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Question 1
Correct
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A 30-year-old previously healthy man is involved in an accident at home. He is brought to Accident and Emergency where he is found to have superficial abrasions to the right side of his chest and upper abdomen, together with an obvious deformity of the right humerus. Radiograph of the right arm shows a displaced midshaft humerus fracture. Neurovascular examination reveals radial nerve palsy, together with absent peripheral pulses and a cool, clammy distal arm. He was given oral paracetamol at home, while waiting for the ambulance to arrive. Pain score remains 9/10. Parameters are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Temperature 36.9 °C 36.1–37.2 °C
Pulse 110 bpm 60–100 bpm
Blood pressure 140/90 mmHg < 120/80 mmHg
Oxygen saturations 98% on room air 94–98%
Respiratory rate 22 breaths/min 12–18 breaths/min
Which of the following is the most appropriate form of pain relief?Your Answer: IV morphine
Explanation:Choosing the Right Analgesic for Acute Pain: A Case-by-Case Basis
Analgesia is typically administered in a stepwise manner, but emergency medicine requires a more individualized approach. In cases of acute pain from long bone fractures, non-opioid analgesia may not be sufficient. The two most viable options are oral and IV morphine, with IV morphine being preferred due to its rapid onset and safe side-effect profile. However, caution must be exercised due to the risk of respiratory depression and dependency. Oral NSAIDs and morphine are contraindicated as the patient must be kept nil by mouth before urgent surgical intervention. Oxycodone prolonged release is too weak for severe pain. Choosing the right analgesic for acute pain requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 2
Correct
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A 34-year-old surgical patient develops wheeze, lip swelling, and pallor while receiving antibiotics. Her blood pressure is 70/38 mmHg. What urgent treatment is required?
Your Answer: 1:1000 IM adrenaline
Explanation:Understanding the Correct Treatment for Anaphylaxis
Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline via the intramuscular (IM) route is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. Adrenaline’s inotropic action provides an immediate response, making it a lifesaving treatment. Once the patient is stabilized, intravenous hydrocortisone and chlorphenamine can also be administered. However, adrenaline remains the primary treatment.
It is crucial to conduct a full ABCDE assessment and involve an anaesthetist if there are concerns about the airway. Using 1:10,000 IM adrenaline is sub-therapeutic in the setting of anaphylaxis. This dose is only used during cardiopulmonary resuscitation. Similarly, 1:10,000 IM noradrenaline is the wrong choice of drug and dose for anaphylaxis treatment.
Intramuscular glucagon is used to treat severe hypoglycemia when the patient is unconscious or too drowsy to administer glucose replacement therapy orally. Intravenous noradrenaline is not the correct drug or route for anaphylaxis treatment. Understanding the correct treatment for anaphylaxis is crucial in saving lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 3
Correct
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An 82-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department, having suffered from a fall in his home. He has bruising to his face and legs and a ‘dinner fork’ deformity of his left wrist. His pulse is 70 bpm, blood pressure (BP) 110/90 mmHg, temperature 37.2 °C and oxygen saturations 98%. His plan includes an occupational therapy and risk assessment for falls, with a view to modification of his home and lifestyle to prevent future recurrence.
Approximately what percentage of people aged over 80 suffer from falls?Your Answer: 50%
Explanation:Falls in Older Adults: Prevalence and Risk Factors
Falls are a common occurrence in older adults, with approximately 30% of those over 65 and 50% of those over 80 experiencing a fall each year. These falls can lead to serious consequences, such as neck of femur fractures, loss of confidence, and increased anxiety.
There are several risk factors for falls, including muscle weakness, gait abnormalities, use of a walking aid, visual impairment, postural hypotension, cluttered environment, arthritis, impaired activities of daily living, depression, cognitive impairment, and certain medications.
To prevent falls, interventions such as balance and exercise training, medication rationalization, correction of visual impairments, and home assessments can be implemented. Additionally, underlying medical conditions should be treated, and osteoporosis prophylaxis should be considered for those with recurrent falls.
Overall, falls in older adults are a significant concern, but with proper prevention and management strategies, their impact can be minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-week history of productive cough and fever. She has had no sick contacts or foreign travel. She has a background history of mild intermittent asthma and is a non-smoker. She has been taking paracetamol and salbutamol. On clinical examination, her respiratory rate is 16 breaths per minute, oxygen saturations 96% (on room air), blood pressure 136/82 mmHg and temperature 38.2 °C. On chest auscultation, there is mild expiratory wheeze and coarse crackles in the right lung base.
What is the most appropriate management of this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days
Explanation:Management of Community-Acquired Pneumonia in a Woman with a CRB-65 Score of 0
When managing a woman with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) and a CRB-65 score of 0, the recommended treatment is amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily for five days. If there is no improvement after three days, the duration of treatment should be extended to seven to ten days.
If the CRB-65 score is 1 or 2, dual therapy with amoxicillin 500 mg three times daily and clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily for 7-10 days, or monotherapy with doxycycline for 7-10 days, should be considered. However, in this case, the CRB-65 score is 0, so this is not necessary.
Admission for intravenous (IV) antibiotics and steroids is not required for this woman, as she is relatively well with mild wheeze and a CRB-65 score of 0. A chest X-ray is also not necessary, as she is younger and a non-smoker.
Symptomatic management should be continued, and the woman should be advised to return in three days if there is no improvement. It is important to prescribe antibiotics for people with suspected CAP, unless this is not appropriate, such as in end-of-life care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 5
Incorrect
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You are alone walking in the countryside when an elderly man collapses in front of you. There is nobody else around. You look, listen and feel, ensuring his airway is open. He is not breathing and is unresponsive. You phone for an ambulance.
What is the next step that you would take while waiting for the ambulance to arrive?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute, giving two rescue breaths after every 30 compressions
Explanation:How to Perform Chest Compressions and Rescue Breaths in Basic Life Support
When faced with a non-responsive person who is not breathing, it is important to act quickly and perform basic life support. Begin by confirming that the person is not breathing and calling for an ambulance. Then, kneel by the person’s side and place the heel of one hand in the centre of their chest, with the other hand on top, interlocking fingers. Apply pressure to the sternum to a depth of 5-6 cm at a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute. After 30 compressions, open the airway and give two rescue breaths. Pinch the nose closed and blow steadily into the mouth, watching for the chest to rise. Repeat chest compressions and rescue breaths until help arrives.
Note: The previous recommendation of two rescue breaths before chest compressions has been replaced with immediate chest compressions. Do not delay potentially life saving resuscitation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department following a car accident. He has a head injury and has vomited twice within the ambulance. His eyes are open to voice; he is able to squeeze your hand with both hands, when asked, and wiggle his toes. He is confused about what has happened and does not remember the accident. He cannot remember his age and tells you that he does not know where he is currently. Other injuries include a broken collarbone (immobilized). His sats are 98% on 10 l high-flow oxygen, with a heart rate of 100 bpm and a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg.
What is his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 13
Explanation:Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness based on three components: eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. The score ranges from 3 (lowest) to 15 (highest). Each component has a range of scores, with higher scores indicating better function.
The breakdown of scores for each component is as follows:
– Eye opening: spontaneous (4), to speech (3), to pain (2), none (1)
– Verbal response: oriented response (5), confused speech (4), inappropriate words (3), incomprehensible sounds (2), none (1)
– Best motor response: obeys commands (6), movement localized to stimulus (5), withdraws (4), abnormal muscle bending and flexing (3), involuntary muscle straightening and extending (2), none (1)To calculate the GCS score, the scores for each component are added together. For example, a patient who opens their eyes to speech (3), is confused (4), and obeys commands (6) would have a GCS score of 13 (E3 V4 M6 = GCS 13).
It is important to note that a reduced GCS score may indicate the need for intubation, particularly if the score is 8 or less. Understanding the GCS can help healthcare providers quickly assess a patient’s level of consciousness and determine appropriate interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 93-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department from a nursing home with a 4-day history of fever and lethargy. He has a background history of chronic urinary catheterisation for benign prostatic hyperplasia. On clinical examination, he is noted to be acutely confused. His temperature is 38.5 °C, and he has a heart rate of 97 bpm, blood pressure of 133/70 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute.
Investigation Result Normal value
White cell count 13 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Blood glucose 6 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
Urinalysis
2+ blood
2+ leukocytes
1+ nitrites
NAD
What is the diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Explanation:Understanding Sepsis, SIRS, Urinary Tract Infection, and Septic Shock
Sepsis is a serious medical condition that occurs when the body’s response to an infection causes damage to its own tissues and organs. One way to diagnose sepsis is by using the Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS) criteria, which include tachycardia, tachypnea, fever or hypo/hyperthermia, and leukocytosis, leukopenia, or bandemia. If a patient meets two or more of these criteria, with or without evidence of infection, they may be diagnosed with SIRS.
A urinary tract infection (UTI) is a common type of infection that can occur in patients with a long-term catheter. However, if a patient with a UTI also meets the SIRS criteria and has a source of infection, they should be treated as sepsis.
Septic shock is a severe complication of sepsis that occurs when blood pressure drops to dangerously low levels. In this case, there is no evidence of septic shock as the patient’s blood pressure is normal.
In summary, this patient meets the SIRS criteria for sepsis and has a source of infection, making it a case of high-risk sepsis. It is important to understand the differences between sepsis, SIRS, UTI, and septic shock to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient in the Intensive Care Unit has been on ventilatory support for the last two weeks after a significant traumatic brain injury. A decision has to be made about whether they are taken off life support and whether or not the patient has irreversible brain damage.
In which of the following circumstances can brain death be diagnosed?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A ventilator-supported patient
Explanation:Understanding the Factors that Affect Brain Death Diagnosis
Brain death diagnosis is a critical process that determines the cessation of brain function, which is irreversible and leads to the death of an individual. However, several factors can affect the accuracy of this diagnosis, and they must be excluded before confirming brain death.
One of the primary conditions for brain death diagnosis is the patient’s inability to maintain their own heartbeat and ventilation, requiring the support of a ventilator. However, this condition alone is not sufficient, and two other factors must be present, including unconsciousness and clear evidence of irreversible brain damage.
Hypothermia is one of the factors that can confound the examination of cortical and brainstem function, making it difficult to diagnose brain death accurately. Similarly, encephalopathy secondary to hepatic failure and severe hypophosphataemia can also impact cortical and brainstem function, leading to inaccurate brain death diagnosis.
Finally, sedation by anaesthetic or neuroparalytic agents can depress the neurological system, making it appear as if the patient is brain dead when they are not. Therefore, it is crucial to consider all these factors and exclude them before confirming brain death diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are on call overnight on orthopaedics when you receive a bleep to see a patient you are not familiar with. The patient had a left total hip replacement procedure 2 days ago and is now exhibiting signs of drowsiness and confusion. Upon examination, you observe that the patient is tachycardic, and an electrocardiogram (ECG) shows peaked T-waves and a wide QRS complex. You decide to take an arterial blood gas (ABG) which reveals a potassium level of 6.4 mmol (normal 5–5.0 mmol/l). What would be the most appropriate initial management action for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate by slow intravenous (IV) injection
Explanation:Managing Hyperkalaemia: Treatment Options and Considerations
Hyperkalaemia is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate management. The first step is to administer 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate by slow IV injection to protect the cardiac myocytes from excess potassium. Following this, 10 units of Actrapid® in 100 ml of 20% glucose can be given to draw potassium intracellularly. Salbutamol nebulisers may also be helpful. Calcium resonium 15g orally or 30 g rectally can be used to mop up excess potassium in the gastrointestinal tract, but it is not effective in the acute setting.
It is important to note that this condition requires urgent attention and cannot wait for a registrar to arrive. Once the patient is stabilised, senior support may be called for.
It is crucial to administer the correct dosage and concentration of medications. Giving 50 ml of 15% calcium gluconate by slow IV injection is not the correct volume and concentration. Careful consideration and attention to detail are necessary in managing hyperkalaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient presents with acute severe abdominal pain and the following blood results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 130 g/l
Female: 115–155 g/l
Male: 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 18 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 142 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 22 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Calcium 1.9 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) 800 IU/l 50–120 IU/l
Albumin 30 g/l 35–50 g/l
Amylase 1600 U/l < 200 U/l
What is the most appropriate transfer location for ongoing care?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intensive care as an inpatient
Explanation:Appropriate Management of Acute Pancreatitis: A Case Study
A patient presents with acutely raised amylase, high white cell count (WCC), and high lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), indicating acute pancreatitis or organ rupture. The Glasgow system suggests severe pancreatitis with a poor outcome. In this case study, we explore the appropriate management options for this patient.
Intensive care as an inpatient is the most appropriate response, as the patient is at high risk for developing multi-organ failure. The modified Glasgow score is used to assess the severity of acute pancreatitis, and this patient meets the criteria for severe pancreatitis. Aggressive support in an intensive care environment is necessary.
Discharge into the community and general practitioner review in 1 week would be a dangerous response, as the patient needs inpatient treatment and acute assessment and treatment. The same applies to general surgical outpatient review in 1 week.
Operating theatre would be inappropriate, as no operable problem has been identified. Supportive management is the most likely course of action. If organ rupture is suspected, stabilisation of shock and imaging would likely be done first.
General medical ward as an inpatient is not the best option, as acute pancreatitis is a surgical problem and should be admitted under a surgical team. Additionally, the patient’s deranged blood tests, especially the low calcium and high WCC, indicate a high risk of developing multi-organ failure, requiring intensive monitoring.
In conclusion, appropriate management of acute pancreatitis requires prompt and aggressive support in an intensive care environment, with close monitoring of the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 11
Incorrect
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An adolescent recovering from a first-time anaphylactic reaction to shellfish is being discharged.
What should be done at discharge?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discharge with two adrenaline autoinjectors
Explanation:Discharge and Follow-Up of Anaphylactic Patients: Recommendations and Advice
When it comes to discharging and following up with patients who have experienced anaphylaxis, there are certain recommendations and advice that healthcare professionals should keep in mind. Here are some key points to consider:
Recommendations and Advice for Discharging and Following Up with Anaphylactic Patients
– Give two adrenaline injectors as an interim measure after emergency treatment for anaphylaxis, before a specialist allergy service appointment. This is especially important in the event the patient has another anaphylactic attack before their specialist appointment.
– Auto-injectors are given to patients at an increased risk of a reaction. They are not usually necessary for patients who have suffered drug-induced anaphylaxis, unless it is difficult to avoid the drug.
– Advise that one adrenaline auto-injector will be prescribed if the patient has a further anaphylactic reaction.
– Arrange for a blood test after one week for serum tryptase, immunoglobulin E (IgE) and histamine levels to assess biphasic reaction. Discharge and follow-up of anaphylactic patients do not involve a blood test. Tryptase sample timings, measured while the patient is in hospital, should be documented in the patient’s records.
– Patients who have suffered from anaphylaxis should be given information about the potential of biphasic reactions (i.e. the reaction can recur hours after initial treatment) and what to do if a reaction occurs again.
– All patients presenting with anaphylaxis should be referred to an Allergy Clinic to identify the cause, and thereby reduce the risk of further reactions and prepare the patient to manage future episodes themselves. All patients should also be given two adrenaline injectors in the event the patient has another anaphylactic attack.By following these recommendations and providing patients with the necessary information and resources, healthcare professionals can help ensure the best possible outcomes for those who have experienced anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department after an episode of near-drowning. He fell from a boat into a lake and was unable to swim. He was underwater for < 2 minutes before he was rescued. He did not lose consciousness. He reports swallowing lots of water and vomited twice in the ambulance. He is awake and alert; his observations are as follows: blood pressure 126/76 mmHg, pulse 94 bpm, oxygen saturations 94% on room air, and temperature 36 °C. He is coughing occasionally, and his lungs are clear to auscultation. One hour after the episode, he feels well and wishes to go home.
What is the best management plan for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit overnight for observation
Explanation:Management of Near-Drowning Patients: Recommendations for Observation and Treatment
Admission for Observation:
If a patient has experienced near-drowning but is awake and alert, it is recommended to observe them for at least six hours. This is because pulmonary oedema, a potential complication, may develop later on (usually within four hours).Discharge Home:
While it may be tempting to discharge a patient after only one hour of observation, it is important to note that pulmonary oedema can occur late in near-drowning cases. Therefore, it is recommended to observe the patient for at least six hours before considering discharge.Admission to ICU:
If the patient is alert and stable, there is no indication to admit them to the ICU. In cases where submersion durations are less than 10 minutes, the chances of a good outcome are very high.Antibiotics and IV Fluids:
The need for antibiotics and IV fluids depends on the severity of the near-drowning incident. If the water was grossly contaminated, antibiotics may be necessary. However, if the patient is alert and able to swallow, oral antibiotics can be given. IV fluids are not necessary if the patient is haemodynamically stable and alert. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 68 year old homeless man is brought into the Emergency Department with acute confusion. The patient is unable to provide a history and is shivering profusely. Physical examination reveals a body temperature of 34.5oC.
Regarding thermoregulation, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acclimatisation of the sweating mechanism occurs in response to heat
Explanation:Understanding Heat Adaptation and Thermoregulation in Humans
Humans have the unique ability to actively acclimatize to heat stress through adaptations in the sweating mechanism. This process involves an increase in the sweating capability of the glands, which helps to lower body core temperatures. Heat adaptation begins on the first day of exposure and typically takes 4-7 days to develop in most individuals, with complete adaptation taking around 14 days.
While brown fat plays a significant role in non-shivering thermogenesis in newborns and infants, there are very few remnants of brown fat in adults. Instead, thermoregulation is mainly controlled by the hypothalamus, which is responsible for regulating body temperature and other vital functions.
Although apocrine sweat glands have little role in thermoregulation, they still play an important role in heat loss by evaporation. Overall, understanding heat adaptation and thermoregulation in humans is crucial for maintaining optimal health and preventing heat-related illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 71-year-old man attends the Emergency Department with a 3-day history of a warm, red, tender right lower leg. He thinks it is the result of banging his leg against a wooden stool at home. He has a past medical history of diabetes. He is unable to recall his drug history and is unsure of his allergies, although he recalls having ‘a serious reaction’ to an antibiotic as a child.
You diagnose cellulitis and prescribe an initial dose of flucloxacillin, which is shortly administered. Several minutes later, the nurse asks for an urgent review of the patient since the patient has become very anxious and has developed a hoarse voice. You attend the patient and note swelling of the tongue and lips. As you take the patient’s wrist to feel the rapid pulse, you also note cool fingers. A wheeze is audible on auscultation of the chest and patchy erythema is visible. You ask the nurse for observations and she informs you the respiratory rate is 29 and systolic blood pressure 90 mmHg. You treat the patient for an anaphylactic reaction, administering high-flow oxygen, intravenous (iv) fluid, adrenaline, hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine.
What is the dose of adrenaline you would use?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.5 ml of 1 in 1000 intramuscular (im)
Explanation:Anaphylaxis and the ABCDE Approach
Anaphylaxis is a severe and life-threatening allergic reaction that requires immediate medical attention. It is characterized by respiratory and circulatory compromise, skin and mucosal changes, and can be triggered by various agents such as foods and drugs. In the case of anaphylaxis, the ABCDE approach should be used to assess the patient. Adrenaline is the most important drug in the treatment of anaphylaxis and should be administered at a dose of 0.5 mg (0.5 ml of 1 in 1000) intramuscularly. The response to adrenaline should be monitored, and further boluses may be required depending on the patient’s response. Other medications that should be given include chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone, as well as intravenous fluids. It is crucial to recognize and treat anaphylaxis promptly to prevent severe complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old patient arrives by ambulance after developing breathing difficulties. She is otherwise healthy but had recently been prescribed amoxicillin by her doctor for a lower respiratory tract infection.
During examination, she is unable to speak and has harsh upper airway sounds on inspiration. She also has a noticeable rash. Her pulse is 160 bpm and her blood pressure is 80/40. Her oxygen saturation is 90% on high-flow oxygen.
What is the initial step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Administer 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 adrenaline solution intramuscularly (im)
Explanation:Management of Anaphylaxis: Initial Steps and Common Mistakes
Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt and appropriate management. The initial steps in managing anaphylaxis follow the ABCDE approach, which includes securing the airway, administering high-flow oxygen, and giving adrenaline intramuscularly (IM). The recommended dose of adrenaline is 0.5 ml of 1 : 1000 solution, which can be repeated after 5 minutes if necessary. However, administering adrenaline via the intravenous (IV) route should only be done during cardiac arrest or by a specialist experienced in its use for circulatory support.
While other interventions such as giving a 500-ml bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride IV, administering 10 mg of chlorphenamine IV, and administering 200 mg of hydrocortisone IV are important parts of overall management, they should not be the first steps. Giving steroids, such as hydrocortisone, may take several hours to take effect, and anaphylaxis can progress rapidly. Similarly, administering IV fluids and antihistamines may be necessary to treat hypotension and relieve symptoms, but they should not delay the administration of adrenaline.
One common mistake in managing anaphylaxis is administering IV adrenaline in the wrong dose and route. This can lead to fatal complications and should be avoided. Therefore, it is crucial to follow the recommended initial steps and seek expert help if necessary to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Your consultant asks you to monitor a 93-year-old woman on a General Medical Ward admitted with a lower respiratory tract infection who the nurses say becomes really confused at night. She scores 28/30 on Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) on two occasions in the daytime. Between these two results, on a night when you are on call, you completed the examination and found she scored only 18/30. She also complained of animals running around the room.
What is the most likely reason for her cognitive impairment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delirium
Explanation:Interpreting MMSE Scores and Differential Diagnosis for Confusion in an Elderly Patient
A MMSE score of 28/30 suggests no significant cognitive impairment, while a score of 18/30 indicates impairment. However, educational attainment can affect results, and the MMSE is not recommended for those with learning disabilities. Fluctuating confusion with increased impairment at night and visual hallucinations in an elderly person with an infection suggests delirium. Mild or moderate dementia is suggested if the MMSE score is over 26 in the daytime on two occasions, but confusion is at night, suggestive of delirium over dementia. Normal pressure hydrocephalus is unlikely without ataxic gait or urinary incontinence, and cerebral abscess is unlikely without persistent confusion or temperature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman is referred to the Emergency Department by her General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-day history of right flank pain, dysuria and fever. Urosepsis is suspected, and the Sepsis Six Pathway is implemented in the Emergency Department.
Which of the following is part of the ‘Sepsis Six’, the six key components to managing sepsis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous (IV) fluids
Explanation:Treatment Options for Sepsis: IV Fluids, Corticosteroids, Antipyretics, and More
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate treatment. The following are some of the treatment options available for sepsis:
IV Fluids: The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends giving an IV fluid bolus without delay for suspected sepsis. Reassess the patient after completion of the IV fluid bolus, and if no improvement is observed, give a second bolus.
Corticosteroids: In patients with septic shock, corticosteroid therapy appears to be safe but does not reduce 28-day all-cause mortality rates. It does, however, significantly reduce the incidence of vasopressor-dependent shock. Low-quality evidence indicates that steroids reduce mortality among patients with sepsis.
Antipyretics: Treating sepsis is the most important immediate treatment plan. This will also reduce fever, although Antipyretics can be given in conjunction with this treatment, it will not reduce mortality.
Maintain Blood Glucose 8–12 mmol/l: Measuring blood glucose on venous blood gas is important, as sepsis may cause hypo- or hyperglycaemia, which may require treatment. However, maintaining blood glucose between 8 and 12 mmol/l is not an evidence-based intervention and could cause iatrogenic hypo- and hyperglycaemia.
Avoid Oxygen Therapy Unless Severe Hypoxia: Give oxygen to achieve a target saturation of 94−98% for adult patients or 88−92% for those at risk of hypercapnic respiratory failure.
Treatment Options for Sepsis: What You Need to Know
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman has been experiencing fatigue and sluggishness for the past three weeks, along with discomfort in the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. She had a UTI not long ago, which was treated with amoxicillin. However, she ceased taking the medication due to a rash that spread throughout her body. What is the probable cause of her exhaustion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glandular fever
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Glandular Fever, Chronic Fatigue Syndrome, Chronic Renal Failure, Chronic Depression, Iron Deficiency
Glandular Fever: A Possible Diagnosis
The patient in question is likely suffering from glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis. This condition is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, which is transmitted through saliva. Symptoms typically include a sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes in the neck. However, other symptoms such as fatigue, arthritis, and hepatitis may also occur. The patient’s left upper quadrant pain and tiredness are consistent with this diagnosis. A characteristic rash may also develop following treatment with certain antibiotics.Other Possible Diagnoses
Chronic fatigue syndrome is a chronic condition characterized by extreme fatigue and functional impairment. However, given the short time frame of the symptoms and association with amoxicillin, this diagnosis is unlikely. Chronic renal failure is associated with fatigue and anaemia, but there is no evidence of a history of this condition. Chronic depression may cause fatigue, but the duration of symptoms would be longer than three weeks and not associated with an infection or abdominal pain. Iron deficiency is a common cause of fatigue in women of reproductive age and should also be considered. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with symptoms of lethargy, high fever, and headache. During examination, he presents with neck stiffness and a rash. When should the communicable disease consultant (CDC) be notified?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical diagnosis
Explanation:Management of Suspected Meningococcal Meningitis: Importance of Early Diagnosis and Treatment
This article discusses the management of suspected meningococcal meningitis, a serious and potentially life-threatening condition caused by Neisseria meningitidis. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent complications and contain the spread of the disease.
Clinical Diagnosis
The classic triad of symptoms associated with meningococcal meningitis includes fever, headache, and meningeal signs, usually in the form of neck stiffness. A non-blanching rash is also a common feature. Medical practitioners have a statutory obligation to notify Public Health England on clinical suspicion of meningococcal meningitis and septicaemia, without waiting for microbiological confirmation.Upon Microbiological Diagnosis
Delay in notifying the communicable disease consultant of a suspected case of meningococcal meningitis can lead to a delay in contact tracing and outbreak management. Upon culture and isolation, the patient should be administered a stat dose of intramuscular or intravenous benzylpenicillin. Samples should be obtained before administration of antibiotics, including blood for cultures and PCR, CSF for microscopy, culture, and PCR, and nasopharyngeal swab for culture. The patient should be kept in isolation, Public Health England notified, and contacts traced.Upon Treatment
Early treatment with intramuscular or intravenous benzylpenicillin is essential to prevent complications and reduce mortality. Treatment should be administered at the earliest opportunity, either in primary or secondary care.After Discharge
Alerting the communicable disease consultant after discharge is too late to track and treat other individuals at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to notify Public Health England and trace contacts as soon as a suspected case of meningococcal meningitis is identified. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man is brought by ambulance, having fallen off his motorbike. He was wearing a helmet at the time of the crash; the helmet cracked on impact. At presentation, he is haemodynamically stable and examination is unremarkable, aside from superficial abrasions on the arms and legs. Specifically, he is neurologically intact. He is nevertheless offered admission for head injury charting and observation. Two hours after admission, nurses find him unresponsive, with a unilateral fixed, dilated pupil. An emergency computed tomography (CT) scan is performed.
What is the likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Extradural haemorrhage
Explanation:Extradural Haemorrhage: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Extradural haemorrhage is a type of head injury that can lead to neurological compromise and coma if left untreated. It is typically caused by trauma to the middle meningeal artery, meningeal veins, or a dural venous sinus. The condition is most prevalent in young men involved in road traffic accidents and is characterized by a lucid interval followed by a decrease in consciousness.
CT scans typically show a high-density, lens-shaped collection of peripheral blood in the extradural space between the inner table of the skull bones and the dural surface. As the blood collects, patients may experience severe headache, vomiting, confusion, fits, hemiparesis, and ipsilateral pupil dilation.
Treatment for extradural haemorrhage involves urgent decompression by creating a borehole above the site of the clot. Prognosis is poor if the patient is comatose or decerebrate or has a fixed pupil, but otherwise, it is excellent.
It is important to differentiate extradural haemorrhage from other types of head injuries, such as subdural haemorrhage, subarachnoid haemorrhage, and Intraparenchymal haemorrhage. Subdural haemorrhage is not limited by cranial sutures, while subarachnoid haemorrhage is characterized by blood lining the sulci of the brain. Intraparenchymal haemorrhage, on the other hand, refers to blood within the brain parenchyma.
In conclusion, extradural haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires urgent medical attention. Early diagnosis and treatment can significantly improve the patient’s prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman arrives at Accident and Emergency with severe cellulitis in her left lower limb. She has no known allergies, is in good health, and is not currently experiencing fever or rapid heart rate. The medical team accepts her and starts her on IV antibiotics. However, she soon becomes hypoxic, experiencing difficulty breathing, with loud upper airway sounds and a widespread rash.
What is the preferred treatment option in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenaline 0.5 mg, 1 in 1000 intramuscularly (IM)
Explanation:Correct Dosages of Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis and Cardiac Arrest
In cases of anaphylaxis, the recommended treatment is 1 : 1000 adrenaline 0.5 ml (0.5 mg) administered intramuscularly (IM). This dose should be given even if the patient has no known drug allergies but exhibits signs of anaphylaxis such as stridor and a rash.
It is important to note that the correct dose of IM adrenaline for anaphylaxis is 0.5 mg, 1 in 1000. Administering a higher dose, such as 1 mg, 1 in 1000, can be dangerous and potentially harmful to the patient.
On the other hand, during a cardiac arrest, the recommended dose of adrenaline is 1 mg, 1 in 10 000, administered intravenously (IV). This is not the recommended dose for anaphylaxis, and administering it through the wrong route can also be harmful to the patient.
In summary, it is crucial to follow the correct dosages and routes of administration for adrenaline in different medical situations to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of right upper quadrant pain. She has a past medical history of hypercholesterolaemia and obesity. On clinical examination, she is alert and has a temperature of 38.6 °C, a heart rate of 90 bpm, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths per minute, a blood pressure of 112/90 mmHg and oxygen saturations of 98% on room air. She has tenderness in her right upper quadrant. Murphy’s sign is positive.
Her blood test results are listed below:
Investigation Result Normal value
White cell count 3 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Blood glucose 7.9 mmol/l 4–10 mmol/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 44 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Which of the following does this patient have?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sepsis
Explanation:Differentiating between Sepsis, Acute Pancreatitis, Appendicitis, Septic Shock, and Urosepsis
When a patient presents with symptoms of fever, elevated heart rate, and a possible infective process, it is important to differentiate between various conditions such as sepsis, acute pancreatitis, appendicitis, septic shock, and urosepsis. In the case of sepsis, the patient may have a mild elevation in heart rate and temperature, along with a low white cell count. If there is evidence of an infective process in the biliary system, broad-spectrum antibiotics should be initiated as part of the Sepsis Six protocol activation. Acute pancreatitis is a serious diagnosis that is often associated with vomiting and a mild rise in temperature. Appendicitis typically presents with central abdominal pain that later localizes to the right iliac fossa, along with anorexia and vomiting. If a patient has sepsis with severe tachycardia, systolic blood pressure of < 90 mmHg, or life-threatening features resistant to resuscitation, they may have septic shock. Finally, urosepsis may present with symptoms of dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic tenderness, or it may be asymptomatic in elderly patients who present with confusion. It is important to rule out urosepsis in elderly patients who present unwell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a lateral ankle injury. This injury occurred while playing basketball the previous day. He continued playing but noted some discomfort at the time and thereafter. He is able to weight-bear with minor discomfort. On examination, there is some swelling over the ankle, a small amount of bruising and minimal tenderness on palpation. There is full range of movement in the ankle joint. He has not taken any analgesia.
What is the best management of this man’s injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise rest, ice, compression and elevation of the ankle for one to two days, followed by early mobilisation
Explanation:Managing Ankle Ligament Sprains: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation, and Early Mobilisation
Ankle ligament sprains can be managed conservatively with rest, ice, compression, elevation, and analgesia. For minor sprains, pain-free stretching should be undertaken as soon as possible, followed by progressive weight-bearing and resistance exercises. Severe sprains or ruptures may require backslab immobilisation for ten days, followed by rehabilitation. Ankle X-rays are only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and any of the Ottawa ankle rules findings. Orthopaedic referral is only necessary for dislocations or fractures. Prolonged immobilisation should be avoided, and passive stretches should be commenced as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old is brought to the Emergency Department after being found at home on the floor by her daughter. Her daughter tried to rouse her but had no response. She has a laceration to her head and her daughter believes she may have had a fall. You notice she has a sudden decrease in consciousness in the department. You are unable to get the patient to make any vocalisation. When you apply supraorbital pressure, she briefly opens her eyes and withdraws from the pain.
Which one of the following is the best immediate management option for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Insert Guedel airway
Explanation:Management of a Patient with Low Glasgow Coma Scale Score
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in patients. A patient with a GCS score below 8 requires urgent referral to critical care or the anaesthetist on-call for appropriate management. In this case, the patient has a GCS score of 7 (E2, V1, M4) and needs immediate attention.
Airway management is the top priority in patients with a low GCS score. The patient may need invasive ventilation if they lose the capacity to maintain their own airway. Once the airway is secured, a referral to the neurosurgical registrar may be necessary, and investigations such as a CT brain scan should be carried out to determine the cause of the low GCS score.
A neurological observation chart is also needed to detect any deteriorating central nervous system function. A medication review can be done once the patient is stabilised and an intracranial bleed has been ruled out. This will help identify medications that could cause a fall and stop unnecessary medication.
In summary, a patient with a low GCS score requires urgent attention to secure their airway, determine the cause of the low score, and monitor for any neurological deterioration. A medication review can be done once the patient is stable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is brought by ambulance to the Emergency Department following a high-speed road traffic incident. He was ejected from the vehicle and sustained a severe head injury. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is E1 V1 M2. Other injuries include an unstable pelvic fracture (secured with a binder) and bruising to his anterior chest wall. His heart rate is 100 bpm with a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. Additional history from a family member includes:
Allergy – penicillin
Past medical history – hypertension, high cholesterol
Drug history – bisoprolol.
Which one of the following would be the fluid of choice for supporting his blood pressure?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Packed red blood cells (through a fluid warmer)
Explanation:In cases of severe high-impact trauma, the patient may experience hypotension and tachycardia due to blood loss. The most common causes of mortality following trauma are neurological injury and blood loss. In such cases, the DCR approach is used, which involves permissive hypotension and blood product-based resuscitation. Crystalloids should be avoided as they can increase haemodilution and impair coagulation and tissue perfusion. Instead, packed red blood cells should be used along with fresh frozen plasma to avoid dilutional coagulopathy. Tranexamic acid may also be used to aid haemostasis. Fluids should be warmed prior to infusion to prevent hypothermia, which is associated with worse patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 81-year-old man, who is confused and aggressive, is admitted to the Medical Admission Unit. He is unable to give any history due to confusion. His wife had taken him to the general practice surgery yesterday due to increased confusion, and trimethoprim was prescribed to treat a urinary tract infection. From a previous discharge letter, you ascertain that he has a background of Alzheimer’s dementia, atrial fibrillation (AF), ischaemic heart disease and osteoarthritis. His wife reports that he is normally forgetful but is much more confused than usual.
On examination, his pulse is 124 bpm (irregularly irregular), blood pressure 134/74 mmHg, oxygen saturation (SaO2) 95% (on 28% oxygen), respiratory rate 22 breaths per minute and temperature 38.4 °C. He has crepitations and increased vocal resonance at the right lung base, with an area of bronchial breathing above this. Neurological examination of the upper and lower limbs is normal.
Chest X-ray (CXR): focal consolidation, right base
Electrocardiogram (ECG): AF with rapid ventricular response
Urine dip: protein ++, otherwise NAD
Blood results are pending.
What is the most likely cause of this patient's acute deterioration?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Community-acquired pneumonia
Explanation:Diagnosing Acute Deterioration in Elderly Patients: Community-Acquired Pneumonia as the Likely Cause
Elderly patients with underlying dementia often present with non-specific symptoms, making it challenging to diagnose the cause of acute deterioration. In this case, the patient presented with acute confusion, and potential causes included community-acquired pneumonia, urinary tract infection, atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response, and progression of Alzheimer’s disease. However, clinically and radiologically, the patient showed evidence of community-acquired pneumonia, making it the most likely diagnosis.
Urinary tract infection and Alzheimer’s disease were ruled out based on urinalysis findings and chest findings, respectively. Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response could have been a cause of the patient’s confusion, but the clinical findings suggested pneumonia as the primary cause. Myocardial infarction was also a possibility, but the chest findings made it less likely.
In conclusion, diagnosing acute deterioration in elderly patients with underlying dementia requires a thorough evaluation of potential causes. In this case, community-acquired pneumonia was the most likely diagnosis, highlighting the importance of considering multiple pathologies that can coexist in elderly patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with oral and genital ulcers and a red rash, parts of which have started to blister. On examination, he is noted to have red eyes. He had been treated with antibiotics ten days ago for a chest infection.
What is the most probable reason behind these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Stevens-Johnson Syndrome and Other Skin Conditions
Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe medical condition that requires immediate recognition and treatment. It is characterized by blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces, leading to the loss of the skin barrier. This condition is rare and is part of a spectrum of diseases that includes toxic epidermal necrolysis. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is the milder end of this spectrum.
The use of certain drugs can trigger the activation of cytotoxic CD8+ T-cells, which attack the skin’s keratinocytes, leading to blister formation and skin sloughing. It is important to note that mucosal involvement may precede cutaneous manifestations. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is associated with the use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, allopurinol, antibiotics, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenytoin, and others.
Prompt treatment is essential, as the condition can progress to multi-organ failure and death if left untreated. Expert clinicians and nursing staff should manage the treatment to minimize skin shearing, fluid loss, and disease progression.
Other skin conditions that may present similarly to Stevens-Johnson syndrome include herpes simplex, bullous pemphigoid, pemphigus vulgaris, and graft-versus-host disease. Herpes simplex virus infection causes oral and genital ulceration but does not involve mucosal surfaces. Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune blistering condition that affects the skin but not the mucosa. Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that affects both the skin and mucosal surfaces. Graft-versus-host disease is unlikely in the absence of a history of transplantation.
In conclusion, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe medical condition that requires prompt recognition and treatment. It is essential to differentiate it from other skin conditions that may present similarly to ensure appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman is brought to the Emergency Department (ED), after being found unconscious in the town centre by members of the police. She is poorly kept, and a police handover reports that she has no fixed abode. She is well known to various members of ED. On arrival in ED, she is still unconscious. Her airway is patent; she is saturating at 94% on room air, with a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. She is haemodynamically stable, with a temperature of 35.6 °C and small, constricted pupils. There appears to be an area of minor external bleeding and a scalp haematoma on the back of her head.
What is the most appropriate initial course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Naloxone 400 μg intramuscularly (IM)
Explanation:Treatment Priorities for Opioid Overdose: A Case Vignette
In cases of suspected opioid overdose, the priority is to address respiratory compromise with the administration of naloxone. The British National Formulary recommends an initial dose of 400 μg, with subsequent doses of 800 μg at 1-minute intervals if necessary, and a final dose of 2 mg if there is still no response. Naloxone acts as a non-selective and competitive opioid receptor antagonist, and is a relatively safe drug.
In the case of an unkempt man with a low respiratory rate and pinpoint pupils, the priority is to administer naloxone. High-flow oxygen is not necessary if the patient is maintaining saturations of 94%. A CT head scan or neurosurgical referral may be necessary in cases of head injury, but in this case, the priority is to address the opioid overdose.
Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist, is not the correct choice for opioid overdose. Benzodiazepine overdose presents with CNS depression, ataxia, and slurred speech, but not pupillary constriction. Naloxone is the appropriate antidote for opioid overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is on the Orthopaedic Ward following a compound fracture of his femur. He is day three post-op and has had a relatively uncomplicated postoperative period despite a complex medical history. His past medical history includes remitting prostate cancer (responding to treatment), COPD and osteoarthritis.
He has a body mass index (BMI) of > 30 kg/m2, hypertension and is currently using a salmeterol inhaler, enzalutamide, naproxen and the combined oral contraceptive pill. He smokes six cigarettes per day and drinks eight units of alcohol per week. He manages his activities of daily living independently.
Blood results from yesterday:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Chloride (Cl) 108 mmol/l 98-106 mmol/l
Urea 7.8 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 85 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
You are crash-paged to his bedside in response to his having a cardiac arrest.
What is the most appropriate management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initiate CPR, give a fibrinolytic and continue for at least 60 minutes
Explanation:Management of Cardiac Arrest in a Post-Operative Patient with a History of Cancer and Oral Contraceptive Use
In the management of a patient who experiences cardiac arrest, it is important to consider the underlying cause and initiate appropriate interventions. In the case of a post-operative patient with a history of cancer and oral contraceptive use, thrombosis is a likely cause of cardiac arrest. Therefore, CPR should be initiated and a fibrinolytic such as alteplase should be given. CPR should be continued for at least 60 minutes as per Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines.
Giving adrenaline without initiating CPR would not be appropriate. It is important to rule out other potential causes such as hypovolemia, hypoxia, tamponade, tension pneumothorax, and toxins. However, in this scenario, thrombosis is the most likely cause.
Calling cardiology for pericardiocentesis is not indicated as there is no history of thoracic trauma. Informing the family is important, but initiating CPR should take priority. Prolonged resuscitation of at least 60 minutes is warranted in the case of thrombosis. Overall, prompt and appropriate management is crucial in the event of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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Question 30
Incorrect
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When requesting an investigation, it is important to consider the potential benefits and harms to the patient. Among radiographic investigations, which ones are associated with the highest radiation exposure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abdominal X-ray
Explanation:Radiation Doses from Medical X-Rays: A Comparison
Medical X-rays are a common diagnostic tool used to detect and diagnose various medical conditions. However, they also expose patients to ionizing radiation, which can increase the risk of cancer and other health problems. Here is a comparison of the radiation doses from different types of X-rays:
Abdominal X-ray: The radiation dose from an abdominal X-ray is equivalent to 5 months of natural background radiation.
Chest X-ray: The radiation dose from a chest X-ray is equivalent to 10 days of natural background radiation.
Abdomen-Pelvis CT: The radiation dose from an abdomen-pelvis CT is equivalent to 3 years of natural background radiation.
DEXA Scan: The radiation dose from a DEXA scan is equivalent to only a few hours of natural background radiation.
Extremity X-rays: The radiation dose from X-rays of extremities, such as knees and ankles, is similar to that of a DEXA scan, equivalent to only a few hours of natural background radiation.
It is important to note that while the radiation doses from medical X-rays are relatively low, they can still add up over time and increase the risk of cancer. Patients should always discuss the risks and benefits of any medical imaging procedure with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
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