient can smile and show their teeth, but they struggle to clench their teeth.
      There are no issues with eyebrow movement or pupillary size.
      Sensation in the forehead is intact.
      However, there is a decrease in sensory innervation in the area of the buccinator.

      Which nerve is the most likely to be impacted?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal (mandibular branch)

      Explanation:

      Cranial nerve palsies can present with diplopia, or double vision, which is most noticeable in the direction of the weakened muscle. Additionally, covering the affected eye will cause the outer image to disappear. False localising signs can indicate a pathology that is not in the expected anatomical location. One common example is sixth nerve palsy, which is often caused by increased intracranial pressure due to conditions such as brain tumours, abscesses, meningitis, or haemorrhages. Papilloedema may also be present in these cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      21.9
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  • Question 9 - A man in his early 40s comes to the clinic with facial weakness...

    Correct

    • A man in his early 40s comes to the clinic with facial weakness on one side, asymmetry, and ptosis. The physician is considering either Bell's palsy or an upper motor lesion. What would be the most significant clinical finding to suggest Bell's palsy?

      Your Answer: Loss of taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, ear pain, and hyperacusis

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is a clinical condition that occurs when the facial nerve (CX 7) is damaged. This nerve is responsible for gustation sensation on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, providing sensation to an area of skin behind the ear, and innervating the stapedial muscles of the ear, which stabilizes the stapes bone and transmits sound vibrations to the inner ear. Therefore, damage to this nerve can cause these symptoms.

      Although risk factors for Bell’s palsy include diabetes and family history, it is an idiopathic condition that is diagnosed through exclusion. MRI is not useful in diagnosing this condition.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience postauricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      25.4
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  • Question 10 - A 49-year-old patient visits your clinic with complaints of unintentional weight loss, increased...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old patient visits your clinic with complaints of unintentional weight loss, increased appetite, and diarrhea. She frequently experiences a rapid heartbeat and feels hot and sweaty in your office. During examination, you observe lid retraction in her eyes and a pulse rate of 110 beats per minute. You suspect thyrotoxicosis and plan to measure her serum levels of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), triiodothyronine (T3), and thyroxine (T4). Since TSH is secreted by the anterior pituitary, which other hormone is also released by this gland?

      Your Answer: Prolactin

      Explanation:

      The hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary gland that stimulates breast development in puberty and during pregnancy, as well as milk production after delivery, is prolactin. Along with prolactin, the anterior pituitary gland also secretes growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), and melanocyte releasing hormone.

      antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also known as vasopressin, is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. It increases water reabsorption in the collecting ducts of the kidneys.

      Aldosterone is released by the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. It is a mineralocorticoid that increases sodium reabsorption in the distal nephron of the kidney, leading to water retention.

      Cortisol is released by the zona fasiculata of the adrenal gland. It is a glucocorticoid that has various actions, including increasing protein catabolism, glycogenolysis, and gluconeogenesis.

      The pituitary gland is a small gland located within the sella turcica in the sphenoid bone of the middle cranial fossa. It weighs approximately 0.5g and is covered by a dural fold. The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and receives hormonal stimuli from the hypothalamus through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system. The anterior pituitary, which develops from a depression in the wall of the pharynx known as Rathkes pouch, secretes hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. GH and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells, while ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH are secreted by basophilic cells. On the other hand, the posterior pituitary, which is derived from neuroectoderm, secretes ADH and oxytocin. Both hormones are produced in the hypothalamus before being transported by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      39.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurological System (7/10) 70%
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