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  • Question 1 - What food item is rich in choline? ...

    Incorrect

    • What food item is rich in choline?

      Your Answer: Carbonated drinks (non-alcoholic)

      Correct Answer: Egg yolk

      Explanation:

      Choline, which is essential for the synthesis of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine, can be obtained in significant quantities from vegetables, seeds, egg yolk, and liver. However, it is only present in small amounts in most fruits, egg whites, and many beverages.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following is Stuart Mill primarily known for? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is Stuart Mill primarily known for?

      Your Answer: The categorical imperative

      Correct Answer: Rule utilitarianism

      Explanation:

      Ethical theory and principles are important in medical ethics. There are three key ethical theories that have dominated medical ethics: utilitarianism, deontological, and virtue-based. Utilitarianism is based on the greatest good for the greatest number and is a consequentialist theory. Deontological ethics emphasize moral duties and rules, rather than consequences. Virtue ethics is based on the ethical characteristics of a person and is associated with the concept of a good, happy, flourishing life.

      More recent frameworks have attempted to reconcile different theories and values. The ‘four principles’ of ‘principlism’ approach, developed in the United States, is based on four common, basic prima facie moral commitments: autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. Autonomy refers to a patient’s right to make their own decisions, beneficence refers to the expectation that a doctor will act in a way that will be helpful to the patient, non-maleficence refers to the fact that doctors should avoid harming their patients, and justice refers to the expectation that all people should be treated fairly and equally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Social Psychology
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A person who struggles with reproducing intersecting pentagons on the MMSE at an...

    Incorrect

    • A person who struggles with reproducing intersecting pentagons on the MMSE at an older age is likely to experience difficulties with which of the following?

      Your Answer: Dominant parietal lobe

      Correct Answer: Non dominant parietal lobe

      Explanation:

      The inability to accurately replicate intersecting pentagons may indicate a constructional apraxia, which is a symptom of non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction.

      Parietal Lobe Dysfunction: Types and Symptoms

      The parietal lobe is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in processing sensory information and integrating it with other cognitive functions. Dysfunction in this area can lead to various symptoms, depending on the location and extent of the damage.

      Dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, often caused by a stroke, can result in Gerstmann’s syndrome, which includes finger agnosia, dyscalculia, dysgraphia, and right-left disorientation. Non-dominant parietal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, can cause anosognosia, dressing apraxia, spatial neglect, and constructional apraxia.

      Bilateral damage to the parieto-occipital lobes, a rare condition, can lead to Balint’s syndrome, which is characterized by oculomotor apraxia, optic ataxia, and simultanagnosia. These symptoms can affect a person’s ability to shift gaze, interact with objects, and perceive multiple objects at once.

      In summary, parietal lobe dysfunction can manifest in various ways, and understanding the specific symptoms can help diagnose and treat the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - What is the frequency of the A allele in a population of 100...

    Incorrect

    • What is the frequency of the A allele in a population of 100 diploid individuals, where 30 individuals are heterozygous for allele A and 5 individuals are homozygous for allele A?

      Your Answer: 0.4

      Correct Answer: 0.2

      Explanation:

      Hardy-Weinberg Principle and Allele Frequency

      Allele frequency refers to the proportion of a population that carries a specific variant at a particular gene locus. It can be calculated by dividing the number of individual alleles of a certain type by the total number of alleles in a population. The Hardy-Weinberg Principle states that both allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced. To remain in equilibrium, five conditions must be met, including no mutations, no gene flow, random mating, a sufficiently large population, and no natural selection. The Hardy-Weinberg Equation is used to predict the frequency of alleles in a population, and it can be used to estimate the carrier frequency of genetic diseases. For example, if the incidence of PKU is one in 10,000 babies, then the carrier frequency in the general population is 1/50. Couples with a previous child with PKU have a 25% chance of having another affected child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which condition is typically associated with a flattened EEG trace? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which condition is typically associated with a flattened EEG trace?

      Your Answer: Sporadic CJD

      Correct Answer: Huntington's

      Explanation:

      Electroencephalography

      Electroencephalography (EEG) is a clinical test that records the brain’s spontaneous electrical activity over a short period of time using multiple electrodes placed on the scalp. It is mainly used to rule out organic conditions and can help differentiate dementia from other disorders such as metabolic encephalopathies, CJD, herpes encephalitis, and non-convulsive status epilepticus. EEG can also distinguish possible psychotic episodes and acute confusional states from non-convulsive status epilepticus.

      Not all abnormal EEGs represent an underlying condition, and psychotropic medications can affect EEG findings. EEG abnormalities can also be triggered purposely by activation procedures such as hyperventilation, photic stimulation, certain drugs, and sleep deprivation.

      Specific waveforms are seen in an EEG, including delta, theta, alpha, sigma, beta, and gamma waves. Delta waves are found frontally in adults and posteriorly in children during slow wave sleep, and excessive amounts when awake may indicate pathology. Theta waves are generally seen in young children, drowsy and sleeping adults, and during meditation. Alpha waves are seen posteriorly when relaxed and when the eyes are closed, and are also seen in meditation. Sigma waves are bursts of oscillatory activity that occur in stage 2 sleep. Beta waves are seen frontally when busy of concentrating, and gamma waves are seen in advanced/very experienced meditators.

      Certain conditions are associated with specific EEG changes, such as nonspecific slowing in early CJD, low voltage EEG in Huntington’s, diffuse slowing in encephalopathy, and reduced alpha and beta with increased delta and theta in Alzheimer’s.

      Common epileptiform patterns include spikes, spike/sharp waves, and spike-waves. Medications can have important effects on EEG findings, with clozapine decreasing alpha and increasing delta and theta, lithium increasing all waveforms, lamotrigine decreasing all waveforms, and valproate having inconclusive effects on delta and theta and increasing beta.

      Overall, EEG is a useful tool in clinical contexts for ruling out organic conditions and differentiating between various disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurosciences
      14.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What is the term used to describe differences in physical traits that are...

    Correct

    • What is the term used to describe differences in physical traits that are caused by changes in the expression of DNA rather than changes in the DNA sequence itself?

      Your Answer: Epigenetic

      Explanation:

      Genetic Terms

      Recombination Fraction

      The recombination fraction is a measure of the distance between loci on a chromosome. If two loci are on different chromosomes, they will segregate independently. However, if they are on the same chromosome, they would always segregate together were it not for the process of crossing over. The closer two loci are on a chromosome, the less likely they are to be separated by crossing over. Blocks of alleles on a chromosome tend to be transmitted as a block through pedigree, and are known as a haplotype. The recombination fraction can vary from 0% if they are extremely close and 50% if they are on different chromosomes.

      Gene Mapping

      Mapping the genome is done in two ways: genetic mapping and physical mapping. Genetic mapping uses techniques such as pedigree analysis, while physical mapping is a technique used to find the order and physical distance between DNA base pairs by DNA markers. Physical maps can be divided into three general types: chromosomal of cytogenetic maps, radiation hybrid (RH) maps, and sequence maps. The different types of maps vary in their degree of resolution. Both maps are a collection of genetic markers and gene loci. While the physical map could be a more ‘accurate’ representation of the genome, genetic maps often offer insights into the nature of different regions of the chromosome.

      LOD Score

      The LOD score (logarithm of the odds) is a method used to ascertain if there is evidence for linkage between two genes. When genes are very near to each other on a chromosome, they are unlikely to be separated during crossing over in meiosis, and such genes are said to be linked. The relative distance between two genes can be calculated by using the offspring of an organism showing two strongly linked traits, and finding the percentage of offspring where the traits do not run together. By convention, a LOD score of >3 is considered evidence for linkage, and a LOD score of <-2 excludes linkage. Epigenetic Epigenetics involves genetic control by factors other than an individual’s DNA sequence. Epigenetic changes can switch genes on of off and determine which proteins are transcribed. Penetrance Penetrance is the probability of a gene of genetic trait being expressed. ‘Complete penetrance’ means the gene of genes for a trait are expressed in all the population who have the genes. ‘Incomplete penetrance’ means the genetic trait is expressed in only part of the population. Heritability Heritability is the proportion of phenotypic variance attributable to genetic variance. Anticipation Anticipation is a phenomenon whereby the symptoms of a genetic disorder become apparent at an earlier age as it is passed on to the next generation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed? ...

    Correct

    • For which medical conditions is Modafinil prescribed?

      Your Answer: Narcolepsy

      Explanation:

      Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement

      Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the term that describes a patient's tendency to provide a lengthy...

    Correct

    • What is the term that describes a patient's tendency to provide a lengthy and convoluted answer to a question, struggling to filter out irrelevant associations?

      Your Answer: Circumstantiality

      Explanation:

      Formal Thought Disorders

      In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.

      There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.

      Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.

      Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.

      Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.

      Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.

      Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.

      Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Classification And Assessment
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following is not an inducer of the Cytochrome P450 system?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is not an inducer of the Cytochrome P450 system?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      Cytochrome P450 is an important enzyme system involved in drug metabolism. Certain substances can either increase or decrease the activity of this system. Smoking, alcohol, barbiturates, carbamazepine, Phenytoin, and St John’s Wort are known to induce the activity of cytochrome P450. On the other hand, chlorpromazine, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), and grapefruit juice are known to inhibit the activity of cytochrome P450.

      The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychopharmacology
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old African American woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old African American woman visits her primary care physician with complaints of excessive fatigue and weakness. She is convinced that she is experiencing urinary incontinence and requests a referral to a specialist. Medical tests show no evidence of any underlying physical conditions. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dhat syndrome

      Explanation:

      Dhat syndrome is a condition commonly observed in the Indian subcontinent, characterized by fatigue and weakness, and the belief that one is expelling semen in their urine. The condition has no identifiable physical cause.

      Hyperschemazia is a condition where individuals perceive certain body parts as being larger than they actually are.

      Koro is a belief, typically found in Southeast Asia, that the penis is shrinking and will eventually retract into the abdomen, leading to death. This belief is thought to stem from a misunderstanding of anatomy.

      Latah is a condition similar to Tourette’s syndrome, where individuals exhibit abnormal behavior in response to exaggerated startle responses. This may include screaming, cursing, dancing movements, uncontrollable laughter, and obeying commands they would not normally follow.

      Nihilistic delusion is characterized by a strong sense of self-negation, where individuals may believe that they are dead of that their internal organs are decaying.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Descriptive Psychopathology
      23.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurosciences (0/3) 0%
Social Psychology (0/1) 0%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Psychopharmacology (2/2) 100%
Classification And Assessment (1/1) 100%
Descriptive Psychopathology (1/1) 100%
Passmed